During her doctor's appointment she is told that the 10 pounds she has gained are within reason and her overall goal for a healthy pregnancy is to gain weight.
Explanation:
The weight of the human body refers to the mass of the person. The weight of the body is measured in terms of kilograms. The average weight of the healthy human body is 62 kg.
BMI- body mass index is derived from the height and weight of the person.
BMI can be calculated by the ratio of weight of person in kilogram to square of height of the person in meters.
The goal of Olynda for healthy pregnancy is to gain weight.
Is this statement true or false?
Voluntary muscles move when you want them to, while involuntary muscles move automatically.
true
false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Involuntary muscles are not under our conscious control which means we cant make them contract whem we think about it.Voluntary muscles on the other hand,are under our conscious control so we can move these muscles when we want to.
When the pancreas produces large amounts of insulin, which of the following could be the cause?
A
not enough glucagon is being produced
B.
levels of blood glucose are too low
C
levels of blood glucose are too high
D.
not enough glucose is available for cells
According to the textbook, when arranging cots or cribs for naptime, it's important to space children at least
feet away from each other.
A. two
B. three
C. one and a half
D. one
A baseball player is hit with a pitch in the left upper quadrant. Initially he appears to be all right; but toward, the end of the game, he becomes nauseous and starts to vomit. He complains of pain in the left upper quadrant and also pain in his left shoulder extending down his arm. The athletic trainer palpates the abdomen and detects rigidity. within a matter of minutes, the player begins to develop shock-like symptoms.
A. What should the AT suspect happened to this patient?
B. How should the injury be treated?
Answer:
a) Ruptured spleen
b) The patient should be monitored by the doctor and may need blood transfusion. If it is severe, surgery is done on the patient.
Explanation:
a) The spleen is an organ with a fist sized shape located in the left-upper quarter of the abdomen, beneath the ribs. A ruptured spleen occurs when the spleen surface breaks, pouring blood into your abdominal area causing internal bleeding. This can be as a result of hit to the abdomen. Symptoms include abdominal pain, pain in the left shoulder, confusion, dizziness, shock, nausea.
b) The patient should be monitored by the doctor and may need blood transfusion. If it is severe, surgery is done on the patient.
As a college student, you are trying to be healthy and Calorie conscious by making yourself a lettuce and tomato sandwich for supper. After making the sandwich, you decide it needs something extra. In the store, you find bacon (20 g of fat), lean chicken (20 g of protein), or sprouts (20 g of carbohydrates) that you would add. Which of these would provide the lowest Calorie count for your sandwich?
Answer: I personally would say lean chicken
Explanation:
20 grams of fat in bacon would be tough to burn off
Carbs are a pain as well bu with protein if your body doesn’t need it you kidneys will take care of that
One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is
Answer:
A rise in plasma osmolarity
Explanation:
How many hours of sleep do teenagers need?
4-6
6-8
8-10
10-14
Answer:i think it is 8-10
Explanation:
I looked it up
A mother brings her 15-month-old toddler to the clinic for his preventative health care visit. The clinician takes the history and observes the child's interactions and behaviors and is the ready to begin the rest of the examination. Which of the following best describes the general approach to the pediatric examination of the young child?
a) Begin with least invasive parts of the examination first.b) Children age <2 years do not need to be examined.c) Always give immunizations prior to beginning the examination.d) Examine the child in the same order as for an adult patient.e) Never examine a young child in the mother's lap.
Answer:
a) Begin with least invasive parts of the examination first.
Explanation:
The sequence for examining a child should vary with the child's age,
development, and overall comfort level. In general, perform less‐
invasive maneuvers first and delay potentially distressing maneuvers
until later in the examination.
Answer:
Always examine prior to immunization
Explanation:
Lice are small wingless insects that make their home in human hair and feed on very small amounts of blood from the scalp. They can be transferred from person to person and through the use of contaminated items such as brushes or pillows. Which type of disease is lice infestation?
Answer:
Lice infestation is a communicable disease.
Explanation:
The type of disease is lice infestation is Pediculosis and it is Communicable Diseases.
What type of lice infestation is ?Communicable Diseases - Lice. Abstract: Head lice are small parasitic bugs that stay at the scalp in which they lay their eggs and feed on blood. Head lice are unfold maximum normally with the aid of using direct touch from head to head, or with the aid of using sharing belongings.
