Answer:
Ability to deliver [tex]O_2[/tex] increases.
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide is transported by the blood in the dissolved form. carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme which is a metalloenzyme having zinc at active site converts carbon dioxide into carbonic acid which dissolves in the blood.
Thus,
H₂O (l) + CO₂ (g) ⇔ H⁺(aq) + HCO₃²⁻(aq)
If the concentration of the carbon dioxide is increases, then there is increase in the concentration of the hydrogen ions and thus decrease in the pH which results in the hemoglobin proteins releasing the uptake load of the oxygen. (Bohr effect)
Answer:
dmsasdfsdsa
Explanation:
All fungi are
a. symbiotic.
b. heterotrophic.
c. flagellated.
d. decomposers
Answer:
b. heterotrophic is the correct answer.
Explanation:
All fungi are heterotrophic because they cannot produce their food, they get their food by consuming organic compounds from the external or environmental sources.
fungi do have chlorophyll pigment and they are not able to produce their food from the sunlight and water.
heterotroph are those who cannot manufacture their food,they depend on external sources to get food and energy.
The large surface area of the alveoli allows for efficient diffusion of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide from the blood. What is the approximate surface area of the alveoli?
A. 70 miles
B. 7 miles
C. 0.7 square meters
D. 7 square meters
E. 70 square meters
Answer:
The correct option is: E. 70 square meters
Explanation:
Pulmonary alveoli is described as the cup-shaped hollow cavity, found in the alveolar sacs of mammalian lungs.
The alveolar membrane, also called the respiratory membrane, allows the exchange of gases. Across this membrane, carbon dioxide is released from the capillaries into the alveoli and oxygen is diffused from the alveoli into the capillaries.
About 300 million alveoli are present in the lungs of a human, which makes about 70m² of surface area.
The DNA consists of __________
a. four strands
b. one strand
c. three strands
d. two strands
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. two strands.
Explanation:
DNA is a genetic molecule that is a basic unit that carries the genetic information for functional, developmental, growth and reproduction of all organisms and many viruses.
DNA has two complementary strands that make a double-stranded segment of DNA that coiled and antiparallel to one another. The antiparallel strands are run in opposite directions to each other but physically parallel. These strands are made up of nucleotide and called polynucleotides. This nucleotide consists of one of four nitrogen bases, a deoxyribose pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.
Thus, the correct answer is option D. two strands.
Answer:
D two strands
Explanation:
The DNA consists of TWO STRANDS
Which of these processes involve enzymes?
a. Sliced apples turns brown from being left on the counter
b. Steak turns brown from grilling
c. Sugar caramelizes at high heat
d. Coffee beans are roasted
Final answer:
Enzymes are involved in the processes of sliced apples turning brown, steak turning brown from grilling, sugar caramelizing at high heat, and coffee beans being roasted.
Explanation:
Enzymes are involved in processes that require a biochemical reaction to occur. In this case, the processes that involve enzymes are:
Sliced apples turning brown from being left on the counter. Enzymes in the apples react with oxygen in the air and cause the browning reaction.Steak turning brown from grilling. Enzymes present in the meat react with heat, resulting in a browning reaction.Sugar caramelizing at high heat. Enzymes present in the sugar facilitate the chemical transformation that leads to caramelization.Coffee beans being roasted. Enzymes in the beans are responsible for producing the desirable aroma and flavor during the roasting process.A man has been bitten by a snake. What type of immunization is used to treat him and what is the exact agent? Why is this type of immunization necessary in this case?
Answer:
The type of immunization used is passive, and the exact agent used is an antivenom. This type of immunization is necessary because the man does not have antibodies to fight against the venom's toxins.
Explanation:
To treat from snake bites is necessary to use antivenoms, these are given to the patient as soon as possible after the bite, they consist on a mixture of hyperimmune globulins and other proteins obtained from the serum of animals, usually horses or sheep, previously immunized with the venom of a snake. This kind of immunization is called passive immunization, is temporary and it uses exogenous preformed antibodies to provide treatment to an unprotected individual.
In this case, we use this kind of immunization because the person who was bitten didn't have the previous contact with the snake's venom, this means that the victim does not have antibodies to fight against the toxins in their body.
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What are the differences between the endocrine and nervous systems?
Answer:
Explanation:
The endocrine system is a complex of glands that secrete hormones as a chemical messenger. These hormones carry information and instructions throughout the bloodstream from one part of the body to another. These hormones control many body functions such as respiration, sensory perception, metabolisms, growth, reproduction, the mood among others.
