Answer:
A) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells.
Explanation:
Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol and are lipids, therefore they cannot be transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. They are associated with transport proteins to travel in blood.
Because they are lipids, they can diffuse through cell membranes, and once inside the target cell they bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or the nucleus and alter gene expression.
Steroid hormones are lipids that can diffuse into cells and bind to receptors in the nucleus. They are not proteins, they are not dissolved in the plasma, and they tend to remain in the bloodstream for relatively longer time periods.
Explanation:Steroid hormones are lipids synthesized from cholesterol. These hormones include sex hormones and stress hormones, among others. Some key points about them are:
A) Steroid hormones bind to receptors inside the nucleus of their target cells. Because they are lipid soluble, they can pass through the cell membrane by diffusion. Once inside, they bind to specific receptor proteins at the DNA level, triggering specific cellular responses.B) Steroid hormones are not proteins. They are lipids made from cholesterol.C) Steroid hormones are transported in the blood bound to transport proteins, not dissolved in the plasma.D) Steroid hormones can diffuse through cell membranes due to their lipid-soluble nature.E) Steroid hormones generally remain in circulation for longer periods of time due to their binding with transport proteins, slowing their degradation and excretion.Learn more about Steroid Hormones here:https://brainly.com/question/32153048
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The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the:
a. trachea.
b. nose.
c. nasopharynx.
d. oropharynx.
Answer:
The eustachian tube is a canal that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal with the air pressure
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Its function is crucial for normal hearing as it equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Therefore, the correct answer would be C
Explanation:The eustachian tube is a structure within the human body which plays a key role in the auditory system. It connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx, which is an area of the pharynx, located behind the nose and above the rear part of the throat. Option c, 'nasopharynx', is the correct answer to this question. This tube is used to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, which is essential for normal hearing.
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It means inflammation
Select one:
a. -osteo
b. -ectomy
c. -ostomy
d. -itis
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Osteo is a prefix, which is use to mean bone or bone related: osteogenesis, osteomyelitis, osteoporosis, etc.
-ecotmy is a suffix, refers to removal of something surgically: adenectomy, diverticulectomy, embolectomy, etc.
-ostomy is a suffix, refers to a surgical creation of an opening in an organ: gastrostomy, colostomy, etc.
The nurse is obtaining the vitals of a 76-year-old African
American male patient. The nurse notes that the BP of the right arm
is 187/98 and of the left arm is 201/76. What would cause the
difference in the right arm vs. the left. Is this Blood pressure
anticipated or unanticipated for the patient?
Answer:
In general, epidemiologically speaking, it is known that in African Americans the tendency is towards suffering hypertensive disease. So encountering pressures above 140/90 mmHg is not an uncommon thing, though not what should be. And blood pressures above that level are considered uncommonly high and need to be treated because this will affect the brain, and most particularly the kidneys. Hypertension is also very common in senior African Americans.
Given this introduction, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The cause for the great difference between the blood pressure of the right arm (187/98) and that of the left arm (201/76) is an advancement of the cardiovascular disease affecting the patient. It means that the arm where the higher number in the systolic pressure happened, is probably presenting with an obstruction of some kind, making the issue of higher blood pressure, even worse.
2. Although as said before, hypertension is an epidemiologic reality in African Americans, and especially in seniors, so it is expected that the patient will have an elevated BP, over the expected norm. However, the two pressures obtained on different arms indicates that there is something going on, as the elevation over the baseline for hypertensive patients has been overcome in systolic pressure by much more than 10 mmHg. This patient will need immediate intervention.
Answer:
the minute difference in systolic pressure in both arms is anticipated. However, the huge pressure difference in diastolic pressure in both arms is unanticipated.
Explanation:
If the difference in BP reading between both arms is more than 15 mm Hg and the difference is consistent, it indicates some issue. The pumping of blood from the heart to left arm has more pressure as compared to the right arm and it is normal if the difference in systolic pressure in both arms is less than 10 mm Hg. The diastolic pressure shall remain same in both arms because the blood is not pumped directly into the diastole. The diastolic BP tells about the arterial pressure and it should be low so that the heart does not have increase its pumping speed in order to compensate the diastolic pressure.