The Pediculosis is an infestation of the bushy elements of the frame or apparel with the eggs, larvae or adults of lice. The crawling ranges of this insect feed on human blood, that may bring about excessive itching.
Thus well explained.
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What is the active chemical compound in alcohol
Answer:
ethyl alcohol
Explanation:
ethyl alcohol is the main drug used in alcohol
The active chemical compound in alcohol is called ethanol, which is what causes the intoxicating effects when alcohol is consumed.
Explanation:The active chemical compound in alcohol is called ethanol. It is a simple two-carbon alcohol with the molecular formula C2H5OH. This compound is responsible for the intoxicating effect of alcoholic drinks. When consumed, ethanol interacts with various neurotransmitter systems in the brain, leading to the characteristic effects and potential health risks of alcohol consumption. Please remember the dangers of excessive alcohol consumption and always drink responsibly.
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How do eGFR and proteinuria differ before and after the administration of spironolactone?
Answer:
Answered below.
Explanation:
Spironolactone is a diuretic of the potassium-sparing class. It acts to prevent the absorption of too much sodium and thereby preserving the potassium levels in the blood.
It is used in the treatment of disease conditions such as hypokalemia, fluid retention, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease.
In certain kidney conditions where there is protein in urine or proteinuria, spironolactone has been used for therapy.
The long-term use of spironolactone in the treatment of proteinuria shows a decrease in the levels of proteinuria.
The estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR decreased after one month of treatment using spironolactone.
Spironolactone has been shown therefore, to be beneficial in the control and management of these conditions.
what condition is caused by pathogens
The condition caused by pathogens is known as an infection.
An infection occurs when pathogenic microorganisms, known as pathogens, invade the body's tissues and multiply, leading to a host response. Pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Depending on the type of pathogen and the body's immune response, infections can range from mild to severe and can affect any part of the body. Common examples of infections caused by pathogens include the common cold (often caused by rhinoviruses), urinary tract infections (commonly caused by Escherichia coli bacteria), and malaria (caused by Plasmodium parasites). The treatment for an infection depends on its cause and may involve the use of antimicrobial medications such as antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, or antiparasitics.
A student exposed to streptococcus comes down with a high fever. What is the likely cause?
Answer:
Bacteria toxin
Our immune system increases the temperature of our body in response to antigen or toxin associated with infectious agents such as bacteria or virus.
Your patient is a child weighing 45 pounds. The doctor has ordered Achromycin syrup 0.02 gm per pound q.i.d. The bottle you have on hand is labeled 125 mg per tsp. How many ml will the child receive PER DAY?
Answer:
141.98 ml/day
Explanation:
The data given by the exercise is as follows:
Weight of child = 45 lbs
Dose of medication = 0.02 g / lbs four times a day
Bottle concentration = 125 mg / tbs
The question asks for the total amount of medication the child has to receive in ml per day.
One should know the conversion of tbs to ml (1 tbs = 4.93 ml approx.)
Total medication in grams this child should receive per day:
0.02 g/lbs x 45 lbs x 4 times a day = 3.6g a day = 3600 mg a day (always check which units are the most convenient)
Since 1 tsp of the medication contains 125mg:
3600 mg / 125 mg/tsp = 28.8 tsp a day
Finally, since each tsp contains approx. 4.93 ml:
28.8 tsp x 4.93 ml/tsp = 141.98 ml a day = 141.98 ml/day
Heartburn is usually caused by the effects of gastric juice on the
Answer:
Esophagus
Explanation:
A child with laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) is placed in a cool mist tent. The mother becomes concerned because the child is frightened, consistently crying, and trying to climb out of the tent. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A.Tell the mother that the child must stay in the tent.
B.Place a toy in the tent to make the child feel more comfortable.
C.Call the health care provider and obtain a prescription for a mild sedative.
D.Let the mother hold the child and direct the cool mist over the child's face.
Answer:b
Explanation:
A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site?
A. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal.B. The patient develops a tension pneumothorax.C. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath.D. None of the above
Answer:
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The nail shouldn’t be removed under any circumstance. The patient be rushed to the hospital or have the ambulance called so the right medical personnel can take care of the injury and symptoms experienced by him.