On the other hand, the nervous system is made up of neurons that communicate with each other to extend a message (from our own body or the outside) to the brain, for analysis and further decision of what to do with that information. A group of neurons, sensory neurons, respond to several stimuli such as touch, light, and sound to let the brain know about the surrounding environment. Another group of neurons, motor neurons, work inside the body and carry signals to active muscle or glands.
Garrod's concept regarding the relationship between the gene and metabolism can best be described as:
a. one gene - one polypeptide
b. one mutant gene - one metabolic block
c. one gene - one metabolism
d. one gene - one transcript
Answer:
b. one mutant gene - one metabolic block
Explanation:
Garrod studied inborn errors of metabolism and explained the molecular causes of various genetic diseases such as albinism and alkaptonuria.
Accordingly, the individuals homozygous for the recessive allele exhibit metabolic defect responsible for the disease.
For example, alkapton is normally degraded into maleylacetoacetic acid by the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme homogentisic acid oxidase. A mutation in the respective gene produces nonfunctional enzyme and leads to alkaptonuria as the individuals are not able to degree alkapton in absence of functional enzyme.
Hence, one mutation blocks one metabolic pathway and leads to a genetic disorder.
what is a substance that cannot be broken down to other substances by ordinary chemical means?
Answer:
The correct answer is an element.
Explanation:
An element refers to a component whose atoms comprises a similar number of protons, or it can be said that the atoms of a specific element exhibit the same atomic number. Chemically, they are the simplest components, which cannot be further differentiated by any chemical means. The elements can get converted into other elements with the help of nuclear methods.
Which (if any) of the following statements about the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is not correct?
If all of the statements are correct choose the last answer.
a. all human cells, including red blood cells, possess MHC I
b. each person has a unique MHC (except for identical twins).
c. in order for organ transplantation to be successful, the organ donot and the recipient must have a similar MHC
d. the MHC allows the immune cells to differentiate the host cells from "foreign" cells
e. all of the above statements about the MHC are correct.
Answer:
a. all human cells, including red blood cells, possess MHC I
Explanation:
MHC is a group of genes involved in the immunological recognition of self (cells of the organism) and nonself (exogenous agents), it's found un all nucleated cells of the body, this means it can't be found in red blood cells because they lack a nucleus.
MHC genes are highly polymorphic, this means different alleles exist in different individuals except for identical twins that share the same genetic profile.
When transplantation happens, the organ donor and receiver need to have similar MHC, otherwise, the receptor's dendritic cells will recognize the new organ as non-self molecules. Since MHC are highly polymorphic, choosing a sibling as a donor increases the chances to find a match since the receptor shares genetic information with the donor.
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What is the molecule of inheritance?
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. protein
d. maltose
Answer:A
DNA
Explanation:
What is typically attached to the acceptor end of a tRNA?
a. a protein
b. an amino acid
c. a ribosome
d. a nucleosome
Answer:
The correct answer is b. an amino acid
Explanation:
A tRNA is called adaptor RNA which have cloverleaf-like secondary structures. These structures contain stems and loops which make up the acceptor arm, anticodon stem and loop, D- stem and loop, and T- stem and loop.
Acceptor arm contains seven base pairs and four single stranded nucleotide which include conserved CCA sequence. The function of acceptor arm is attach amino acids require for protein synthesis.
The anticodon loop gives information to acceptor to attach a specific amino acid according to the sequence present in mRNA. The first amino acid which attaches to acceptor arm is methionine.
Thus, the correct answer is b. an amino acid.
Blood typing: who can donors donate to and who can receivers receive from? Know the Rh factor and how it relates to Rh antibodies.
Answer:
Karl Landsteiner along with his coworkers recognized four types of blood groups in human beings, commonly called as ABO blood grouping.
Explanation:
The membrane of RBCs possess several antigens. Depending on the nature of antigens on the surface of RBCS various types of blood grouping has been done. Two such groupings are The ABO and Rh grouping and are widely used all over the world.
ABO grouping:
There are four types of blood groups in human beings. ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of two surface antigens on the RBCs namely A and B. Similarly, the plasma of different individuals also contain two natural antibodies called anti-A and anti-B.
If an antigen is present on the surface of RBCs, the corresponding antibody must be absent from the plasma and if the antigen is absent on the RBCs, the corresponding antibody must be present in the plasma.
Blood group A has A antigen on RBCs and anti-B antibody in plasma
Blood group B has B antigen on RBCs and anti-A antibody in plasma
Blood group AB has A and B antigen on RBCs and no antibody in plasma
Blood group O has no antigen on RBCs and both anti-A and anti-B antibody in plasma
Rh grouping:
Another group of antigens found on the RBCs of most people is the Rh factor. People who have this antigens are said to be Rh+ve whereas those who do not are called Rh-ve. Rh groups should also be matched before transfusion because A Rh-ve person if exposed to Rh+ve blood , will form specific antibodies against the Rh antigen.
In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to
a. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
b. the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
c. a SNP marker.
d. a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
Answer:
d. a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
Explanation:
In molecular biology, it's very useful to use vectors to insert a DNA fragment of interest into a host cell.
In this technique, a DNA sequence of interest is isolated from a larger DNA molecule or even from a complete genome by cutting the DNA with restriction enzymes. At the same time, the restriction enzymes are used to cut open a plasmid, a circular molecule of DNA that can replicate independently and survive for a certain amount of time in the host cell (how much time, it depends on the cell). The fragment of interest is then linked to open plasmid, forming the vector. The vector can be introduced into a living cell, and the sequence of interest can be analyzed in different ways.
I've attached a diagram made by the University of Waikato that illustrates the procedure for creating a vector.
In DNA technology, a vector refers to a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
Explanation:The term vector in DNA technology refers to a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can replicate independently within a host cell. They are commonly used as vectors to introduce foreign DNA into cells for various purposes, such as gene cloning, gene expression, and genetic engineering.
Plasmid vectors typically contain multiple components, including an origin of replication, selectable markers, and restriction sites. The origin of replication allows the plasmid to replicate autonomously within the host cell, while the selectable markers enable the identification and selection of cells that have taken up the plasmid. The restriction sites, on the other hand, are specific DNA sequences recognized by restriction enzymes, which can be used to cut and insert DNA fragments into the plasmid.
Overall, plasmid vectors serve as important tools in DNA technology as they facilitate the transfer and manipulation of DNA in living cells.
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Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
a. AGGTCC
TCCAGG
b. CCTTCC
GCAAGG
c. GAATCC
CTTAGG
d. GGATCC
CCTAGG
e. GTATCC
CATAGG
Answer:
GGATCC
CCTAGG.
Explanation:
Pallindromic sequence may be defined as the sequence of the nucleotides that reads in the certain direction on which the strand reads and they are complementary to each other.
These sequences when read in 5' to 3' direction, the sequence is similar from 3' to 5' direction as well. The sequence GGATCC when reads from the oppposite direction results in the same sequence CCTAGG. Hence, these are pallindromic sequences.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Describe the outcome of irregular mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis II. be sure use all relevant terminology and to note the impact on chromosomal number in each circumstance.
Answer:
Outcome of irregular mitosis:
Mitosis may be defined as the process of cell division in which a single diploid parent cell divides to form two diploid daughter cells. The irregular mitosis may result in aneuploidy condition of chromosome in which the the extra (trisomy) or missing (nullisomy) of one or more chromosome may occur. This condition also leads the genetic disease and cancer condition. Non disjunction may occur in which the sister chromatid are unable to separate.
Outcome of irregular meiosis I and meiosis II.
Meiosis is the cell division in which a single diploid parent cell divides into four haploid daughter cells. Nondisjunction at meiosis I prevent the segregation at least one homologous chromosomes. This causes the two cells with extra copy of chromosome and two cells with deleted chromosome. Nondisjunction at meiosis II. Two cells have normal chromosomes and two cells with the abnormal (missing and extra) chromosomes.
The primary storage site for sperm is the seminal vesicles.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. false.
Explanation:
The seminal vesicles are the site of production of the seminal fluid which makes 60 % of the total seminal vesicles. The seminal vesicles do not store the sperm.
The primary storage site of the sperm in seminiferous tubules and tubular storage sites for the sperm is epididymis.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. false.
Which of the following is an advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator, rather than using wind pollination?
a. Pollinators require more energy to attract
b. Pollinators reduce the chance of hybridization
c. Pollinators are susceptible to climate change and deforestation
d. Pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive
Answer:
d. Pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive
Explanation:
Insect pollination is more successful as compared to wind pollination which is completely a chance event. Insect pollinated plants have evolved several strategies to attract pollinators.
The co-evolution of insect-pollinated plants further ensures the mutualism between them. Pollinators derive their food from the flowers they visit in the form of nectar.
