Answer:
Autocrine stimulation
Explanation:
In autocrine signaling, the cell produces ligands that are also able to bind receptors on its surface. This is different from paracrine signaling whereby a ligand produced by a cell does not bind its surface receptors but does so on other cell types. These two types of signaling are important for the development of an organism.
Stimulation of a cell by its own signaling molecule is termed autocrine signaling, involving cytokines and regulating multiple cellular processes.
Stimulation of a cell by a molecule that the cell itself makes is called autocrine signaling. This process allows a cell to send a signal to itself, which can then bind to its own receptors on the cell surface or inside the cell, leading to a variety of responses. Autocrine signals are part of a complex system of cell communication that includes cytokines, protein molecules that act as chemical signals produced by cells in response to stimulation. This type of signaling is crucial for various cellular functions including development, inflammatory responses, and programmed cell death, particularly if the cell is infected with a virus. In addition to affecting the signaling cell, autocrine signals can influence neighboring cells, allowing for coordinated responses among a group of similar cells.
Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
A) triacylglycerides
B) polysaccharides
C) proteins D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
E) A, B, and C
Explanation:
A chemist would call them condensation reactions, that is, reactions in which two molecules combine by splitting out a molecule of water.
A) Triacylglycerides form by splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates form by splitting out molecules of water from simpler carbohydrates
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
Dehydration reaction where two hydrogen atoms from one molecule combine with an oxygen atom on the other molecule or hydroxyl group from one molecule combine with a hydrogen atom from the other molecule in both cases, water is released as a product.
A) Triacylglycerides -
splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates or polysaccharides: monomers like glucose from polymers.
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins: form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Thus, the Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
Learn more about dehydration:
https://brainly.com/question/16394592
Thirty patients with acne volunteer to be treated with either a medicinal lotion
or a normal moisturizing cream. This type of experimental design is called
a(n)
A. in vitro observation
B. clinical trial
c. geographical cohort study
D. general population survey
Answer:
Thirty patients with acne volunteer to be treated with either a medicinal lotion
or a normal moisturizing cream. This type of experimental design is called
a clinical trial.-B.
What molecule is associated with plant cell walls
Answer:
cellulose
Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth.
Answer:
Cellulose
Explanation:
Match the Following :
1. Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall.
2. Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
3. Drains the scalp.
4. Runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle.
5. Drains the upper extremities, deep vein.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Axillary artery
D. Subclavian vein
E. External jugular vein
Answer:
1. A
2. B (although technically it is the pulmonary artery)
3. E
4. C
5. D
Explanation:
The correct matches for the given statements:
1. Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall. - A. Superior vena cava
2. Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. - B. Pulmonary trunk
3. Drains the scalp. - E. External jugular vein
4. Runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle. - C. Axillary artery
5. Drains the upper extremities, deep vein. - D. Subclavian vein
The superior vena cava is responsible for receiving blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall. The pulmonary trunk carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. The external jugular vein drains the scalp. The axillary artery runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle. Lastly, the subclavian vein drains the upper extremities, deep vein.
Blood vessels are a vital part of the circulatory system responsible for transporting blood throughout the body. There are three main types of blood vessels: arteries, veins, and capillaries. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They have thick and elastic walls that help them withstand the high pressure generated by the pumping action of the heart. Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. They have thinner walls compared to arteries and contain valves that prevent the backflow of blood. Capillaries are tiny, thin-walled blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. They are the site of exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the body's tissues.
Learn more about Diaphragm here:
https://brainly.com/question/4400519
#SPJ2
A dietitian asks a patient about the food that the patient eats and makes the table below to summarize the results.
Based on the table, what advice do you think that the dietician will give the patient?
A) The patient should increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) and decrease the amount of oils in his or her diet.
B) The patient should decrease the amount of lean meats (proteins) and increase the amount of oils in his or her diet.
C) The patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of oils in his or her diet.
D) The patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) in his or her diet.
Answer:
Patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats in his or her diet.
Explanation:
As we can see in patient's diet chart that he is consuming carbohydrates in a quantity much more than the required by his body. On the other hand, the consumption of lipids and proteins in his body is lower than the required amount. There is an interesting fact about lean meat that it is both a good source of lipids and proteins thats why the person needs to decrease pasta and rice in his diet and increase lean meat so that his all three goals are fulfilled.
Hope it helps!
According to the diet chart, the advice that dietician will give the patient is to decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) in his or her diet. Thus, the correct option is D.