The African-American patient does not any unanticipated increase in systolic pressure in both arms as the left arm systolic pressure is usually higher. However, the difference in diastolic pressure in both arms has a difference of more than 20 mm Hg which is alarming. This might be a sign of some blocked artery or peripheral artery disease, diabetes, kidney disease or some heart defect.
Which of the following is the most common eating disorder?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Pica
Answer:
The correct option is: C. Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is a type of eating disorder which is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating. This eating disorder includes food addiction and compulsive overeating. The common symptoms of this disorder includes uncontrollable and rapid eating, without feeling hungry, and feeling unhappy, depressed and guilty because of it.
Binge eating disorder is the most prevalent or the most common eating disorder.
The left ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right ventricle.
B) right atrium.
C) pulmonary circuit.
D) aorta.
E) lungs.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
During cardiac cycle, when the left ventricle is full, mitral valve closes to prevent blood to flow backwards into the atrium while the ventricle contracts. This is the end of diastole and the beginning of systole.
The left ventricle contracts and blood flows through aortic valve into the aorta and to de body. The closure of aortic valve establishes systole end.
In a healthy heart, electrical activity begin in the
a. bundle of His
b. ventricles
c. right atrium
d. the pacemaker
Answer:
D. The pacemaker.
Explanation:
The electrical signal starts in the sinoatrial (SA) node.
The SA node is also known as the heart’s natural pacemaker. It's located in the right atrium at the entrance of the superior vena cava.
The impulse starts in the sinus node (SA) then the electrical activity propagate and stimulate the myocardium, causing its contraction, this forces blood into the ventricles.
Dialysis in which blood is circulated through a machine and replaced is called ___________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Hemodialysis
Explanation:
Hemodialysis is a technique or a process used for the purification of blood, in case of a kidney failure. In this technique, a hemodialysis machine and special filter, called the dialyzer, is used for blood purification. The dialyzer is also known as the artificial kidney.
The process of hemodialysis involves the diffusion of solute particles across the semipermeable membrane.
Name and describe the functional unit of the kidney. Summarize the functions of each part.
Answer:
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is nephron. Each kidney consists of two parts a renal corpuscle which is the site for blood filtration and renal tubule in which filtrate enters and passes through.
Renal tubule is divided into PCT(proximal convoluted tubule), loop of Henle (nephron loop) and DCT(distal convoluted tubule).
Function of nephron
1. Renal corpuscle: It is made up of two component glomerulus(tuft of capillaries) and bowman's capsule. Glomerulus is having pores in its membrane called fenestrae through which blood is filtered into the bowmen's capsule.
2. PCT: The function of PCT is mostly to reabsorb the materials from filtrate by active and passive transport. Absorption of glucose, amino acids, hormones, vitamins, and ions takes place in this segment.
3. Henle loop: It contains ascending and descending loop. The descending loop is permeable to water and ascending loop is permeable to ions. So reabsorption of water and ions like sodium takes place in this region.
4. DCT: Here reabsorption of ions takes place and it is mostly impermeable to water and it opens into collecting duct.
The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron, composed of the Renal Corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct. Each part has its specific functions in filtration, reabsorption and regulating the pH balance of urine.
Explanation:The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. Each kidney has several millions of these tiny filtration units. The nephron is composed of various parts, namely: the Renal Corpuscle (Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus), Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct.
Renal Corpuscle: It is the initial blood-filtering component of a nephron. It consists of two parts: Bowman's Capsule and the Glomerulus. The latter is a network of tiny blood capillaries that perform the initial filtration of blood.Proximal Convoluted Tubule: It absorbs glucose, sodium ions, and other essential nutrients that are suspended in the fluid passing through it.Loop of Henle: Here, a large amount of water and sodium ions are reabsorbed into the blood.Distal Convoluted Tubule: It regulates the pH of urine by either secreting hydrogen ions into it or absorbing bicarbonate from it.Collecting Duct: It reabsorbs water from the urine, concentrating it and maintaining the balance of body fluids.Learn more about Nephron here:https://brainly.com/question/34373044
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What impact would low blood pressure have on kidneys? What symptoms might you expect with a decrease in kidney functions?
Answer:
Continuous low pressure can affect the kidneys and other vital parts of the body. It can cause kidney failure and other diseases related to the kidney.
Strokes are one of the most common factor for the low blood pressure. This is so because there is an inadequate blood supply to the organs of the body.
