Answer:
the value of something is determined by its usefulness to society
Explanation:
According to the research by Gallacher et al., (1999) and Boyle et al., (2004), which of the following emotions increases the risk of heart disease, predicts the poor likelihood of survival, and acts as a potential trigger for heart attacks:
a) frustration b) anger c) jealousy d) fear
Answer:
anger
Explanation:
What is the purpose of block and parish nursing?1 To provide services to older clients.2 To promote health throughout a school curriculum.3 To provide nursing services with a focus on health promotion and education.4 To provide primary care to a client population living in a community.
Answer:
1.
Explanation:
Block and parish nursing is focused on the clients of certain age or simply people that are unavailable to take care of themselves and leave their homes. Those nurses live in or near the neighborhoods where clients live as well so it makes it more efficient and faster to be at their disposal. Medical care is very expensive, so this is a great way to help those in need without taking away their little fortunes.
Block and parish nursing provide accessible and personalized community healthcare, focusing on health promotion and education for all age groups. It involves home visits, health education in the community, conducting health assessments, and collaborating with schools.
Explanation:The purpose of block and parish nursing is to provide accessible and personalized healthcare services within a community. This part of the healthcare system is primarily focused on health promotion and education, especially for those who may have limited access to healthcare. It is not only directed towards older clients but also arrays across age groups including children, adults, and the elderly. For instance, nurses may visit patients in their homes, provide healthcare education within the community, and conduct health assessments. They may also work with schools to promote health education, thus contributing not only to immediate healthcare but also to the broader goal of health promotion and prevention.
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Severe whiplash, or acceleration flexion-extension neck injury, may cause numbness, tingling, or weakness in an accident victim's arms. Most injuries happen in the C5 and C6 region. Which nerve plexus would this injury most likely involve?
a. lumbar
b. brachial
c. sacral
d. cervical
Answer:cervical
Explanation:
Whiplash is a fracture to the 2 cervical vertebrae making the cervical nerve to compress
The brachial plexus is the nerve plexus most likely involved in an injury to the C5 and C6 region, causing symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arms. Hence the correct answer is B.
The injury described, which is an acceleration flexion-extension neck injury occurring in the C5 and C6 region, would most likely involve the brachial plexus. This nerve plexus is associated with the lower cervical spinal nerves and the first thoracic spinal nerve, extending from C4 through T1. Since C5 and C6 are part of this range, the symptoms of numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arms due to a severe whiplash would be related to the brachial plexus. This plexus is responsible for the nerve supply to the arms and is where the radial, ulnar, and median nerves, amongst others, emerge.
Shavonda fell and fractured her hip, and has since been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Shavonda s doctor will probably recommend __________." removing vitamin D from the diet endurance training weight-bearing exercise a vitamin C enriched diet
Answer: Weight Bearing exercises
Explanation:
Weight bearing exercise are required in order to improve the weight bearing ability of the bones. Osteoporosis makes the bones weak. Bone becomes weak and fragile which looses its ability to withstand the normal weights of the body and causes pain in joints.
A person who is suffering from osteoporosis must be trained for bearing exercise. Shavonda fell and fractured her hip because the bones were weak.
Such person must be trained with weight training.
All plants, except for bryophytes, are sporophyte dominant. How does a dominant sporophyte generation lead to increased evolutionary fitness?
Answer:
Explained
Explanation:
Sporophyte is is the dyploid multicellular in life cycle of plant or alga. It is developed when a hyploid egg is fertilized hyploid sperm so each sporophyte cell has a double set of chromosomes that is one set from each parent.
Now coming to the question dominant sporophyte generation lead to increased evolutionary fitness because dyploid tissues contain a backup if one allele is damaged.
, Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of ________ paranoid schizophrenia. schizoaffective disorder, manic type. undifferentiated schizophrenia. provisional schizophreniform disorder.