Who is Dietician?A dietician may be characterized as an individual whose assignment is to give people guidance and direction about the category of food they should eat depending on their situation.
After analyzing the diet chart of the patient, it must be clear that the patient takes more carbohydrates as compared to the required limit, while less protein and lipids as compared to the required limit.
To satisfy this need for a diet chart, the patient should require to decrease the intake of carbohydrate source foods, and increase the intake of protein and lipids food which extremely gets from lean meat.
Therefore, it is well described above.
To learn more about Dieticians, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/432601
#SPJ5
TRUE OR FALSE?
The innate immune system is a generalized response to a pathogen and it keeps a memory of the pathogen.
I believe the correct answer is FALSE.
Explanation:Innate immunity is a fast acting response to confront a pathogen but does not keep memory. It is initiated and carried out by cell and can be refered to as cellular immunity lasting for a short term.
Further Explanation:Innate Immunity:This is the first line of defence and involves only cells. It lasts for a short period usually around 12 hours. It includes physical barries. The cells involved are: epithelial cells, dendritic cells, plasma proteins and natural killer cells. All the cells involved are macrocytes. It functions to recognize and attack the pathogen before the second type of immunity called adaptive immunity sets in. It usually is also non specific and responds generally to any pathogen.
Adaptive Immunity:It is a much more longer lasting type of immunities and has memory. It has a combination of cells and humoral components. It involves Naive B cells which are triggered to release antibodies known as Immunoglobulins depending on the cause of the trigger. Immunoglobulins include IgG, IgM, IgA, IgG and IgD and are usually Y-shaped. Additionally, it involves Naive T cells that are activated into Effector T-cells to assist in fighting the pathogen. This type of immunity is more focused and specific antibodies are released for specific infections/pathogens. It lasts up to 5 days or longer depending on the pathogen. It also takes time to mount up and produce a response.
Level: High School
What should be changed to make the following sentence true? "A theta wave is a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that may in some cases occur in response to environmental stimuli."
Answer:
The words "theta wave" should be changed to the phrase "K-complex."
Explanation:
Complex K is a type of where related to slow wave sleep. The k complex is a group of high amplitude waves that can occur spontaneously or relate to awakening relationships. That is, the K Complex is a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that can, in some cases, occur in response to environmental stimuli.
On the other hand, Wave Theta is the state of mind where it is believed that you can create everything and change reality instantly.
Final answer:
The sentence should replace "very high amplitude" with "higher amplitude" to accurately describe theta waves, and note that the 'very high amplitude' pattern is associated with K-complexes during stage 2 sleep.
Explanation:
To make the sentence true, the phrase "very high amplitude" should be replaced with "higher amplitude" when referring to theta waves. Theta waves are characterized by even lower frequency (4-7 Hz) and higher amplitude brain waves as compared to alpha waves, but they are not the 'very high amplitude' pattern of brain activity. This higher amplitude wave occurs during the early stages of sleep and can be indicative of a transition from wakefulness to sleep.
It's also important to correct the association of a 'very high amplitude pattern of brain activity' which describes a K-complex, not a theta wave. A K-complex is indeed a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that may occur in response to environmental stimuli, but it is typically associated with stage 2 sleep, not theta waves.
Susannah has an intense fear of flying and endures flights with extreme distress. Although she knows her fear is irrational, it is overwhelming and uncontrollable. Susannah most likely suffers from:
Answer:
Aerophobia
Explanation:
A phobia is an irrational fear of something. It can persist even when we know that we will not be harmed.
Aerophobia is the fear of flying or being on a flight (aeroplanes, helicopters, etc.). Experiencing this fear will often result in extreme anxiety and discomfort. Some doctors prescribe anti-anxiety medication for people who have aerophobia and need to take a flight.
Gametogenesis is the term for
a. the fertilization of eggs.
b. the development of polar bodies.
c. the movement of sperm.
d. the production of gametes.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
the production of gametes
What is the function of phosphoribosyltransferases?
a. they are central to the re-synthesis of nucleotides from bases in salvage reactions.
b. they mediate the degradation of AMP.
c. they are involved in the reversible reactions of purine salvage.
d. they mediate the degradation of IMP. e. they are competitive inhibitors employed in the salvage of purine nucleotides.
Answer:
a. they are central to the re-synthesis of nucleotides from bases in salvage reactions.