The nail will be removed by medical personnel through a surgical procedure called thoracotomy.
On April 16, 2007, BBC News reported the results of a study done by Dr. David Lewis of Mindlab International in the United Kingdom. Dr. Lewis found that eating dark chocolate had longer-lasting excitatory effects on the body than did kissing a romantic partner. From his statement, it is evident that Dr. Lewis:
Answer: Found Chocolate better and long lasting effect than kissing
Explanation: Dr. Lewis found chocolate better than kissing. From Dr. Lewis results reported by the British Broadcasting Corporation BBC it was observed that although kissing increased the excitatory ( excitation) like a burst in energy level of the heart it didn't have a long lasting effect, unlike the Chocolate which increased the heartbeat of the individuals from 60beats/ minutes to about 140 beats/ minutes. This observation was recorded from the Tests carried out on individuals.
Answer:
The question is incomplete, but according to what was posed, dark chocolate generates, upon ingestion, the release of endorphins that are neurotransmitters that promote the stimulation of pleasure or happiness.
Explanation:
It is proven that dark chocolate also has a lower fat content, therefore it favors the circulatory system more and does not generate a fat reserve like milk chocolates.
On the other hand, the endorphins generated by eating the chocolate and mainly bitter not only interferes at the nervous level, but it was also proposed and found that the presence of endorphins improves the immune system, and blood pressure by promoting the release of nitrous oxide.
They are endogenous opioid peptides, that means that they are manufactured by our body.
A woman who _______ is likely to experience the latest menopause. has never been pregnant has always had very short menstrual cycles has used oral contraceptives for 20 years has been pregnant and given birth once becomes sexually active at age 15
Final answer:
A woman who has used oral contraceptives for 20 years is likely to experience menopause later compared to other factors mentioned. Menopause generally occurs at an average age of 50 to 52, but various factors can alter this timing.
Explanation:
The female reproductive system undergoes many changes as women age, with one of the most significant being menopause, the cessation of the menstrual cycle. Research suggests that various factors can influence the age at which a woman experiences menopause. A woman who has used oral contraceptives for a lengthy period, such as 20 years, is likely to experience a later menopause compared to those who have never been pregnant, have had short menstrual cycles, have been pregnant and given birth once, or became sexually active at a young age. While the average age of menopause is between 50 and 52 years, it can vary widely due to factors like health, lifestyle, and genetic predisposition.
The correct option is 2. A woman who has always had very short menstrual cycles is likely to experience the latest menopause.
The timing of menopause can be influenced by various factors, including genetics, lifestyle, and reproductive history. Among the options provided, having very short menstrual cycles is most closely associated with a later age of menopause. Short menstrual cycles are typically defined as cycles lasting less than 25 days, and they are indicative of a shorter follicular phase, which is the phase before ovulation. Research has suggested that a shorter follicular phase may be associated with a later onset of menopause.
Here's the reasoning behind the other options:
1. has never been pregnant: Pregnancy and breastfeeding can delay the onset of menopause, as these conditions suppress ovulation and reduce the number of follicles available for future ovulation cycles. However, never being pregnant does not necessarily mean a woman will experience the latest menopause.3. has used oral contraceptives for 20 years: The use of oral contraceptives can affect menstrual cycles but does not directly determine the age at which menopause occurs. Oral contraceptives contain hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle and can mask the natural cycle, making it difficult to predict menopause based on this factor alone.4. has been pregnant and given birth once: While pregnancy can influence the timing of menopause, having been pregnant and given birth once does not necessarily indicate that a woman will experience the latest menopause. It is the cumulative effect of multiple pregnancies and the duration of breastfeeding that may have a more significant impact on delaying menopause.5. becomes sexually active at age 15: The age at which a woman becomes sexually active does not have a direct impact on the timing of menopause. Menopause is primarily determined by a woman's genetic background and the depletion of her ovarian reserve, not by her sexual activity.The correct question is:
A woman who _______ is likely to experience the latest menopause.