Answer:
schizoaffective disorder,
Explanation:
Which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body? fat metabolism aerobic breakdown of glucose ingesting of bicarbonate CO2 in the blood
Final answer:
Ingesting bicarbonate does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body; rather it acts as a base and is part of the buffering system that helps maintain pH balance by neutralizing acids.
Explanation:
The question presented asks which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body:
Fat metabolismAerobic breakdown of glucoseIngesting of bicarbonateCO₂ in the bloodThe correct answer is ingesting of bicarbonate. Bicarbonate (HCO₃-) acts as a base in the body and is a component of the bicarbonate buffering system that helps maintain pH balance by neutralizing acids. It is not a source of acids.
On the other hand, fat metabolism and aerobic breakdown of glucose produce acids. During the aerobic breakdown of glucose, lactic acid can be produced, which adds to the acidity of the body. Fat metabolism produces ketone bodies in the Krebs cycle when carbohydrates are limited, which are acidic in nature. CO₂ in the blood can combine with water to form carbonic acid, contributing to acidity as well.
The male client is diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) and is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching?
1. "I should keep the tablets in the dark-colored bottle they came in."
2. "If the tablets do not burn under my tongue, they are not effective."
3. "I should keep the bottle with me in my pocket at all times."
4. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."
Answer:
4. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."
Explanation:
People with coronary artery disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of angina, are usually placed on sublingual nitroglycerin medications. Sublingual nitroglycerin is a small pill that is placed under the tongue, just as the name “sublingual” suggests. When placed under the tongue, it dissolves and is absorbed quickly into the body. The drug usually becomes active within 2 to 5 minutes and lasts between 15 to 30 minutes.
In cases where the patient suffers from frequent chest pain, it is recommended that the patient repeats the dose for a total of 2 to 3 doses 5 minutes apart, and the chest pain doesn’t subside, the patient can immediately call 911 or ED.
The patient in the question above demonstrates a good level of knowledge of the right use of the medication prescribed, except in the 4th Statement. The patient needs to be educated more about the use of the sublingual nitroglycerin. He needs to do a repeated dosage of one tablet every 5 minutes, if he still feels pain after the third tablet, he can then go to the ER or 911.
Maintaining at least a 1-second space margin from the vehicle in front of you not only provides you with visibility, time, and space to help avoid rear-end crashes, but also allows you to steer or brake out of danger at moderate speeds.A. True.B. False
Answer:
This statement is false.
Explanation:
A 1 second space between the person and the vehicle which is in front of a person is the the time in which there will be no reaction to the movements of vehicle could further cause crashing. There should be a 3 second space between a rider as well as vehicle depends on the condition of road as well as weather so that there will be enough time for reaction and safely maneuvering of the car can be done. So that further crashing of the road is to be avoided.
__________ reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates.
Answer:
Agglutination reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates.
Explanation:
Agglutination is the process that forms clumps of particles or cells. Agglutination reactions are used to detect antibodies or bacterias by mixing in a sample an antibody with antigens. The antibody binds the antigens creating an aggregate of bacterias.
During inhalation, During inhalation, oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. the diaphragm relaxes. the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. air moves up the trachea. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
Answer:
Explanation:
During the process of inhalation, the diaphragm is pulled down and the lungs expand. High-pressure air from the environment is inhaled. The air passes the trachea and enters the lungs. It starts n the bronchi, enters the bronchioles and finally the alveoli. Bronchi are the main passageway into the lungs. There are two bronchi, right and left - leading into each lung.
Inhaled air passes through the mouth and nose, trachea, right and left mainstem bronchi, secondary and tertiary bronchi and reaches the alveoli- gas exchange region.
The rea gas exchange is carried out in the respiratory bronchioles, the alveolar ducts and alveoli. The gas exchanging surface is 70m². Alveoli posses a rich capillary network for gas exchange.