Due to their food requirements, insects visit the flowers and in turn pollinate them. If insects do not visit the flowers, they will face the food scarcity. To ensure food availability, insects visit the flowers and pollinate them.
Final answer:
The advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator rather than relying on wind pollination is that pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive.
Explanation:
The advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator rather than relying on wind pollination is that pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive (option d). This means that the pollinators actively seek out and visit flowers, increasing the chances of successful pollination. In contrast, wind pollination relies on chance and the movement of air to carry pollen from one flower to another, which is less efficient.
The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere globally (choose any/all that apply, points deducted for incorrect answers):
a. has a greater annual variation in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere
b. has a greater annual variation in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere
c. has an annual variation globally that is constant regardless of location
d. varies annually depending on rates of marine NEP
e. varies annually depending on rates of terrestrial NEP
Answer:
a. has a greater annual variation in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere
Explanation:
These latitudinal fluctuation variations are the consequence of plant photosynthetic activity. As plants begin to photosynthesize in the spring and summer, they consume CO2 from the atmosphere and eventually use it as a carbon source for growth and reproduction. This leads to the decline in CO2 concentrations beginning in May each year. By reducing photosynthesis, crops save energy once winter comes. The dominant method, without photosynthesis, is ecosystem CO2 exhalation (cellular respiration and decomposition), including bacteria, crops, and livestock.
Two latitudes of Earth contain most of land plants: Northern Hemisphere mainlands and the tropics that envelop, among different territories, the immense downpour woods of the Amazon basin. Close to the equator temperature are constant all year long. Shifts in CO2 are hence most articulated in the Northern Hemisphere, where the regular changes in temperature bring about enormous contrasts in plant photosynthesis from summer to winter.
Both the change in the genetic material and the process by which the change occurs is referred to as a/an:
a. mutation
b. error
c. reparation
d. mutation and error
e. recombination
Answer: a. mutation
Explanation:
A mutation is a change or alteration and a process that occurs in the DNA sequence of the organism. This happens due to the mistake in the DNA replication process or because of the environmental factors for example exposure to the UV radiation or due to smoking. These mutations either favors the survival of the organisms or they are lethal for the organisms.
All embryos appear female during early development.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Geneticists have discovered that all human embryos start life as females. In the early development in the embryonic stage, this is true both for humans and mammals. This changes only at the 2nd month (in the case of humans, since different mammals have different gestating periods) if the embryo can elaborate enough androgens (dominant male hormone) to offset the maternal estrogens (dominant female hormone) then, maleness develops.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because
a. only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
b. intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
c. only target cells have enzymes that break down aldosterone.
d. only in target cells is aldosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade that turns genes on.
Answer: The correct answer is option b.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid, that is, a steroidal hormone that plays important role in regulating blood pressure as well as the levels of sodium and potassium in the plasma.
It is released from adrenal gland. Being steroidal in nature, it is capable of bypassing plasma membrane easily.
However, its receptors are present inside the cell, that is, in cytoplasm.
These receptors are expressed or present only in the target cells due to which this hormone produces its effects only in the target cells.
Once bound to intracellular receptor, the cell signalling results in alterations in gene expression which produces the desired effects.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, like aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
Explanation:Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells. These receptors are specific to the signaling molecule and are located inside the cell. When aldosterone enters a target cell, it binds to its corresponding intracellular receptor, leading to a series of events that ultimately activate or inhibit specific genes responsible for cellular responses. This selectivity ensures that only certain cells respond to aldosterone.
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Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as _____ is to _____.
a. exergonic; spontaneous
b. exergonic; endergonic
c. free energy; entropy
d. work; energy
Answer:
exergonic; endergonic.
Explanation:
Exergonic reactions may be defined as the reactions in which the energy is released during the reaction. Endergonic reaction are the reaction in which energy is required for the occurrence of reaction.
Catabolism reaction in which the large substance is broken down into simpler substance. Large amount of energy is released during the reaction and considered as exergonic reaction. Anabolism reaction in which small substance combine together to form a large molecule. A large amount of energy is required in this reaction and considered as endergonic reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Catabolism is to anabolism as exergonic is to endergonic. and the correct option is option B.
Catabolism and exergonic reactions are both types of chemical reactions that release energy. However, there are some key differences between the two.
Catabolism is a type of metabolic reaction that breaks down complex molecules into smaller molecules. This process releases energy, which can be used for cellular processes such as muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and cell growth.