1. has never been pregnant
2. has always had very short menstrual cycles
3. has used oral contraceptives for 20 years
4. has been pregnant and given birth once
5. becomes sexually active at age 15
A young man has said to you that he is eating much more protein in his diet than the recommendation but he feels he needs the extra amount just in case he wants to build more muscle mass in the near future. How would you respond to him? 1. it should be fine because the cells will store the extra amino acids for future use if he has excess calories in his diet,2. he may gain fat weight from converted protein 3. the extra protein will be used for fuel instead of the carbohydrate 4. the body won't digest the extra protein and it will be eliminated in feces 5. if he has excess calories in his diet, he may gain fat weight from converted protein
Answer:
in my opinion i would go with the first answer
Explanation:
because as it says that he is young which means he is still growing and he needs a little bit more nutrients
however,
i would also go with second one too (only if he eats like double the recommended amount)
Recognition of others is categorized as which of the following types of development?
Social
Cognitive
Emotional
Physical
Final answer:
Recognition of others falls under social cognitive development, which involves acquiring and utilizing social skills.
Explanation:
Social and emotional development is a crucial aspect of a child's overall development. Recognition of others, or the ability to understand and acknowledge the presence, thoughts, and feelings of others, falls under social cognitive development. Social cognitive development involves acquiring and utilizing social skills, such as empathy, perspective-taking, and emotional intelligence. It enables individuals to form and maintain healthy relationships, navigate social situations, and understand the impact of their actions on others.
in a first aid kit. (1 point)
3. It is important to have
flash light
socks
assorted sized bandages
paper to write down the problem
Why is the brain stem sometimes called the “reptilian brain”?
Answer:
The reason they call the brain stem reptilian brain, is because it represents the oldest and most primitive part of our brain. The one we share with simpler organisms, like reptilians.
Explanation:
: )
Answer:
io
Explanation:
A client admitted on the inpatient mental health unit has been suspicious of other clients on the unit. This client is often angry at others' comments, and carries a grudge against a roommate for accidentally using the client's bath towel. Which personality disorder is most likely the client's diagnosis?
A client admitted on the inpatient mental health unit has been suspicious of other clients on the unit. This client is often angry at others' comments, and carries a grudge against a roommate for accidentally using the client's bath towel. Which personality disorder is most likely the client's diagnosis?
The sport with the teams that have the highest global recognition and value is
Which process does a cell use to make a copy
of the DNA prior to cell division?
What does blood alcohol concentration NOT depend on?
Answer:
Your BAC does not depend on what kind of alcoholic beverage you drink, how physically fit you are, or how well you can "hold your liquor." It takes only a few drinks to raise your BAC to illegal levels.
Explanation:
The amount of food in the stomach does not directly impact Blood alcohol concentration. The correct answer is A. amount of food in the stomach.
Blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is the measurement of alcohol in a person's bloodstream.
It is affected by various factors, including the gender and size of the drinker, the rate of consumption, and the time of drinking.
The amount of food in the stomach does not directly impact BAC.
While consuming food before drinking can slow down the absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream, it does not ultimately affect the actual blood alcohol concentration.
Food can help to delay the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, giving the body more time to metabolize the alcohol and reducing the peak BAC levels.
However, once alcohol is absorbed, the BAC will be determined primarily by the amount of alcohol consumed, the rate of consumption, and the body's ability to metabolize alcohol.
Thus, the correct option is A
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Complete question:
What does blood alcohol concentration NOT depend on?
A. amount of food in the stomach
B. gender and size of the drinker
C rate of consumption
D. time of drinking
Her gait has also been affected. She reports a recent trip to the woods to go camping as a family. As Nancy is giving you the history, Leah collapses on the floor and has a seizure. Nancy wants to know with which antibiotics you will be treating her mother. What is the best antibiotic for this illness?
Answer:
I DO NOT KNOW THIS ANSWET
What environmental conditions induce oxygen to bind to hemoglobin?
An environment high in carbon dioxide
An environment high in oxygen
An environment under high pressure
An environment under low pressure
Answer:
I Think correct answer is B
Explanation:
or it can be C or B
Even though she admits that she fears becoming fat and alternates between binge eating and vomiting, Rebecca doesn't believe that she has an eating disorder. However, she would possibly receive a clinical diagnosis of which of the following? bulimia nervosa gonorrhea tend-and-befriend response
Answer: bulemia nervosa
Explanation: