Sympathetic nervous system vs parasympathetic nervous system

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Differences between Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

1. Anatomical: The location of preganglionic neurons of the autonomic ganglia and the extension of preganglionic and postganglionic fibers are different in these two systems;

2. Pharmacological: In the Sympathetic system we have the presence of Cholinergic fibers (Ach) and in the Parasympathetic system we have the presence of Noradrenergic fibers (NE);  

3. Physiological: They act antagonistically, they rarely work harmoniously synergistically in coordinating visceral activity (balance)

Answer 2

The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for action, while the parasympathetic nervous system helps the body relax and recover. Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system work in opposition to each other, regulating different bodily functions.

The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for 'fight or flight,' whereas the parasympathetic nervous system allows the body to 'rest and digest.' Sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine onto target organs; parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and blood pressure and decreases digestion and blood flow to the skin. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate and blood pressure and increases digestion and blood flow to the skin.


Related Questions

What does EEG stands for?

Answers

Answer:

An EEG is formally known as an electroencephalogram, thus the letters on the name.

This is a diagnostic test whose main purpose is to record the electrical activity within the brain through a series of electrodes that are placed on the scalp surrounding the skull of a person. As neurons communicate with each other through electrical impulses, the EEG, with its capacity to sensor these impulses, records the intensity, duration, wavelength and type of the electrical message to diagnose whether this communication is normal, or if it is being affected. The EEG is one of the most efficient diagnostic tests for epilepsy, narcolepsy, and other affections in the brain.

Identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris.

Answers

Answer: Why are Type A's more prone to heart attacks?  

Explanation:

The fluid-filled space between the cornea and iris is called the anterior chamber. It is filled with a watery fluid called aqueous humor.

What is the function of the anterior chamber

The function of the anterior chamber is to provide a space for the passage of aqueous humor, a clear fluid that helps to maintain the shape, pressure of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. It also helps regulate intraocular pressure, which is important for maintaining the overall health of the eye.

It is located between the cornea and the iris, and is filled with aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body. The anterior chamber also plays a role in the refractive power of the eye, contributing to focusing light onto the retina.

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Two parents consult a genetic counselor. They do not understand why all their sons are colorblind (an X-linked trait) but none of their daughters are colorblind. Both of the parents appear normal. How would you explain this to the parents?

Answers

Answer:

There is 50% probability that a son of carrier mother (X^cX) and normal father (XY) is affected with colorblindness. Since father is normal, all the daughters will be normal.

Explanation:

Being X linked recessive trait, males can be affected with colorblindness if their mother is either colorblind or carrier for the disease. Since both the parents are normal, the mother is carrier for the disease and is heterozygous dominant with genotype X^c X. She would deliver the "X^C" to 50% of her sons making them colorblind.

Daughters can get affected with X linked disorder such as colorblindness if their father is affected with the disease. In the given question, father is normal (XY). So, none of the daughters can be colorblind.

Final answer:

Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Boys can be colorblind if they inherit the colorblind gene from their mother, as they only have one X chromosome. Girls can be carriers of the colorblind gene but do not express color blindness due to the presence of a normal gene on their second X chromosome.

Explanation:

Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait, which means it is associated with the X chromosome. Since boys only have one X chromosome, if it carries the colorblind gene, they will be colorblind. On the other hand, girls have two X chromosomes, so even if one X chromosome carries the colorblind gene, the other X chromosome with a normal gene for color vision will mask the recessive colorblind gene. Thus, girls with one colorblind allele and one normal allele are carriers and do not express color blindness.

Which of the following statements about the Bohr effect are true? This is the effect of pH on the binding of O2 to Hb. As blood travels from lung to tissue, there is a drop in pH, causing Hb to unload more oxygen than if there were no change in pH. As blood travels from lung to tissue, there is an increase in pH, causing Hb to unload more oxygen than if there were no change in pH. Myoglobin and Hb exhibit similar pH profiles.

Answers

Answer:

Option 1 and 2.

Explanation:

Bohr's effect explained the relationship between the binding affinity of oxygen with acidity and carbon dioxide content. Bohr effect was given by the scientist Christian Bohr.

The decrease in pH and increase in the amount of carbon dioxide reducing the binding affinity of oxygen. When the blood travels in tissue from the lungs, pH decreases and oxygen get unload from the hemoglobin as compared with the condition when there is no change in pH.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1)and (2).

Final answer:

The Bohr effect refers to the influence of pH on the interaction between oxygen and hemoglobin. A drop in pH (more acidic conditions) enhances the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin while an increase in pH (more basic conditions) inhibits this dissociation.

Explanation:

The Bohr effect describes the influence of pH on the binding of O2 to Hemoglobin (Hb). As the blood travels from the lung to the tissues, the pH drops due to the increase in carbon dioxide and byproducts of cell metabolism like lactic acid, carbonic acid, and carbon dioxide which makes the blood more acidic. This drop in pH promotes oxygen dissociation from Hb. Conversely, a higher, or more basic, pH inhibits oxygen dissociation from Hb. This is because there are fewer hydrogen ions available to contribute to the breakdown of bicarbonate ions, leading to less carbon dioxide.

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At the conclusion of experiments involving growing bacterial cultures, _____ should be added to the plates or tubes and everything should be soaked for _____.

Answers

Final answer:

Sterile broth should be added to the plates or tubes and everything should be soaked for incubation.

Explanation:

At the conclusion of experiments involving growing bacterial cultures, sterile broth should be added to the plates or tubes and everything should be soaked for incubation.

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Final answer:

At the conclusion of experiments involving growing bacterial cultures, a sterilizing agent such as ethanol or bleach should be added to the plates or tubes and everything should be soaked for a sufficient amount of time to kill any remaining bacteria.

Explanation:

At the conclusion of experiments involving growing bacterial cultures, a sterilizing agent such as ethanol or bleach should be added to the plates or tubes, and everything should be soaked for a sufficient amount of time to kill any remaining bacteria. This is done to prevent any contamination and to ensure the accuracy of the results.

For example, after completing an experiment to grow bacterial cultures, you would add ethanol or bleach to the plates or tubes and let them soak for at least 10 minutes. This ensures that any bacteria left on the surfaces are killed before handling or disposing of them.

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A broth medium has been inoculated, and microbial numbers will be counted periodically to generate a bacterial growth curve. At 2 hours after inoculation, the culture has progressed through lag phase and is now in log phase. At this point, the population size is 1 million cells. The generation time is 30 minutes. Assuming the continuation of log growth, how many cells would there be at 2 hours of growth in log phase?

Answers

Answer:

16 million

Explanation:

The population at the beginning of the log phase is 1 million cells.

The generation time (doubling time) is 30 min.

In 2 h, there will be four generations.

The population will have doubled four times (2^4 = 16).

There will be 16 million cells.

Final answer:

In the logarithmic phase of bacterial growth, the population size doubles at regular intervals. Given a generation time of 30 minutes, a bacterial culture with a starting population of 1 million cells would grow to 16 million cells after 2 hours. This assumes ideal conditions for exponential growth.

Explanation:

The bacterial culture is currently in the log phase of growth, also known as the exponential growth phase. Given that the generation time, or doubling time, is 30 minutes, the bacterial population will double every half hour. Therefore, starting from a population of 1 million cells, after 2 hours of growth (or four 30-minute cycles), the population size would be 16 million cells.

The calculation is straightforward: Starting with 1 million cells (2^0), after one 30-minute cycle (2^1), we have 2 million cells. After two cycles (2^2), we have 4 million cells. After three cycles (2^3), we have 8 million cells. And after four cycles (2^4), we have 16 million cells.

It's important to understand that this idealized exponential growth assumes that the conditions remain constant and optimal for the bacteria, without food shortages, waste accumulation, or other inhibitions to growth. In environmental conditions, such growth rate might not be sustained over time and could be affected by various factors.

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Read this excerpt from a persuasive essay about animal testing. Which two sentences form a hook to draw the reader’s attention? Somewhere in a claustrophobic laboratory a dog is forced to breathe tobacco smoke. In another lab in another part of the country, a rat is squeezed into a narrow glass tube and forced to breathe in tobacco smoke. Scenes from a horror novel? No, all of this is real. Modern technology has advanced to new heights. Yet scientists continue to perform cruel and painful experiments on innocent animals all in the name of progress. Moreover, most of these experiments on animals have ended up being worthless—scientists don’t even have a good reason to continue with them. We must put an end to it before more animals are harmed.It is time we show humanity to our fellow creatures.

Answers

Final answer:

The first two sentences of the given essay extract function as the hook, drawing readers into the contentious issue of animal testing via vivid and emotionally charged descriptions of laboratory practices.

Explanation:

The first two sentences of this excerpt form the hook that is designed to draw the reader's attention. These sentences are: 'Somewhere in a claustrophobic laboratory a dog is forced to breathe tobacco smoke. In another lab in another part of the country, a rat is squeezed into a narrow glass tube and forced to breathe tobacco smoke.' A hook in an essay is the first one or two sentences that are intended to capture the attention of a reader and engage them in the topic. In this essay, the hook introduces the contentious issue of animal testing by painting a vivid, disturbing picture of what animals may undergo in the process.

By using the technique of vivid description and somewhat shocking imagery, the writer effectively brings the issue of animal testing to life for the reader. This hook catches the reader's attention and makes them want to read further to find out more about the situation, the ethical considerations, and what might be done to change it.

It is crucial to note that a strong hook not only draws in the reader but also sets the tone of the essay and introduces the main topic in a compelling and engaging way. The mentioned sentences accomplish all of these tasks effectively, setting the stage for a persuasive argument against animal testing.

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How many substrate-level (gross) ATPs are generated in glycolysis alone?

A- 2

B- 4

C- 6

D- 10

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A-2.

Explanation:

Even though four ATP molecules are produced in the second half. The net gain of glycolysis is only 2 ATP because 2 ATP molecules are used in the first half of the glycolysis.

What substance is found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal

Answers

Answer:

I believe synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters.

Explanation:

In the far end of a neuron, there is the branch like ending with called the axon terminals. This is where neurons communicate with other neurons through a space called a synaptic cleft with the aid of neurotramitters. To better understand the significance of the synaptic vesicles, I have explained the functioning of the terminal before with an attached picture.

Further Explanation:

When a neuron receives a signal/stimulus from the external environment via the dendrites, it converts this signal into a nerve impulse in the cell body. The impulse. The impulse then travels along the myelinated axon to reach the end of the neuron called the axon terminal which links up with the next organ or neuron. When the impulse reaches the membrane of the axon terminal, it stimulates the opening of voltage gated calcium ion channels. This causes an influx of calcium ions inside the membrane of the cell and that stimulates synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters to move towards the membrane of the axon terminal. When they reach the membrane, they fuse with it and rapture releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters bind to ligand gated ion channels on the second neuron or the second cell causing a response in it. The voltage gated channels close and the synaptic vesicels that were not opened up continue holding the remaining neurotransmitters.

The substance found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal is called a neurotransmitter.

What is an neurotransmitter?

Neurotransmitters are chemicals that help neurons talk to each other. These small substances are kept in tiny containers called synaptic vesicles. These containers release the substances into a small space between two neurons called the synaptic cleft.

When an electrical signal reaches the end of a nerve cell, it causes the release of chemicals that help transmit messages to other nerve cells. The chemicals called neurotransmitters move through a small gap and attach to receptors on the receiving neuron. This causes an electrical reaction in the receiving neuron.

Neurotransmitters are important for lots of things in our body like moving, feeling things, emotions, and thinking. Problems with how brain cells communicate can cause different brain illnesses like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, and depression.

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What does the sympathetic nervous system do

Answers

It is responsible for your body's 'fight or flight' reaction it also looks after the workings of your body during rest and recuperation. It also controls your heart rate and body temperature under normal conditions.

If isolated myofibrils were placed in a flask containing a solution of calcium and AMPPNP (a nonhydrozyable analog of ATP) you would expect to find the myofibrils arrested in which stage of the myosin power stroke cycle?
a. just completed the power stroke
b. all locked up in cross bridges
c. all cross bridges broken
d. in the high energy cocked head conformation

Answers

Answer:

All cross bridges broken

Explanation:

Muscle contraction is explained by the most accepted sliding filament theory given by Huxley and Huxley. During the process of muscle contraction actin filament slide over the myosin filament by the formation of cross-bridges. In this process the length of I band reduces whereas the length of A band remains the same. Also we should note that the actin and myosin filament remains unchanged.

The release of acetylcholine at the neuro-muscular junction stimulates the release of calcium ions from endoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. During the relaxed condition troponin-tropomyosin complex always block the myosin binding site on the surface of actin.

Once calcium is released it binds to the TpC component of troponin causing the shift of troponn-tropomyosin complex. Now actin can attach and slide over myosin.

The myosin head binds to actin forming the cross bridge and the pulling of myosin head towards M-line along with actin is called the power stroke. But myosin head also has a site for binding of ATP. Binding of ATP causes the detachment of myosin head from actin filament. Now since its the analog of ATP i.e AMPPNP present in the solution, cross-bridges will be broken. And only if ATP undergoes hydrolysis, the angle of myosin head changes into high energy cocked head conformation. Since AMPPNP is non-hydrolyzable we can rule out the fourth option.

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What percent of all the genes in E. coli are active all the time?

10%

20%

60%

80%

Answers

The answer is 60% are active

Answer:

60%

Explanation:

Describe how the schwann cells form the myelin sheath

Answers

Explanation:

The myelin sheath, lipoprotein structure deposited around axons selected in inner nodules, interrupted periodically by Ranvier nodules, allows saltatory, rapid and effective conduction in the nervous system of vertebrates. The cells that construct myelin are the oligodendrocyte in the nervous central nervous system (CNS) and the Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system. An oligonucleotide myelinates one or more axons, while the Schwann always forms a single myelin internodule. The process of myelination begins when a cell-sheath projection involves the axon and a loose spiral shape around it. Over time the formed layers are compacted by the expulsion of the cytoplasm and the formation of a lamellar structure with thick electrodes bands - derived from the apposition of the cytoplasmic phases of the membranes - and fewer electrodes - derived of the external phases of the membranes.

Final answer:

Schwann cells form the myelin sheath by wrapping their membrane around an axon segment in the PNS, creating a lipid-rich layer that facilitates rapid transmission of electrical signals. This insulation ensures efficient nerve impulse conduction with nodes of Ranvier allowing impulses to travel quickly by 'jumping' from gap to gap.

Explanation:

Schwann cells are a type of glial cell responsible for the production of the myelin sheath around axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS). During the process of myelination, a Schwann cell envelops an axon segment by wrapping its cell membrane around the axon multiple times. This wrapping forms a lipid-rich layer with very little cytoplasm between the layers, effectively insulating the axon and aiding in the rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

The myelin sheath's appearance has been compared to a pastry wrapped around a hot dog, with the sausage representing the axon and the pastry the myelin layers. Unlike oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS), which can myelinate several axons at once, a single Schwann cell myelinates just one segment of a peripheral nerve. Myelin is not only comprised of the phospholipids from the Schwann cell membrane but also includes proteins that help maintain the structure of the sheath, supporting fast electrical signaling along the nerve fiber.

The role of Schwann cells and myelin is crucial as they contribute to the formation of nodes of Ranvier—regularly spaced gaps in the myelin sheath that allow for saltatory conduction, wherein nerve impulses 'jump' from node to node, drastically increasing the speed at which they travel down the axon.

You are on a jury to decide the following case: The Jones family claims that baby Jane, given to them at Ucsc Medical Hospital, does not belong to them and that baby Sara, who was presented to the Smith family, really belongs to the Jones family. The Jones allege that the babies were exchanged on 4/20 by the medical staff. The staff deny the allegation Blood group determinations show the following results: Ms. Jones = AB Mr. Jones = O Mrs. Smith = A Mr. Smith = O Baby Jane = A Baby Sara = O A and B are dominant over O and A and B are codominant to one another. Which baby belongs to which family? Sara: Jane: Human cells normally have 23 pairs of chromosomes. For each of the following stages state the number of DNA molecules present in a human cell. Metaphase of meiosis II Metaphase of meiosis I Anaphase of meiosis II Egg cell

Answers

Question #1

To know which baby belongs to who you need to draw both families Punnett squares.

Let's start with the Jones family. Mr. Jones is AB this means, he has co-dominant alleles. Ms. Jones is 0 this means, she has two recessive alleles.

When you draw the Punnett square, you'll find that chances are 50% group A, and 50% group B.

Now, analyze the Smith family Mr. Smith is group A this means, he has either two A alleles or A0. Ms. Smith is group 0 this means, she has two recessive alleles.

If Mr. Smith is AA, 100% of children will be A, and if Mr. Smith is A0, 50% of children will be group A, and 50% will be group 0.

Baby Jane is group A, she could be either Smith or Jones, but baby Sara is group 0 the only chance is that her family was the Smith.

Question #2

Meiosis is a process in which gametes create. You have two stages: meiosis I, and II. At the end of meiosis I, you still have diploids cells (2n) this means, you have a pair of chromosomes in each cell. At the end of meiosis II, you have all haploid (n) cells, with half of the genetic charge.

Metaphase of meiosis II: Sister chromatids are in the equatorial plane to be pulled apart without being replicated. Here you have 46 chromosomes about to create two cells with 23 (n) chromosomes.

Metaphase of meiosis I: homologs chromatids are in the equatorial plane to be pulled apart after replication. Here you have 46 pairs of chromosomes about to create two cells with 46 chromosomes each (2n).

Anaphase of meiosis II: all singles chromatids (n) are in the poles and the plasmatic membrane begins to close to obtain two haploids (23 chromosomes each) cells.

Egg cell is the result of meiosis II and is the breeding cell. Its chromosomic charge is 23.

29. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are synthesized via cellular respiration for every glucose molecule used? (assume oxygenated environment)
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48

Answers

Answer: c. 36

Explanation:

Cellular respiration oxidizes food molecules. The chemiosmotic model suggests that one ATP molecule is generated for each proton pump activated by the electron transport chain. Since the electrons from NADH activate three pumps and those from FADH2 activate two, we would expect each molecule of NADH and FADH2 to generate three and two ATP molecules, respectively.

However, because eukaryotic cells carry out glycolysis in their cytoplasm and the Krebs cycle within their mitochondria, they must transport the two molecules of NADH produced during glycolysis across the mitochondrial membranes, which requires one ATP per molecule of NADH. Thus, the net ATP production is decreased by two. Therefore, the overall ATP production resulting from aerobic respiration theoretically should be 4 (from substrate-level phosphorylation during glycolysis) + 30 (3 from each of 10 molecules of NADH) + 4 (2 from each of 2 molecules of FADH2) – 2 (for transport of glycolytic NADH) = 36 molecules of ATP

Which is a difference between the synaptic cleft and the synapse?

Answers

Answer:

Synaptic cleft

Synaptic cleft may be defined as the space between two neuron and the gap between post synaptic and pre synaptic neuron. This is one of the component of synapse. The signals are transmitted in the form of chemical signal.

Synapse:

Synapse may be defined as the functional contact between two neurons and the gap between two consecutive neuron. This synapse consists of Presynaptic and postsynaptic membrane. The signals can be transmitted in form of electrical and chemical synapse.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about muscles? a. toned muscles react to stimuli quickly and powerfully c. excessive use of muscles can cause hypertrophy b. atrophy of muscles can cause an increase in their size d. prolonged disuse of muscles can cause atrophy

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option b. "atrophy of muscles can cause an increase in their size".

Explanation:

Muscle atrophy is defined by the partial or total loss of muscles mass that results from disabling circumstances. Muscle atrophy results in weakness, since the ability of the muscle to exert force is closely related to its size. Therefore, is false to state that muscle atrophy can cause an increase in its size. Actually, is the opposite, an atrophy in a muscle results in a decrease in its size.

This problem has been solved!See the answerIn sheep, coat color is influenced by two genes. Gene A influences pigment production, while gene B produces black or brown pigment. If two heterozygous white sheep were crossed and offspring were produced in a ratio of 12 white sheep to 3 black sheep to 1 brown sheep, what are the genotypes of the offspring?

Answers

Answer:

White: A---

Black: aaB-

Brown: aabb

Explanation:

As per given information, the genotype of parent white sheep is AaBb (heterozygous white).

The gene "A" is dominant over gene "B". Hence, all the genotypes with one or two copies of "A" would exhibit white phenotype.

All the genotypes that have "aa" and one or two "B" alleles would exhibit black phenotype.

All the genotypes with "aabb" allele combination would exhibit brown phenotype.