Exergonic reactions are chemical reactions that release energy in the form of heat or light. These reactions are spontaneous, meaning that they occur without the need for an input of energy.
Thus, the ideal selection is option B.
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The surgical removal of male reproductive organs is known as _______________.
Answer: The surgical removal of male reproductive organs is known as Orchidectomy.
Explanation: By the process of Orchidectomy male reproductive organs ( one or both the testes ) removed surgically. Orchidectomy is also known as Castration.
Orchidectomy is very helpful in case of testicular cancer. Because in that case it serve as treatment of cancer.
Orchidectomy is of three types -:
1 : Simple -: In this type of orchidectomy male gonads and spermatic cord is removed by incision. For the treatment genetic infection.
2 : Subcapsular -: In this type of orchidectomy not the entire gland only glandular tissues are removed. It is a Prostrate cancer treatment.
3: Inguinal :- In this type one or both the testes or entire spermatic cord is removed in incision in lower abdomen.
Cyanide cause cellular death because it prevents the electron transport chain from producing ATP.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-true.
Explanation:
Cyanide is a class of molecules which contains CN group in their structure. They are mostly considered deadly poisons as they inhibit ATP synthesis.
The cyanide ions of the cyanide bind with the cytochrome C oxidase enzyme of electron transport chain in mitochondria. The main role of the enzyme is to transfer the electron to the oxygen during electron transport chain.
Since cyanide ions binding prevents the cytochrome C oxidase to perform its function, therefore ATP will not be synthesized in the mitochondria.
Thus, option-true is the correct answer.
Explain how the nucleolus, ribosomes, endoplasmic
reticulum,Golgi apparats function together in protein
synthesis.
Answer:
The nucleolus refers to a condensed region of chromatin where the production of ribosomes takes place. Ribosomes are the regions of protein synthesis, which perform this function by aligning the amino acids in a suitable sequence, as directed by the messenger RNA.
The ribosomes are generally found entrenched in the endoplasmic reticulum. The production of a huge amount of proteins is possible due to the presence of very large surface area provided by the ER to the ribosomes. The prime function of the ER is to transport the newly formed proteins over to the Golgi apparatus.
The main function of the Golgi apparatus is to amend the proteins and administer them into the vesicles. From here they are mediated towards different cell parts. Hence, the mentioned cell organelles are associated with their activities of synthesis of proteins and transportation.
Which of these groups of animals currently has the greatest percentage of threatened species?
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. mammals
d. reptiles
e. fishes
Answer:
Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Explanation:
The IUCN ( International Union for Conservation of Nature) is an environmental organization that helps and influences societies around the world to preserve biodiversity so that human progress, economic diversity and the conservation of nature can work together, to ensure that any natural resource usage is ecologically sustainable.
The IUCN created a list of threatened species. A threatened species is an organism that is vulnerable to lose all of its population shortly. The list was created to state and report the status of conservation of animals and plants. The IUCN studies species under several conditions and criteria to create a list of categories directed toward classifying animals and taking action when needed:
Extinct (EX): the last individual of the species has died. Extinct in the wild (EW): the last individuals is known only to survive in captivity Critically endangered (CR): the species is in extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate futureEndangered (EN): the species is in very high risk of extinction in the wild shortly.Vulnerable (VU): the species is a high risk of extinction in the wild in medium-term futureNearly Threatened (NT): the species is close to being at high risk of extinction soon Low Concern (LC): the species is unlikely to become extinct soon.Deficient Data (DD): Not enough information about the species to classify it. Not Evaluated (NE) : the species have not been evaluated yetThe definition of threatened according to the IUCN is a species that is classified in CR (Critically endangered) , EN (Endangered) , and VU (Vulnerable)
So according to this definition in the IUCN red list finder, you would have the following numbers:
a. Amphibians
Total: 6771Threatened: CR: 575, EN:944; VU: 638 Total threatened: 2157Percentage: 31,8%b. Birds
Total: 11133Threatened by category: CR: 225, EN: 469, VU: 799Total threatened: 1493Percentage: 13,4%c. mammals
Total: 5801Threatened by category: CR: 203, EN: 489, VU:528 Total threatened: 1220Percentage: 21%d. reptiles
Total: 7541Threatened by category: CR: 303, EN: 547, VU: 517Total threatened: 1367Percentage: 18,1%e. fishes
Total: 18449Threatened by category: CR: 549, EN: 771, VU: 1174Total threatened: 2494Percentage: 13,5%Answer: Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Final answer:
Amphibians have the greatest percentage of threatened species among the groups listed, with 29% of all amphibians classified as threatened. This calls for urgent conservation efforts to mitigate further losses.