After passing through the nose and the mouth, the inhaled oxygen enters the larynx. The larynx is a passageway that air passes through before it gets to the trachea. It stops food and other things from making its way to the lower respiratory system. The larynx is also known as the voice box, this is where vocal sounds are produced.
After the oxygen is used up and turned into carbon dioxide we exhale. We exhale the exact amount of carbon dioxide as we inhaled oxygen. When this happens the carbon dioxide follows the same path out that the oxygen did in, just in the opposite order.
PaCO₂ is the partial pressure exerted by dissolved CO₂ in arterial blood (35-45 mmHg).
PaO₂ is the partial pressure exerted by dissolved O₂ in arterial blood (80-100 mmHg).
O₂ crosses the alveolar-capillary membrane, then dissolve in plasma. Thus, it binds to haemoglobin (98%), while 2% remains dissolved in plasma. O₂ bound to haemoglobin then comes off haemoglobin, dissolves in plasma and diffuses to the tissues.
Pulse oximetry (SpO₂) is the measurement of O₂ bound to haemoglobin.
At the tissue level, CO2 is a by-product of cellular metabolism. It diffuses from the tissue to the blood.
Which of the following statements regarding tobacco use and cardiovascular disease is FALSE?
A. Smoking alters the blood-clotting process.
B. The risk of heart attack or stroke is related to the number of cigarettes smoked and the duration of use.
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped.
D. Environmental (secondhand) tobacco smoke increases risk for cardiovascular disease.
Answer: the correct answer is option C
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped.
Explanation:
2–5 years later after quitting smoking, the risk of stroke drops.
After 5–15 years: The risk of mouth, throat, esophagus, and bladder cancer drops by half.
After 10 years: The risk of lung cancer and bladder cancer drops by half.
Answer:
C. Smoking effects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped
Explanation:
The benefits of quitting smoking are almost instantaneous and can be seen on the same day the individual quits smoking and not 10 years after stopping smoking.
When tobacco is abandoned after 20 minutes, blood pressure and pulse rate are back to normal. After 8 hours, your blood carbon monoxide levels are likely to decrease, and after 24 hours your lungs will function much better.
After 48 hours, nicotine is virtually extinguished from the body, improving some senses such as taste and smell. In the third month, lung function improves, decreasing cough and breathing problems. With a year without a cigarette, the risk of cardiovascular disease is halved, and in 10 years the risk of death from cancer decreases significantly.
An older adult client has been receiving care in a two-bedroom that he has shared with another older, male client for the past several days. Two days ago, the client's roommate developed diarrhea that was characteristic of Clostridium difficile. This morning, the client himself was awakened early by similar diarrhea. The client may have developed which type of infection?
Answer:
Exogenous healthcare-associated
Explanation:
Exo in this case means outside and genous means born, then we have that it is an infection that was born outside the body of the patient and got into it.
The word outside in this case implies that the patient is surrounded by a contaminated atmosphere, in this case in his hospital bedroom, due to this situation he was affected with the same condition that his partner was affected with.
A person's blood pressure has fallen below normal as the person has quickly jumped out of his or her chair where he or she had been relaxing. All of the following reflect events in restoring the blood pressure to normal EXCEPT which one?
Answer:
The heart rate will decrease.
Explanation:
When a person's blood pressure goes below the normal rate, heart rate increases in order to get the blood pressure back to normal.
The nurse has completed a preoperative teaching session with a client who will receive morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump after surgery. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Answer: "I will remind my family member to push the PCA pump button for me if I doze off during the day."
Explanation:
The PCA pump or a patient-controlled analgesia pump is a computerized pump which exhibits a syringe of medication as prescribed by a physician or doctor. The pump mechanism is connected with the patient's inter-venous system. It is set to deliver a small amount of medication as directed by the handheld button.
The patient can receive the morphine by himself or herself by pushing a handheld button for availing the drug to the body and no need to remind the family.
A nursing instructor is describing complex somatic symptom disorder to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students state which of the following?
a. The disorder typically is diagnosed in men.
b. The first symptom usually appears during adolescence.
c. The disorder commonly occurs with substance abuse.
d. Highly educated individuals often develop this disorder
Answer:
b) The first symptom usually appears during adolescence.
Explanation:
This type of disorder is manifesting through focus on physical pain and symptoms. When a person is dealing with this type of condition, they get consumed by it and go through emotional stress and it causes numerous problems. For example, a person doesn't suffer from any disease, but a person would exaggerate and react to some symptoms in an unhealthy way. In early life and young adolescence, a person would show the signs and if they're prone or not to suffering from SSD.
With which of their following statements would you agree?
(A) Health care outcomes for most illnesses are no better than they were 40 years ago.
(B) Care has become more complex and specialized during the last 40 years.
(C) Care has become simpler and more straightforward during the last 40 years.
(D) There is no more focus on the quality and safety of health care than there was 40 years ago.
Answer:
B. Care has become more complex and specialized during the last 40 years
Explanation:
Care has changed a lot during the last four decades, human being has designed ways to improve the life quality they have. Technological advances have led this hectic process that provides us with updated information every single day. Nowadays we count on better conditions for doing everything, from doing the suture of a wound to conducting an advanced surgical procedure.
Carlos, an eight year old boy, was recently removed from his home because he was being physically and sexually abused by his father. In accordance with Maslow's framework, which needs took precedence?
Answer:
He needs foster care
Grace is a therapist who specializes in treating mood disorders. Her first new client of the day comes in, and after a thorough assessment, Grace determines that the client's depression is largely driven by the high levels of stress in her life. Grace proposes a treatment plan that focuses on developing stress management skills. Grace's last client of the day is also a new one. She again conducts a thorough assessment, and decides that this client's depression is probably due to neurochemical imbalance. She refers the client to a psychiatrist in the group practice. Grace is practicing ________ treatment.
The correct answer would be, Prescriptive Treatment.
She refers the client to a psychiatrist in the group practice. Grace is practicing Prescriptive Treatment.
Explanation:
A Prescriptive Treatment is a treatment in which the doctor tells the patient what he should do, rather than just telling him that what has happened to him and give him suggestions.
As described in the question, whenever Grace sees a new client, he takes proper information of the client, and make thorough assessment of his problems, and after that make a diagnosis. If the patient has something which Grace can cure, she starts the treatment, otherwise she sends the patient to the related doctor.
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The condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience
Answer:Physical fitness.
Explanation:
Physical fitness is the condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience.
Physical fitness ensures Genuine health or wellness. Genuine health or wellness is not just the absence of disease or infirmity, it is a state of positive well-being. It includes the physical, mental, spiritual, and scio-emotional dimensions of life.
Answer:
the push up test assesses C.) muscular endurance
Explanation:
A client has begun to suffer from rheumatoid arthritis. She is also being assessed for disorders of the immune system. She works as an aide at a facility that cares for children infected with AIDS. Which of the following is the most important factor related to the patient's assessment?
a) Her age
b) Her home environment
c) Her diet
d) Her use of other drugs
Explanation:
The nurse needs to focus more on patient's drug history.This data will allow the nurse to evaluate the patient's vulnerability to disease because certain past illnesses and medications such as corticosteroids decrease the inflammatory and immune responses.The patient's age, home environment and diet don't have any serious consequences during her assessment because they don't indicate her vulnerability to illness.
Tom had been feeling very tired and went to his family practitioner with this concern. The family practitioner asked Tom about his feelings. Tom reported having trouble concentrating and not feeling as hungry as usual. Further questioning revealed Tom was disappointed about a failed relationship and employment. The family practitioner referred Tom to a psychiatrist for care for possible depression. A family practitioner is _____.
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
A.Dyspnea
B.Mild allergy
C.Shock
D.Anaphylaxis
In the systemic circulation, arterial blood has a mean pH of 7.40 and venous blood has a mean of 7.35. What do you think causes this difference?In the systemic circulation, arterial blood has a mean pH of 7.40 and venous blood has a mean of 7.35. What do you think causes this difference?
Answer:
The proper maintenance of pH in the human body is important for the transportation and respiration process. The bicarbonate acts as the buffers for human blood.
The pH of the body depends on the concentration of carbon dioxide in the body. The presence of carbon dioxide decrease the body pH by increasing the hydrogen ion concentration in the blood. Arteries contains less carbon dioxide than venous blood and has high pH. This main difference is due to the amount of carbon dioxide.
Dolly was euthanized at a relatively young age for a sheep due to health problems. The popular press incorrectly attributed the health problems to premature aging. Why might the press have expected Dolly to show premature aging?
Answer and Explanation:
It's because of the idea that the biological age of clones and their chronological age is not synchronized and then, cloned animals die young.
When cloned, Dolly was conceived using a cell of a six-year-old sheep. And Dolly died at age six and a half, an early death for a race that lives at least nine years on average. People assumed that an adult's clone began its life with a disadvantage: instead of being a real "newborn", it seemed that the clone's internal age was earlier than his time existence indicated.
Although, it was shown that if we get the cell of an animal of any age and insert its nucleus into an unfertilized mature egg, we will obtain an individual who will be born with a completely renewed life expectancy. They confirm that the signs of biological and chronological aging of cloned sheep are the same as those of uncloned sheep. So the real reason of the dead of Dolly with its age its not because of premature aging.
The press might have speculated premature aging in Dolly due to the use of DNA from an older donor sheep. Dolly was a Finn-Dorset because the nucleus from a Finn-Dorset sheep was used in her cloning process, determining her genetic makeup.
Explanation:Why Might the Press Have Expected Dolly to Show Premature Aging?
The popular press might have expected Dolly, the first cloned sheep, to show premature aging because she was created from the DNA of an older individual. The age of the donor sheep had raised questions about whether the genetic material would harbor the effects of aging, potentially shortening Dolly's lifespan. This speculation was due to the potential for the 'age' of the DNA to be effectively the same as that of the donor, rather than resetting to zero at the birth of the clone.
Why Was Dolly a Finn-Dorset and Not a Scottish Blackface Sheep?
Dolly was a Finn-Dorset sheep because her creation involved replacing the nucleus of a donor egg cell with the nucleus from an adult Finn-Dorset sheep. Since genetic identity is determined by the nucleus of an egg, Dolly's genetic makeup was that of the Finn-Dorset, not the Scottish Blackface that provided the egg. The terms cytoplasmic inheritance and epigenetic inheritance relate to different aspects of inheritance and are not applicable in this case since nuclear DNA dictates the organism's genetic identity.
The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend that older adults: a) avoid resistance exercise to reduce fracture risk. b) perform at least 200 minutes of high-intensity exercise weekly. c) include a wide variety and multiple intensity levels of exercise in their exercise plans. d) incorporate balance exercises if they are at risk of falling.
Answer: d) incorporate balance exercises if they are at risk of falling.
Explanation:
According to the physical activity guidelines of Americans in 2008 for older adults:
1. Older adults must perform the exercise that either maintain or improve their balance if they are at high risk of falling.
2. Older adults must understand how their chronic conditions affecting their ability to perform regular exercises.
3. Older adults should determine the level of effort they can put for the physical exercises and to achieve fitness.
4. Older adults must be physically active based on their ability and conditions allow.
The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the ________ to the nasopharynx. The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the ________ to the nasopharynx. external ear middle ear tympanic membrane (eardrum) internal ear
Answer: middle ear cavity, tympanic membrane (eardrum)
Explanation:
The pharyngotympanic tube is the tube that connects the cavity of the middle ear to the nasopharynx. This tube is also called a eustachian tube. This tube aerates the middle ear and clears the mucus from the middle ear passes into the nasopharynx.