Explanation:
Phosphoribosyltransferases are the enzymes that are involved in salvage pathways to reuse the free purines and pyrimidines to make nucleotides. Metabolic degradation of nucleotides releases purines and pyrimidines which in turn enter the salvage pathway to be reused in the formation of new nucleotides. These metabolic pathways that make new nucleotides by reusing the free purines and pyrimidines are called salvage pathways.
Example: Adenosine phosphoribosyltransferase is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of adenine nucleotide from free adenine and PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate).
Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A. an increase in the neuron-firing thresholdB. An increase in extracellular Na+ concentrationC. a decrease in axon-membrane permeability to negative ionsD. a decrease in the length of the depolarization stage
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Epilepsy can be defined as the medical condition in which the central nervous system disorder in which the brain activity becomes abnormal which results in the abnormal behavior, sensation accompanied by loss of awareness.
In this condition a drug that can best treat epilepsy should reduce the activity of neurons in the epileptic focus which are excitatory neurons based on the effect throughout their cortex.
It does so by increasing the threshold which is required to generate action potential which will decrease the chances that neurons will fire.
This effect will reduce the overall amount of excitation which spreads from epileptic focus throughout the cortex.
hence, the correct answer is option A
For epilepsy treatment, an effective drug would increase the neuron-firing threshold, stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain and preventing seizure occurrences.
Explanation:Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, which are sudden bursts of electrical activity in the brain. These can cause convulsions, unusual behavior, and loss of consciousness.
To treat epilepsy effectively, a drug would need to prevent the spread of erratic electrical signals. One way to do this is by increasing the neuron-firing threshold, thus making it harder for neurons to reach the level of depolarization needed for a seizure to occur.
A drug that increases the neuron-firing threshold in the epileptic focus would be most beneficial. This could be achieved by blocking or interfering with movements of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions in and out of the neuron membrane, thus changing the action potential and reducing excitability. As a result, the drug would help interrupt the propagation of the abnormal electrical potentials that cause seizures.
As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Ciliary muscles are present within the ciliary body and are involved in controlling the shape of the lens. While focusing on the distant object, ciliary muscles are relaxed. The relaxed ciliary muscles make the suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary body become taut. The taut suspensory ligaments make the lens relatively flat in shape by stretching it in all the directions.
The statement regarding distance vision is true, as the relaxation of the ciliary muscles leads to a flattened lens suitable for seeing distant objects, which is part of the accommodation process of the eye.
Explanation:The statement that as the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision, is true. When looking at objects at a distance, the ciliary muscles within the eye are relaxed, which leads to the suspensory ligaments being pulled tight. This tension causes the lens to flatten, thereby reducing its power and increasing its focal length, which is necessary for focusing on distant objects. This is in contrast to when the ciliary muscles contract for close vision, which causes the lens to become more spherical and increases its power, allowing the eye to focus on nearby objects. This process is called accommodation, and it enables the eye to adjust its focal length to maintain a clear image on the retina.
Im really desperate, I need this answer. Plzzzz.
Use Zoe’s diagram to answer the following questions.
Zoe wants to replace the letters on her diagram with labels that describe how the nerves and muscles communicated with each other to trigger her reflexive response. What should her labels be? Should she eliminate any letters from this pathway?
I believe the correct answers are:
A- Sensory Neuron
B- Spinal cord
C- Effector neuron
D - Brain
Explanation:A - Sensory Neuron:This is a type of neuron that recieves a stimulus. In this case, a person was pinched at the point A causing the sensory neurons to be stimulated then converted the stimulus into a nerve impulse/electric signals finally transmitting it into the spinal cord labelled B.
B- Spinal cord:This is the long J or S- shaped structure supporting the body upright and also acting as a link to communicate signals from the periphery of the body to the brain for interpretation. It recieves signals from the sensory neuron at point A and uses its inter-neurons to communicate with the brain (point D).
C- Effector neuron:This is a neuron that causes muscular contraction in what will be seen as a reflex after the muscle had been stimulated. These neurons are only found in the spinal chord and have a central cell body and nucleus.
D- Brain:It is the central processing center where the reflex stimulus is recieved from the spinal chord (B) and then interpreted into an electrical signal that will produce muscle movement at point C.
A: skin detects sharp nerve
B: spinal cord receives signal from sensory
C: the nerve impulse the muscle to contract
Zoe should remove the the brain from this pathway because a reflexive motor response doesn’t travel to the brain.