Explanation:
Among the options provided, the group of animals currently with the greatest percentage of threatened species is amphibians. According to the International Union for the Conservation of Nature, up to 29 percent of all amphibians are classified as threatened, a rate higher than that for other groups mentioned, such as mammals, birds, reptiles, and fishes. This alarming percentage highlights the urgent need for conservation efforts to prevent further losses within this class.
Amphibians are facing numerous threats, including habitat loss, pollution, climate change, and infectious diseases, which collectively contribute to their high rate of endangerment. Efforts like the Biodiversity Action Plan, ratified by 188 countries, aim to protect these vital species and their habitats. Understanding and supporting such conservation initiatives is crucial for preserving the biodiversity of our planet.
Is the Gram stain a useful tool for understanding the phylogeny of eubacteria? Explain why or why not.
Answer
Yes, Gran stain is a useful tool for unterstanding the phylogeny of eurobacteria.
Explanation
The Gram staining method is used to classify two broad groups: gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. This technique is widely used in clinical analysis and microbiology laboratories to monitor infections in pus smears or organic fluids.
In the Gran staining method, we subject the bacteria to dye treatments and, depending on the chemical composition of the cell wall of these bacteria, each one will react differently with the dyes and thus identify them by their biochemical characteristics.
The Gram stain is pivotal for classifying bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative groups but is not a dependable method for elucidating the phylogeny of eubacteria, as it focuses on cell wall characteristics rather than genetic relationships.
Explanation:The Gram stain is a differential staining technique that was developed as an efficient method to differentiate bacteria based on the structural differences in their cell walls. Although invaluable for identifying and classifying bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative groups based on their reaction to the stain, the Gram stain itself is not a reliable tool for understanding the phylogeny of eubacteria.
Phylogeny involves the evolutionary relationships among organisms, which require more comprehensive genetic analysis rather than just cellular characteristics discerned from staining techniques. Nevertheless, the Gram staining method is a foundational first step in identifying bacterial species and understanding aspects of their cell wall structure that can hint at broader taxonomic relationships.
Describe four types of point mutations: transitions, transversions, deletions, and additions.
Explanation:
Mutation - any sudden and hereditary change in the genetic set of an organism, which is not explained by the recombination of pre existing genetic variation. Point mutation - Changes in the nucleotide sequence, which alter the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain encoded by the gene, leading to a phenotypic change.
When a purine base is replaced by another purine base (A by G or vice versa) or a pyrimidine base is replaced by another pyrimidine base (T by C or vice versa) it is called a transition. In contrast to the transitions we have the so-called transversions, which are mutations where a purine base is replaced by another pyrimidine, or vice versa, that is, a pair C-G is replaced by another A-T or vice versa. It may be a simple substitution of a base pair, which may be by deletion or addition of one or a few bases. Deletion: is the loss of a portion of the chromosome, resulting in the lack of one or more genes
The Calvin cycle is considered light-independent because it can occur in darkness. However, most often the Calvin cycle takes place in sunlight.
Which of the following likely explains why?
A) The enzymes involved in the Calvin cycle are unable to bind substrates in the dark.
B) Sunlight is important in activating carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle
C) The Calvin cycle requires ATP and NADPH, which require sunlight to be produced
D) RußP regeneration requires sunlight in order to occur and continue the Calvin cycle.
Answer:
C) The Calvin cycle requires ATP and NADPH, which require sunlight to be produced
Explanation:
The light-dependent phase of photosynthesis includes the photolysis of water molecules. The released electrons are passed to PSII to PSI via electron carriers and finally to NADP+ to reduce it into NADPH.
Transfer of electrons via electron carriers also generates the proton concentration gradient which in turn drives ATP synthesis. ATP and NADPH formed during light reactions are used in the Calvin cycle as an energy source and electron donor respectively.
Hence, to continue, the Calvin cycle requires the synthesis of ATP and NADPH in the presence of light.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Radiation can cause breaks in human chromosomes. However, insects can survive much higher lecels of exposure. Why?
Explanation:
The influence from radioactivity is inversely proportional to the number of chromosomes , since , humans have more DNA , chromosomes than the insects , and therefore , due to less chromosomes in insects , they are more resistant towards radioactivity .
As the target of the radiation is the DNA .
Hence , It is clear that insect due to lesser DNA are less prone to Radiations .