The pharyngotympanic tube connects the tympanic membrane with the nasal cavity or nasopharynx. It equalize the air pressure between the middle ear and the throat.
The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. This tube helps equalize air pressure on either side of the eardrum. Sound waves are converted into neural signals in the middle ear.
The pharyngotympanic (also known as the auditory or Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The main function of this tube is to equalize air pressure across the tympanic membrane, or eardrum.
The middle ear contains three small bones called ossicles— the malleus (attached to the tympanic membrane), the incus (which articulates with malleus), and the stapes (which is connected to the inner ear).
Sound waves are transduced into a neural signal in the middle ear when they vibrate the eardrum and this vibration is transferred through the ossicles to the inner ear.
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Which steps should be used when attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding?
Select all that apply.
1) remove debris from the wound
2) elevate the wounded leg or arm above the heart
3) apply pressure with clean bandages
4) clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide
When providing first aid for severe bleeding, apply direct pressure to the wound, elevate the wounded area, avoid removing embedded debris, and do not clean with hydrogen peroxide.
When attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding, several steps should be followed to control the bleeding:
Apply direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth or bandage.
If possible, elevate the wounded area above the level of the heart.
Avoid removing large or deeply embedded debris from the wound, as this could cause more bleeding.
Do not clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide as it can damage the tissues and slow healing. Plain water or saline is preferable for a gentle rinse if necessary.
If the bleeding is from an artery, you'll see blood spurting in time with the heartbeat. In this case, it is crucial to bandage the limb on the side nearest to the heart to help reduce blood flow. If the blood is flowing steadily and not spurting, it suggests a vein is injured, and a bandage should be placed on the side farthest from the heart. While awaiting medical assistance, if you know how to, you can make a tourniquet using a bandage and applying pressure to the artery above the wound.
To help someone with severe bleeding, first identify if it's arterial or venous, then apply direct pressure with clean bandages and elevate the limb above the heart. Avoid using hydrogen peroxide directly in the wound and monitor for signs of infection.
When attempting to help someone who is severely bleeding, the first course of action is to determine whether an artery or a vein is injured. This can be discerned by observing if the blood spurts in jets, indicating an arterial bleed, or flows steadily, indicating a venous bleed. Elevating the affected limb above the heart level and applying pressure with clean bandages are critical steps. If an artery is injured, you should apply pressure on the side of the wound closest to the heart, whereas for a vein injury, apply pressure on the side farthest from the heart.
Before applying a bandage, use sterile gauze or cloth to apply direct pressure to the wound. Avoid trying to clean the wound with solutions like hydrogen peroxide, as they can damage tissue and impede healing—gentle cleaning around the wound with alcohol is an initial step, before medical professionals arrive to thoroughly clean the wound. It's also essential to monitor for signs of infection such as increased redness, swelling, and pain after the wound has been bandaged.
The correct way to prepare frozen vegetables is to___
a. Microwave than before cooking
B. Bake them for 10 minutes before moving them to a pan or steamer see.
c. Move them straight from the freezer into a pan or a steamer
D. Allow them to install slowly
Answer: c. Move them straight from the freezer into a pan or a steamer
Explanation:
Frozen vegetables are those vegetables which are kept at a lower temperature in the refrigeration conditions below the freezing point for storage and transportation until they are eaten. The freezing process restores the quality of these vegetables.
The frozen vegetables must be washed in the cold water until these get thawed. Add these vegetables into the pan or a streamer. Cook as usual. As these frozen vegetables get blanched or boiled before they are frozen, thus there is no requirement for pre-cooking of these vegetables before they are added to the recipe.
You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect?
Answer:
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The child is in emergency condition. Swollen tongue, wheezing and hives with respiratory distress are symptoms of the anaphylaxis (an allergic reaction). Most possibly the boy is stung by an insect or it can be from pollen in the park.