What kind of channels are located in the input region?
a. Voltage gated channels opened by neurotransmitter molecules
b. ligand gated channels opened by neurotransmitter molecules
c. voltage gated channels opened by a change in charge across the membrane
d. ligand gated channels opened by a change in charge across the membrane

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B ( ligand gated channels opened by neurotransmitter molecules).

Explanation:

Input region or postsynaptic region or dendrite is the site of neuron cell which receives the impulse from the pre-synaptic neuron at the synaptic junction.

The cell membrane of the dendrite is embedded with ligand-gated channels which opens up in response to the ligand (neurotransmitters) produced by the neurotransmitter vesicle of axon or output region of neuron.

The neuromuscular junction is such a case where acetylcholine receptors present in the dendrite opens in the presence of acetylcholine.

Thus, option B ( ligand-gated channels opened by neurotransmitter molecules) is the correct option.

16. Which type of plastid organelle contains a high amount of red/orange photopigments and is known to give fruits & flowers their bright coloration? a. Chloroplast c. Amyloplast b. Chromoplast d. Lypoplast

Answers

Answer:  b. Chromoplast

Explanation:

Plastids only occur in plant-like protists and are organeles surrounded by a double membrane. There are many types of plastid in plant cells. Chromoplasts include pigments different than chlorophyll and are associated with vividly colored structures and is known to give fruits & flowers their bright coloration. Plastids contain their own DNA in a small ‘plastid genome’ containing genes for some chloroplast proteins.

Chimpanzee attacks on members of other groups can be extremely brutal and result in severe injury or death. never result in injury. are definitely motivated by territoriality. are so rare that only one or two have been observed. always occur in the form of displays and nothing more.

Answers

Answer:

severe injury or death

A muscle that draws ribs together

a. Internal intercostals

b. Pectoralis major

Answers

B. Pectoralis major
The pectoralis major draws the ribs together

Know the special characteristics of epithelial cells.

Answers

Answer:

Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing. Epithelial layers contain no blood vessels, so they must receive nourishment via diffusion of substances from the underlying connective tissue, through the basement membrane

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Helper T Cell : Killing of virus-infected cells T cell activation : proliferation Effector B cell : Plasma cell plasma cell : antibody secretion

Answers

Answer:

T cell activation : proliferation

Explanation:

The pairs that are correctly matched are:

Helper T cell: Killing of Virus infected cells

Helper T cells are also known as cytotoxic T cells which destroys cells with infected virus and tumor.

Plasma cell: Antibody Secretion

Plasma cell is also known as white blood cell. The cells are present in the bone marrow and secrete proteins called antibodies.

Effector B cell: Plasma cell

Plasma B cells are also known as Effector B cells.

Taking about,

T cell activation : proliferation

T cells are a type of lymphocytes that develops in the thymus gland. It is plays a central role in immune response. Thus, both T cell activation and proliferation are the different steps in the immune response by the T cell.

Thus, they are mismatched.

From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the __(1)__ through the __(2)__ valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left __(3)__ to the capillary beds of the __(4)__ to the __(5)__ to the __(6)__ of the heart through the __(7)__ valve, to the __(8)__ through the __(9)__ semilunar valve, to the __(10)__, to the systemic arteries, to the __(11)__ of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the __(12)__ and __(13)__, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

Answers

Answer:

Circulatory system

Explanation:

From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle through the pulmonary sigmoid valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left lungs to the capillary beds of the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle of the heart through the mitral valve, to the aorta through the aortic semilunar valve, to the whole body, to the systemic arteries, to the capillaries of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the superior cava vein and inferior cava vein, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

Final answer:

The statement describes the journey of blood through the cardiovascular system. It involves the right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, capillary beds of the body, superior and inferior vena cava.

Explanation:

The blood flow pathway you're describing is basically the journey of blood throughout the cardiovascular system, including its passage through the heart. The blanks in your statement can be filled in the following way: From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the (1) right ventricle through the (2) pulmonary valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left (3) pulmonary arteries to the capillary beds of the (4) lungs to the (5) pulmonary veins to the (6) left atrium of the heart through the (7) mitral valve, to the (8) left ventricle through the (9) aortic semilunar valve, to the (10) aorta, to the systemic arteries, to the (11) capillary beds of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the (12) superior and (13) inferior vena cava, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

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Which of the following is a NOT a function of liver?
a. release enzymes for chemical digestion of food
b. detoxification
c. carbohydrate metabolism
d. bile formation
d. cholesterol excretion

Answers

Answer:

release enzymes for chemical digestion of food

Explanation:

Liver is a large organ located on the right upper quadrant just below the diaphragm of an organism.