A nurse needs to calculate a client’s cardiac output. The client’s heart rate is 80 beats per minute. Which other measurements does the nurse need to calculate the cardiac output?
Robert Koch was involved in research on all of the following topics EXCEPT techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory. the cause of anthrax. the cause of tuberculosis. development of a method to determine the cause of an infectious disease. the cause of fermentation.
Answer:
The cause of fermentation
Explanation:
Was Louis Pasteur the one who demonstrate the cause of fermentation and organic decomposition.
Imagine that part of a population of flies is blown from the California coast to an offshore island. The island flies have no contact with the mainland flies for 10,000 years. Then an earthquake rearranges the landscape and the island is rejoined to the mainland. The former island flies can now mingle freely with the mainland flies. If attempts at mating between flies from the two groups are successful and the resulting baby flies grow up strong and healthy and have offspring of their own, you could conclude that _________.
A.over the past 10,000 years, a single species had split into two speciesB.over the past 10,000 years, effective isolating mechanisms had evolvedC.over the past 10,000 years, no speciation occurred in these fliesD.there is insufficient information available to determine how many species of flies are now presentE.flies will mate no matter what
Answer:
The correct answer is C. over the past 10,000 years, no speciation ocurred in these flies.
Explanation:
If these flies can mate means that they are the same species.
As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. You have discovered an example of ________.
A.Batesian mimicryB.character displacementC.resource partitioningD.mutualism
The adaptation of the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles to hunt at different times in overlapping ranges, thus reducing competition, is an example of resource partitioning.
Explanation:In the discussed scenario, as the two closely related species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, do not compete for hunting at the same time in regions where their ranges overlap, this is an example of resource partitioning. Resource partitioning is an ecological concept where different species use the same resources in different ways to reduce competition. In this case, the two-spot avenger beetle has adapted to hunt at night, while the three-spot avenger beetle continues to hunt in the morning. Hence, they effectively partition the resource - prey, by time.
Learn more about Resource Partitioning here:https://brainly.com/question/15902942
#SPJ11
The correct answer is option (C). As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. You have discovered an example of resource partitioning.
Resource partitioning occurs when two species that are closely related and compete for similar resources evolve to use those resources in different ways, thereby reducing competition. In this case, the two-spot and three-spot avenger beetles have partitioned their hunting times to avoid direct competition: the two-spot hunts at night, while the three-spot hunts in the morning. This behaviour allows both species to coexist in the same area by using the same resources at different times.
Let's consider the other options to understand why they are not correct:
A. Batesian mimicry is a form of mimicry where a harmless species has evolved to imitate the appearance of a harmful species, thus gaining protection from predators. This concept does not apply to the described behavior of the beetles, as it is not about appearance or protection from predators but about the partitioning of resources.
B. Character displacement is the process by which two closely related species evolve to become more different from each other in areas where their ranges overlap, thus reducing competition. While character displacement could involve differences in hunting times, the description provided does not indicate that the beetles have evolved to be more different in other characteristics besides their hunting times.
D. Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship where both species involved benefit from the interaction. The behaviour described for the beetles does not indicate a mutualistic relationship where both species benefit from each other's presence; instead, they have developed a strategy to avoid competition.
Which type of bond joins the COOH group of one molecule to the NH2 of another molecule? A. 1-4 Glycosidic bond B. Ester bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Peptide bond
Answer:
D. Peptide bond
Explanation:
The reaction between one amino acid and another is
[tex]\rm H$_{2}$NCH(R)-CO-OH + H-NH-CH(R)COOH\\\\\longrightarrow \,\text{H${_2}$NCH(R)-} \underbrace{\text{CO-NH}}_{^\text{peptide}_{\text{bond}}}\text{-CH(R)COOH + H$_{2}$O}[/tex]
The bond that joins the two amino acids is called a peptide bond.
A. is wrong. A 1,4-glycosidic bond is formed between two carbohydrate units.
B. is wrong. An ester bond is the characteristic feature of fats.
C. is wrong. Hydrogen bonds are intermolecular attractive forces among molecules
How does connective tissue differ from the other three major tissue types?A.Connective tissue often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix.B.Connective tissue consists of contractile proteins.C.Connective tissue consists of cells capable of transmitting electrical impulses.D.There are three types of connective tissue.E.Connective tissue is found lining body surfaces.