This is because the flow rate is not enough to reach the organs. The decrease in the kidney failure is related to difficulty in urination, swelling in the feet and legs.
These are some common symptoms of kidney dysfunction.
Explain why a person with nephrotic syndrome develops edema.
Answer:
Nephrotic syndrome is a group of signs and symptoms due to kidney damage.
It is characteristic:
- Proteinuria (>3,5 g per 1,73m2 body surface area per day)
- Hypoalbuminemia (<2,5 g/dl)
- Hyperlipidemia
- Edema (the first signs can be seen in the face)
The edema is caused due to the hypoalbuminemia. When oncotic pressure drops, fluid tends to accumulate in interstitial tissues, leaving intravascular space. In response to the dropped volume in intravascular space, the kidneys tends to retain water and sodium, this also contribute to edema developing.
Which of the following is true concerning oxygen in regards to aerobic respiration?
a. It is the only substrate of aerobic respiration.
b. It directly receives electrons and protons from NAD+ and FAD.
c. It is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.
d. It directly transfers electrons and protons to NAD+ and FAD.
e. It transports electrons to the mitochondrion.
Answer:
Correct answer is c. It is the final electron acceptor in the aerobic respiration.
Explanation:
Oxygen is a substrate of the aerobic respiration, but it is not the only one. Glucose is also a substrate.
Oxygen is used in the cells to be the final electron acceptor, this means that receives the electrons from NADH and FADH2. That is why, when there is no oxygen available for aerobic respiration, the NADH and FADH2 cannot be oxidized and therefore remain in their reduced form. As a consequence, they cannot be re-utilized during different cellular processes that are NAD+ and FAD dependant, such as glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and cellular respiration. This means that the ATP synthesis stops.
Oxygen itself does not transport any electrones, this are transported by the cytochrome complex in the mitochondrial membrane. But oxygen is key in receiving those electrones, therefore a very important piece of the electron transport across the mitochondria.
Which of the following types of fluoride are typically used in the dental office?
a. fluoride varnish
b. acidulated phosphase
c. neutral sodium
d. all of the above.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Which of the following types of fluoride are typically used in the dental office, would be, D: All of the above.
Explanation:
When going to the dentist, for mouth care, it is normal for these professionals to use certain chemicals to ensure not just the removal of bacteria that can cause caries, but also to ensure the total health of the mouth cavity. According to the American Dental Association, the use of fluoride substances is allowed, but there are only a few choices available. As such, the types allowed are neutral sodium fluorides in foam, gels and varnish, as well as acidulated phosphate, also in gels and foams.
Release of the secondary oocyte occurs on about day_(number) of the ovarian cycle in most women.
Answer:
The correct answer will be- fourteenth day of ovarian cycle.
Explanation:
The secondary oocyte is the cellular stage of the reproductive cells which can be easily distinguished as the cells are present at the metaphase-II of the cell division.
The secondary oocytes are gets matured in the pre-ovulatory phase after which they are released from the follicle on the fourteenth day of the cycle. This fourteenth-day phase is known as the ovulatory phase.
Thus, the fourteenth day of the ovarian cycle is the correct answer.
Boyle's law states that gas volume is
A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) inversely proportional to pressure.
C) inversely proportional to temperature.
D) directly proportional to temperature.
E) both A and B
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'b': inversely proportional to pressure.
Explanation:
According to Boyle's Law we have
For a gas at an constant temperature Pressure of the gas varies inversely with the volume occupied by the gas.
Mathematically we can state that
At constant temperature
[tex]Pressure\alpha \frac{1}{Volume}[/tex]
Thus from the given options, option 'b' is correct
Boyle's Law, a fundamental concept in chemistry, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure assuming constant temperature and gas quantity. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
In the study of gases, Boyle's Law is a fundamental notion that defines the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas. This law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, provided the temperature and quantity of gas remain constant. Hence, option B is the correct choice. It implies that when the pressure of gas goes up, its volume goes down and vice versa. For instance, if you try to compress a gas into a smaller space, you increase its pressure.
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The tricuspid valve is between the left atrium and ventricle and is under the most pressure to block backflow of flood during ventricular systole.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The previous sentence is false.
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. Also,The valve which is under the most pressure to block blacflow of blood during ventricular systole is the mitral valve. Mitral valve is the one which is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
The heart works with two processes: diastole and systole. Systole occurs when the heart contract himself to expulse blood to the vessels, and when the heart relaxes while it fulfills of blood is called diastole. During the systole process the tricuspid valve needs to be closed to allow the increase of pressures inside the heart cameras and then allow the expulse of blood. But, during diastole, tricuspid valve needs to be open to allow the correct filling of right side of the heart.
Olfactory epithelium is found:
a. lining the nasopharynx.
b. covering the superior turbinate.
c. lining the paranasal sinuses
d. in all of the above.
Answer:
The correct option is: b. covering the superior turbinate.
Explanation:
The olfactory epithelium is a part of olfactory system that is responsible for the detection of odors. It is an epithellial tissue which is present in on the surface of the superior turbinate or superior conchae, and septum inside the nasal cavity.
This epithellial tissue consists of the following cells: supporting cells, basal cells, brush cells, and the olfactory sensory neurons.
Which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction?
a) Breakdown of liver glycogen
b) Lipogenesis
c) Gluconeogensis using lactic acid
d) Gluconeogensis using amino acids
e) None of the above
Answer: b) Lipogenesis
Explanation:
The postabsorptive state reaction is a reaction which occurs in the state of fasting. In this postabsorptive state the digestive tract remains empty as a result of this the breakdown of the body reserves takes place.
All except the lipogenesis is not the postabsorptive state reaction. This is because of the fact that lipogenesis involves the synthesis of the fatty acids and lipids from typically the carbohydrates and other substances.
Lipogenesis is not a postabsorptive state reaction; it occurs during the absorptive state when the body is converting excess energy into fat for storage.
Explanation:The question asks which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction. During the postabsorptive state, the body primarily focuses on providing energy by breaking down stored reserves, such as glycogenolysis (the breakdown of liver glycogen), and gluconeogenesis using lactic acid or amino acids to create new glucose molecules. Therefore, options a), c), and d) are reactions that occur during the postabsorptive state. However, lipogenesis (option b) is the process of synthesizing fats from acetyl CoA, which primarily occurs during the absorptive state, when the body is storing excess energy. So, b) Lipogenesis is the correct choice as it is not a postabsorptive state reaction.
The function of hemoglobin is to
A) carry oxygen.
B) carry carbon dioxide.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only
Answer: E) A and B only
Explanation:
Hemoglobin can be define as red color protein which consists of iron group in the red blood cells. It carries oxygen to all the organs of the body and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from all the tissues and organs back to the lungs so that the carbon dioxide get expelled out of the body. It helps in transport of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen). But does not help in clotting of blood.
Place the component sof the pharynx in the order air flows through them during inspirations. ___________, ____________, _______________
Answer:
The pharynx is a very important anatomical part of the human body because it is the common roadway for both food and fluids, and also for air. Because of this, and the importance that air and food do not go to the same place, mainly the lungs, the pharynx has a structure of skeletal and smooth muscle, as well as accessory anatomical features that will enable it to work as it should. Also, another anatomical structure derives from the pharynx, with the intention of becoming the tube for air passage; the larynx.
Putting the passage of food aside, and bearing in mind that the pharynx is the first airway, or upper airway, passage, continued lower down by the laryn, the answer to the question above would be thus:
Place the components of the pharynx in the order in which air flows through them during inspirations:
1. Nasopharinx: This structure is the one that is attached to the nasal cavity and it is separated from the mouth, or oral cavity by the soft palate. It is here that air passage begins as it descends towards the lungs.
2. Oropharinx: this is the part of the pharynx where both air and foodstuffs can mix. However, it is also important for air passage and it is the next step towards the lungs.
3. Laringopharynx: this is the structure where the pharynx gives rise to the laringeal tract, which will be the one that connects pharynx with trachea. the Laringopharynx has structures that will close whenever food is passing, so that nothing, except air, can enter the airways. And it will remain open for air passage to the larynx.
A sticky transparent substance found on the teeth and should be removed daily.
Answer: Plaque
Explanation:
A plaque is squashy film (substance) that generally forms on our teeth, comprised of numerous millions of bacteria. These bacteria are very effective and it can cause the tooth to decay, gum disease and several other types of dental problems. They are needed to be eliminated everyday by brushing teeth and cleaning it.