Liver detoxifies the drug and harmful substances of the body. Liver produces bile juice, regulate carbohydrate metabolism and regulates the cholesterol excretion. Liver doesn't produce any enzyme for the the digestion of food. The bile juice of liver contains salts and chemical that helps in the emulsification of food.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

Which kind of psychology seeks to identify and promote those qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled, and contented lives?

a.self-psychology
b.positive psychology
c.eustress psychology
d.psychology of joy

Answers

Answer:

B - Positive psychology

Explanation:

By definition, positive psychology is the study of a healthy mind and it is a applied to achieve peak operational functioning of the mind. It does this by identifying and promoting qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled and contented lives. Positive psychology is based on nurturing what is best withing oneself, thereby improving both individuals and communities.

Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease. A couple (Jack and Jill) is worried about having a child who has Tay-Sachs, because Jack had a brother with the deadly disease. Since they wanted to have children, they sought the advice of a genetic counselor. During the course of the interview the counselor determined that Jack’s parents were not affected with Tay-Sachs, yet his brother had it. What is immediately known about the genotypes of Jack’s parents? Is the genotype of Jack immediately known? Under what circumstances could Jack and Jill have a child with Tay-Sachs? Assume that neither Jack nor Jill has Tay-Sachs.

Answers

Answer:

Jack parents' genotype = Both Heterozygous dominant (carrier)

Jack's genotype = could be homozygous dominant or heterozygous dominant

Jack and Jill can have a child with Tay-Sachs if both of them are heterozygous dominant for the disease.

Explanation:

Since Jack's brother died of the disease, his parents should be heterozygous dominant for the disease. Both the parents served as the carrier (Aa x Aa, assuming that allele "a" is responsible for Tay-Sachs disease) and had one affected child (Jack's bother= "aa").  

Since Jack is not affected by the disease, he could be homozygous dominant (AA) or heterozygous dominant (Aa). But, his exact genotype could not be determined by the given information.

Child of Jack and Jill could be affected with the disease only if both of them are heterozygous dominant (Jack: Aa and Jill: Aa) and serve as the carrier for the disease.

Final answer:

Jack's parents are carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene, and Jack has a 50% chance of being a carrier as well. For Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on the faulty copies of the gene.

Explanation:

The fact that Jack's parents are unaffected but his brother has Tay-Sachs indicates that they are both carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene. This means that they each have one normal copy of the gene and one faulty copy, which they passed on to Jack's brother. Jack himself has a 50% chance of being a carrier like his parents. In order for Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on their faulty copies of the gene, resulting in the child inheriting two faulty copies and developing the disease.

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What is the physiologic progression that occurs in anaphylactic shock?

Answers

Answer:

A life threatening drop in blood pressure due to vasodilation caused by rapid release of histamine as allergic response.  

Explanation:

Anaphylactic shock is one of the rapid immune response towards the entry of an allergen into the blood stream. Presence of allergen in the blood triggers the rapid release of histamine. Histamine is a vasodilator and increases the permeability of capillaries. The relation of blood vessels all over the body results in a fatal drop in blood pressure.

You have isolated a newly discovered viral strain and sequenced its genome. The genome contains 30% adenine, 40% guanine, 25% cytosine, and 5% thymine. You conclude that the virus has a single-stranded DNA genome. Based on what evidence can you make this conclusion?

Answers

Answer:

It is a single stranded DNA since adenine percentage is not equal to that of thymine and the percentage of guanine is not equal to cytosine.

Explanation:

According to Chargaff rule, the amount of adenine in a double-stranded DNA is always equal to that of thymine. This is due to the fact that adenine pairs with thymine in a double-stranded DNA. Likewise, the amount of guanine is always equal to that of cytosine in a double-stranded DNA.

The percentage of four types of bases in the genome of the virus does not follow the Chargaff rule and hence, it is a single-stranded DNA.  

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