Answer:
How does connective tissue differ from the other three major tissue types? The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The connective tissue creates connection between other tissues. There is connective tissue (also sometimes called connective tissue) everywhere in the body, it is the most abundant and widely distributed of all primary tissues and its amount varies substantially from one organ to another.
A.Connective tissue often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix: This is correct.
The existence of this fibrous matrix is what causes the connective tissue to have the high resistance it has and withstand loads and abuses that no other tissue would support.
B.Connective tissue consists of contractile proteins: this is incorrect.
Muscle tissue is the one that possesses contractile proteins.
C.Connective tissue consists of cells capable of transmitting electrical impulses:this is incorrect.
This corresponds to the nervous tissue
D.There are three types of connective tissue: Incorrect. The connective tissue represents such a heterogeneous group of tissues that classification is difficult
This connective tissue is divided into:
1. Loose / dense connective tissue
2. Mucous tissue
3. Adipose tissue
4. Cartilaginous tissue
5. Bone tissue
6. Blood tissue
7. Lymphatic tissue
E.Connective tissue is found lining body surfaces: Incorrect. This characteristic is of the epithelial tissue.
Connective tissue contains relatively few cells dispersed in an extracellular matrix. This matrix, composed of ground substance and protein fibers, can vary in density. Connective tissue serves various functions in the body, from connecting tissues and organs to providing support and protection.
Explanation:Connective tissue differs significantly from the other three major tissue types. Primarily, connective tissue is characterized by relatively few cells embedded in an extensive extracellular matrix. The matrix contains large amounts of ground substance often crossed by protein fibers. This ground substance can be fluid, such as in loose connective tissue, or solid, as in bones. Moreover, the composition of the matrix is directly correlated with its function.
Connective tissues can be categorized broadly into loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue, supportive connective tissue, and fluid connective tissue. The variation in these categories lends to their diverse functionality in the body, from providing structure and protection to assisting movement and energy storage.
Fibrous connective tissues, a subtype of connective tissues, contain a high density of collagen fibers and are found in areas of the body where stress occurs from all directions, notably in the skin. They also form tendons and ligaments that connect muscles to bones and bones to bones, respectively.
Learn more about Connective Tissue here:https://brainly.com/question/17664886
#SPJ3
What is the prime mover in anatomy?
Answer:
prime mover sometimes called the agonist,is the muscle that provides the primary force driving the action
The prime mover, or agonist, in anatomy refers to the muscle primarily responsible for a particular movement, like the biceps brachii when lifting a cup, while other muscles acting as synergists provide assistance or stabilization.
In the context of human anatomy, the term prime mover, also known as the agonist, represents the main muscle responsible for initiating a specific movement. A common example of a prime mover is the biceps brachii when lifting a cup. As the biceps brachii contracts and produces the primary force for the action, the brachialis muscle acts as a synergist, assisting the prime mover by adding extra force or by being a fixator that stabilizes the bone to which the prime mover attaches.
Conversely, the muscle that has the opposite function of the prime mover is termed the antagonist. This antagonist muscle relaxes and lengthens in response to the prime mover's contraction, allowing for smooth control of the movement. During movements where precise control or the maintenance of a position is necessary, the antagonist muscles play a critical role. Additionally, the arrangement of the muscle fibers, or fascicles, within these various muscles influences the type of action and range of motion they can produce.
Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? Huntington disease in humans white and purple flower color in peas pink flowers in snapdragons skin pigmentation in humans the ABO blood group in humans
Answer:
skin pigmentation in humans
Polygenic inheritance refers to when multiple genes independently affect a single trait. Among the given options, skin pigmentation in humans is an example of this as several genes independently contribute to the varying degrees of skin color.
Explanation:The example of polygenic inheritance among the given options is skin pigmentation in humans. Polygenic inheritance refers to the kind of inheritance where multiple genes independently influence a single trait. Examples of traits determined by polygenic inheritance include skin color, height, and eye color in humans. In the case of skin pigmentation, several genes contribute to the degrees of skin color, making it a polygenic trait.
Learn more about Polygenic Inheritance here:https://brainly.com/question/32868985
#SPJ6
Karri is getting ready to take her psychology final exam. She studied three hours ago. The names, terms, and information that she will need to retrieve while taking the test are located in her _________ memory.
Answer:
Long term memory
Explanation:
As we study, information gets stored in the short term memory, and then moves to our long term memory as we repeat the information.