It occurs all over the mouth, but it usually gets concentrated in and around the deeper and narrower molar openings.
It forms when the food particles remained attached to the teeth and gums, and causes a stinky smell.
Drugs that are the most effective at treating overactive bladder increase _____________ activity
Answer:
The best answer for the statement: Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder increase:___ activity, would be: anticholinergic activity
Explanation:
Overactive bladder (OAB) is a condition in which, due to disordered firing of the nerves in the bladder walls, and also constant stimulation by ACH (acetylcholine), the neurotransmitter of the central nervous system that activates smooth and skeletal muscles, a person may constantly feel the need to urinate, even if the bladder has not filled to full capacity. It can become a really difficult condition to treat, but before using medication, there are a lot of non-pharmacological treatments that are used in preference to actual chemical substances. However, when these therapies do not work, doctors will prescribe anti-cholinergic medication, which block muscarinic receptors in the muscle walls of the bladder, and thus prevent these walls from reacting to ACH. The end result is to reduce the sense of urination urgency and increase bladder retention and capacity.
Drugs for overactive bladder increase parasympathetic activity which is achieved by acting as antimuscarinics or beta-3 adrenergic agonists. These mechanisms relax the bladder muscles and help control an overactive bladder.
Explanation:Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder function primarily by increasing parasympathetic activity. This action is achieved by the drug acting as antimuscarinics, inhibiting the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder. This causes relaxation of the bladder muscle. An example of such a drug is oxybutynin. It is important to note this effect as overactivity of the bladder is often due to an overactive parasympathetic nervous system.
However, some drugs called beta-3 adrenergic agonists such as mirabegron can also effectively treat overactive bladder by relaxing the bladder muscle to prevent sudden, involuntary contractions. They work by stimulating the beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder. This in turn increases the bladder's capacity to hold urine, reduces the frequency of urination, and helps to control an overactive bladder.
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Male external genitalia do not develop
A. In the presence of an X chromosome.
B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
C. Without prior regression of the Mullerian ducts
D. If Wolffian ducts develop.
E. In the absence of estrogen in the fetus.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
Explanation:
Androgen secretion by the fetal testis is important for male external genitalia development or sexual differentiation. Testosterone especially has a major role in the development of the testes, prostate and other cells and tissue responsible for the development of the reproductive organs and external genitalia.
Androgen mainly testosterone is metabolized and DHT is required for androgen-induced development of the external genitalia.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes.
A patient eligible for benefits is one who:
A-) has received services from the physician
B-) is not covered under the insurance plan.
C-) has family members who are covered under the insurance
plan.
D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
E-) none of the above.
Answer: D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
Explanation:
The health insurance plan is the plan which covers the whole or a part of the medical expenses that are required to be used for the purpose of treatment, diagnosis and maintenance of health in every aspect of age.
The person who is under the coverage of the health insurance plan is eligible for benefits in the case of medical emergency.
Parietal cells secrete
A) enteropeptidase.
B) gastrin.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) mucus.
E) pepsinogen.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Parietal cells secrete:___, would be, C: Hydrocloric acid (HCI).
Explanation:
Parietal cells are epithelial cells that can be found in the gastric glands both at the linings of both the fundus and cardia portions of the stomach. These cells are responsible in the process of digestion and absorption of nutrients, for the production of two chemical substances: intrinsic factor, necessary for the correct absorption of vitamin B12 later on in the ileum and also HCI, or hydrocloric acid. This acid will lower the pH of the stomach´s contents to enable correct and proper enzymatic work on proteins, most importantly. Its presence also stimulates the singaling by neurons to other organs of the GI tract to produce the necessary enzymes for proper digestion and absorption of the different nutrients.
The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the:
a. epiglottis.
b. cricoid cartilage.
c. glottis.
d. thyroid cartilage.
Answer: b. cricoid cartilage.
Explanation:
The larynx cavity extends from the triangle shaped inlet that is called as the epiglottis which opens to the circular outlet that is called as circoid cartilage at the lower border. The circoid cartilage forms continuity with that of the lumen of the trachea. The mucous membrane which provides the lining to the larynx forms two pairs of the lateral folds that opens inward inside the cavity.
Describe the function of both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins. Are these vessels components of pulmonary criculation or systemic circulation?
Answer:
The respiratory and circulatory systems have always worked as a team to maintain the human body alive. In fact, life would not be possible if the two of them did not work in unison. As such, when the heart pumps blood from the right ventricle, it pushes this de-oxygenated blood towards the lungs for oxygenation and then the vessels that pass through the lungs return the newly oxygenated blood to the left atria, and then left ventricle, to be pumped into the system. In order to achieve this, the circulatory system counts with a pulmonary circulatory system and a systemic circulation. The first is formed by the pulmonary veins and arterties, while the second is formed by the aorta.
So given this explanation, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are the pulmonary arteries, whose role is to lead de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle towards the two lungs for gas exchange, and the two pulmonary veins, who return from the lungs with the newly oxygenated blood to enter the left atria, from which blood passes to the left ventricle. From the ventricle blood is then pumped into the circulatory system.
2. Both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation, while the aorta and vena cavas are the main vessels responsible for systemic circulation starting from the heart.
Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
a. Their origin is the hyoid bone.
b. They move the larynx as a whole.
c. They serve in voice production.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Answer:
The correct option is: c. They serve in voice production
Explanation:
Larynx is the organ responsible for protecting the trachea, sound production, manipulating the volume and the pitch, and is also involved in breathing.
The two types of muscles present in the larynx are the intrinsic muscles and extrinsic muscles.
The intrinsic muscles are further divided into: Phonatory muscles and Respiratory muscles. The respiratory muscles assist in breathing by moving apart the vocal cords and the phonatory muscles are responsible for producing sound by moving the vocal cords together.
The intrinsic muscles of the larynx serve in voice production by controlling the tension and position of the vocal cords, thereby not primarily moving the larynx as a whole or originating from the hyoid bone.
Explanation:The intrinsic muscles of the larynx are vital for various functions of the larynx, which includes swallowing, breathing, and most importantly voice production. Option c is the correct answer as the main function of intrinsic muscles is to control the tension and position of the vocal cords, playing a crucial role in voice production. Therefore, they do not primarily move the larynx as a whole or originate from the hyoid bone.
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Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from
a. aerobic respiration in the mitochondria
b. anaerobic respiration in the cytosol
c. glycoludid in the cytosol
d. ATP that is stored while the heart is not contracting
e. creatinine phosphate
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from:___, would be, A: aerobic respiration in the mitochondria.
Explanation:
In order for the heart muscles (myocardium) to contract, there are a series of elements that need to be present. One of them, and most vital, is calcium, which will activate the connection of myosin and actin, the filaments in cardiomyocytes, the very units of muscular tissues in the heart. However, even if calcium were present, without ATP, the molecule of energy that will allow the process to happen, then contractions would not be possible. There simply would not be energy to allow the chemical reactions. The one organelle within the cell that is responsible to ensure there is ATP available, is the mitochondria. This production of ATP by mitochondria, happens through the process of aerobic respiration. This is why the answer is A.
Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a maximal GXT?
a. DBP measurement of 120 mmHg
b. HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum
c. SBP measurement of 270 mmHg
d. subject requests to stop
Answer:
The correct answer is B:
HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum is NOT a reason to stop maximal GXT.
Explanation:
Maximal graded exercise test allows physicians to evaluate patients ability to perform cardiovascular exercise (functional capacity), an also detect if there are any zones of ischemia in the muscle heart due to arteriosclerosis.
To do so, the patient would be asked to walk on a treadmill and speed and slope of the treadmill will be increased gradually during the test. EKG, heart rate, and blood pressure will be recorded and compared afterwards.
The heart rate target to make a proper evaluation is 85% of the maximal predicted heart rate.
Explain how you would create a medical intervention to help a person dealing with severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss.
To help a person dealing with severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, medical interventions such as hearing aids and cochlear implants can be used.
Explanation:To create a medical intervention for severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, different approaches can be used. For conductive hearing loss, hearing aids can be used to amplify sound vibrations, while for sensorineural hearing loss, cochlear implants can stimulate the nerves directly. Hearing aids press against the bone behind the ear to partially overcome conductive loss. Cochlear implants are widely accepted and work by stimulating the nerves in the cochlea. Over 100,000 implants are currently in use.
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