There are three phases/stages of memory storage:
Sensory memory is very short term memory and the information usually disappears/ degrades fairly quickly (usually within half a second)Short term memory holds a small amount of information (approximately 7 items) and holds that information for a short period of time (about 1 minute)Long term memory holds information for long periods of time (sometimes indefinitely). When we study, the information is often transferred to long term memory.The names and information that she will need to retrieve while taking the test are located in her long term memory.
What is Long term memory?
This type of memory involves storing information for an extended period of time.
The information can be retrieved anytime the individual wants to use it which os why long term memory is the most appropriate choice.
Read more about Long term memory here https://brainly.com/question/6193201
How does the relationship between flying dragons and trees compare to that of iguanas and trees?
A) Flying dragons rely on trees for a food source, but not for shelter while iguanas rely on trees for both food and shelter.
B) Flying dragons live exclusively in trees except to lay eggs, while iguanas will venture to the ground more frequently.
C) Flying dragons use trees for shelter, but not for food, while iguanas rely on trees for food but not for shelter.
D) Flying dragons and iguanas have an identical relationship with trees.
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Iguana and flying dragons are both reptiles. Iguana is a herbivorous lizard belongs to the order squamata. Flying dragons are known as gliding lizrds and belong to the genus Draco.
Iguana can easily be identified by their droopy skin, stocky stature and spines on their necks, backs, heads and tails. Iguanas may venture to the ground. Flying dragons has reduced tail, throat sacs color is different in males and females. Flying dragons used to live on trees, feed on the arboreal ants and will frequently venture in the ground.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
B. Flying dragons live exclusively in trees except to lay eggs, while iguanas will venture to the ground more frequently.
Explanation:
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of plants?
A. Plants have cell walls
B. Plants contain chloroplasts for photosynthesis
C. Plants are eukaryotic
D. Plants are prokaryotic
Answer:D. Plants are prokaryotic
Explanation:
Plants are prokaryotic. -is not a defining characteristic of plants.
Plants are prokaryotic is not defining characteristic of plants. Thus, the correct option is D.
How plants are classified?Plants are multicellular eukaryotic organisms that are classified under the kingdom of Plantae.
Plants have some defining characteristics that include they have a cell wall that is made up of cellulose, contains chloroplasts for photosynthesis, etc.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is D.
To learn more about Plants, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/600212
#SPJ2
Select all the correct answers.
What are the purposes of a prologue in a play?
-to provide information about the inner thoughts and feelings of a character
-to set the mood and tone of the play and provide background information
-to provide information about how the stage should be set and what props are needed
-to give some insight into the relationships among different characters
-to provide a hint to the audience about what will happen later in the play
Answer:
To set the mood and tone of the play and provide background information.
Another one could be to give some insight into the relationship among different characters.
Final answer:
The purposes of a prologue include setting the mood and tone of the play, providing background information, revealing characters' thoughts and feelings, giving insight into character relationships, and hinting at future events.
Explanation:
The purposes of a prologue in a play are multifaceted. A prologue serves to set the mood and tone of the play, provide background information, and can reveal the inner thoughts and feelings of a character. It also may give insight into the relationships among different characters and hint at future events within the play. These functions help audiences engage with the narrative before the main action begins, bridging the gap between the play's world and the spectator's understanding.
By offering crucial exposition, the prologue can clarify the plot's context and backstory that might otherwise remain obscured. Ancient Greek playwrights, like Euripides and Sophocles, varied in their approach with prologues either being part of the narrative or more structured introductions. Similarly, Latin plays and subsequent traditions exhibit a range of prologue forms, from direct audience addresses to integrated pieces of the dramatic action.
Compare and contrast three metabolic pathways by choosing whether the statement applies to aerobic respiration. Check all that apply. View Available Hint(s) Check all that apply. A total of 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. End products may include lactic acid or ethanol. Can generate ATP in the absence of O2. Much or most of the ATP produced is produced by oxidative phosphorylation. The coenzyme NAD+ plays an important role in the pathway. Process involves the Krebs cycle Between 2 and 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. Process involves electron transport and chemiosmosis A total of 2 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. End products are CO2 and H2O Process includes glycolysis
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and glycolysis are three metabolic pathways that differ in their ATP production and end products, and their involvement of oxygen and specific metabolic steps.
Explanation:The three metabolic pathways being compared and contrasted are aerobic respiration, which can generate ATP in the absence of O2 and involves the Krebs cycle, electron transport, and chemiosmosis, and produces between 2 and 38 ATP per molecule of glucose input; anaerobic respiration, which can generate ATP in the absence of O2 and may produce end products like lactic acid or ethanol, and produces 2 ATP per molecule of glucose input; and glycolysis, which produces 2 ATP and 2 NADH molecules per molecule of glucose input, and if the pyruvate molecules cannot be further catabolized, the cell will only harvest 2 ATP molecules from one molecule of glucose.
Learn more about Comparing and contrasting metabolic pathways here:https://brainly.com/question/13685215
#SPJ12
Ben observes how quickly some dry wood is burning in a campfire. Which term best relates to Ben’s observation?
reaction rate
activation energy
collision theory
spontaneous reaction
Answer:
reaction rate - first choice
Answer: Option (a) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Rate of reaction is defined as the rate consumed by the reactants to result in the formation of products.
For example, when Ben observes how quickly some dry wood is burning in a campfire then it basically depicts the rate of combustion of wood.
Activation energy is the minimum amount of energy required by reactant molecules to undergo a chemical reaction.
Thus, we can conclude that in the given situation reaction rate best relates to Ben’s observation.
The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to __________.
Answer:
Capture light energy.
Explanation:
The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to capture light energy.
Pigments in photosynthesis absorb specific wavelengths of visible light, allowing plants to capture energy from sunlight and initiate the process of photosynthesis.
Explanation:The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to absorb specific wavelengths of visible light. Different pigments absorb different colors of light, allowing plants and photosynthetic organisms to capture a wider range of energy from the sunlight. By absorbing light, pigments initiate the process of photosynthesis, converting solar energy into chemical energy.
Learn more about photosynthetic pigments here:https://brainly.com/question/37646247
#SPJ12
Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex causes sodium ions to be
Answer: retained to maintain effective vascular circulating volume and on the other hand, the elimination of potassium and magnesium.
Explanation:
The adrenal glands are bilateral structures divided into two distinct zones: the cortex and the marrow. The adrenal cortex is subdivided into 3 zones, each with specific anatomical characteristics. The glomerular zone, composed of cuboid and columnar cells, with a dense nucleus and scarce cytoplasm with few lipids, is arranged in coniferous clusters of compact nests, secretes a mineralocorticoid hormone known as aldosterone.
Aldosterone acts on the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis in extracellular fluid, mainly sodium (Na) and potassium (K). Exerts its effect on distal and distorted tubules and Nephron collecting duct. Aldosterone production is under the control of serum levels of renin, angiotensin, and K.
Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal cortex, causes the kidneys to retain sodium ions, which in turn leads to water retention and affects blood pressure and volume.
Explanation:Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, a part of the adrenal gland. Its primary function is to regulate the balance of water and electrolytes in the body, specifically sodium and potassium. When aldosterone is secreted, it prompts the kidneys to retain sodium ions. This results in an exchange process in the renal tubules, where sodium is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream and potassium is excreted into the urine. Therefore, aldosterone actually causes sodium ions to be retained and not expelled. This sodium retention process consequently leads to water retention, which impacts blood pressure and volume.
Learn more about Aldosterone here:https://brainly.com/question/36466474
#SPJ3
Design your own scientific experiment. Your experiment must follow the scientific method and meet the criteria described in the lesson in order to be considered scientific. You do not have to conduct your experiment; however, you are still responsible for including all the steps of the scientific method. Since you will not be able to record data or draw a conclusion, for the last two steps please include a description of what each step involves.
Answer:
"What seasonings make melt the fastest, garlic, sugar, or pepper?"
Explanation:
this can be a good question because it is highly specific and there are no questions as to what your experiment is
explanations for the scientific method:
1. Make an observation- "different conditions affect the melting of ice such as people salting the roads in winter, this caused me to be curious of what other seasonings might possibly have a similar effect to that of the salt."
2. create a Hypothesis- "I hypothesize that garlic will have the most effect on the melting of the ice because like salt its a more savory seasoning while sugar is more sweet and the reaction would be different and pepper has little flavoring to begin with"
3. test your hypothesis- "this can be done using 3 trials in which 3 pieces of ice are laid onto paper towels and seasoned with 1 teaspoon each of each individual flavoring along with one ice cube that will remain unseasoned (this is our control) we shall then set a timer for 2 minutes and see which ice cube is the most melted"
4. draw conclusions- "this will lead you to the result of the experiment, this would be the seasoning that cause the most effect on the melting process of ice"