The apical ends of intestinal cells face the intestinal channel and have long processes that facilitate the absorption of nutrients. What is the name of these processes and what cytoskeletal element forms their internal skeleton?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

microvilli, actin filaments

Explanation:

The apical ends of intestinal cells face the intestinal channel and have long processes that facilitate the absorption of nutrients. the name of these processes is microvilli and actin filaments from the cytoskeletal element forms their internal skeleton.


Related Questions

Where in the parathyroid gland is pth produced?

Answers

Final answer:

PTH is produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands and regulates blood calcium levels by influencing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and bone dynamics.

Explanation:

The parathyroid glands are responsible for the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which plays a crucial role in regulating blood calcium concentrations. PTH is produced by the chief cells located within these glands. When blood calcium levels fall below normal, PTH is secreted to increase the calcium levels by enhancing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, stimulating osteoclast activity (which releases calcium from bones), and promoting the synthesis of calcitriol, which aids in dietary calcium absorption from the digestive system.

These functions of PTH maintain homeostatic calcium levels in the body.

List two medications that are helpful in treating hypertension and describe their actions.

Answers

Answer: Diuretics and beta-blockers

Explanation:

Hypertension is a condition in which high blood pressure occurs. In this condition the pressure of the blood inside the arteries is severely elevated. The blood exerts force on the walls of the arteries.

Following are the medications which can be used for the treatment of high blood pressure.

1. Diuretics: These medicines helps to reduce the excess level of sodium and water and hence it regulates the blood pressure. It is used along with other therapies.

2. Beta-blockers: These are the medicines which help in reducing the heart rate hence, helps in lowering blood pressure.

Answer: Anti-adrenergics and Diuretics

Explanation:

Doctors do not prescribe medication until the patients's blood pressure reaches 160/100, below this the hypertension is considered as mild hypertension.

For the people who is already suffering from diabetes and kidney disease, medications will be use at 130/80.

Diuretics are commonly known as water pills. These work by helping the kidney to eliminate sodium and water out of the body. This process decreases decreases the volume of blood and the heart needs to less pump with each beat, which lowers the blood pressure of the body.

Anti-adrenergics are another class of drugs that is offered to the patients suffering from the problem of hypertension. These drugs lowers the blood pressure by limiting the action of the hormone epinephrine and norepinephrine, which relaxes the blood vessels which reduces the spped of heart's contractions.

The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is

Answers

Answer:

Oppositional growth

Explanation:

Oppsositional growth is that process by which osteoblasts add layers to the circumferential lamellae, and the growth of bone is in its width, which is because of addition of extracellular matrix at peripheries.

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli. true or false

Answers

Final answer:

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli. False. In ventilation perfusion coupling, the goal is to match airflow and blood flow for optimal gas exchange in the lungs. However, there may be variations in blood flow and ventilation.

Explanation:

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli. False. Ventilation refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs, while perfusion refers to the blood flow to the lungs. In the context of ventilation perfusion coupling, the goal is to match the airflow and blood flow to optimize gas exchange in the lungs. Ideally, blood flow would be directed towards functional alveoli, where there is adequate ventilation. However, in reality, there may be variations in blood flow and ventilation, resulting in some blood flowing past nonfunctional alveoli as well.

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Final answer:

Ventilation perfusion coupling is a crucial process that matches the flow of air and blood in our lungs. It optimizes the efficiency of oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide removal by directing more blood past well-ventilated (functional) alveoli and less past poorly ventilated (non-functional) alveoli.

Explanation:

The statement about ventilation perfusion coupling is indeed true. Ventilation perfusion coupling is a mechanism by which the body ensures efficient gas exchange in the lungs by matching ventilation and blood flow. When ventilation is sufficient, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli remains high. If ventilation is insufficient, the body constricts the pulmonary arteriole serving the affected alveolus, which redirects blood flow towards alveoli with sufficient ventilation. Meanwhile, pulmonary arterioles serving well-ventilated alveoli dilate, allowing more blood flow. This process enhances the overall efficiency of oxygen transport and carbon dioxide removal, ensuring more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.

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Scientists have conducted multiple experiments on cancer cells to determine how they reproduce. All
studies have shown the same result. Choose the correct response that explains the results
Cancer cells reproduce every second and are impossible to control
Cancer cells contain stem cells and continue to differentiate, making it difficult for the body to stop
reproducing the cancer cells
O Cancer cells lack contact inhibition; therefore, they do not stop reproducing

Answers

I’d say the last one, the cancer cells lack inhibition and the do not stop reproducing. The rest of the answers don’t really make sense. The cancer cells can be controlled with chemotherapy so the first one is definitely wrong. And I do not believe that they contain stem cells. The last one is right because the reason cells become cancerous is because their growth inhibitors are broken or switched off, so they do not know when to stop growing and it becomes a problem for the body.

Answer:

Cancer cells lack contact inhibition; therefore, they do not stop reproducing

Explanation:

In a large herd of 5468 sheep, 76 animals have yellow fat, compared with the rest of the members of the herd, which have white fat. Yellow fat is inherited as a recessive trait. This herd is assumed to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. a. What are the frequencies of the white and yellow fat alleles in this population?

Answers

Answer:

The Hardy-Weinberg equation is written as p²+q²+2pq = 1 and p + q =1

where,

p² is the frequency of homozygous dominant (BB)

q² is the frequency of homozygous recessive (bb)

2pq is the frequency of heterozygous (Bb)

p is the frequency of dominant allele (B)

q is the frequency of recessive allele (b)

As per given details, the number of homozygous recessive organisms in a population is 76.

Total population size is 5468

Thus, the frequency of homozygous recessive (q²) = [tex]\frac{76}{5468}[/tex]

⇒ q² = 0.014

⇒q = [tex]\sqrt{0.014}[/tex]

⇒q = 0.118

∴ p = 1 - 0.118

⇒p = 0.882

thus, the frequency of yellow fat allele is 0.118 and that of white fat allele is 0.882

Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis?

Answers

Answer:

Muscularis externa layer.

Explanation:

The muscularis externa layer lies adjacent to the submucosa membrane. This is the third layer of the gastro intestinal tract. The muscularis externa of the colon is thick as it carries and passes urine and feces.

Muscularis externa layer prevents the backward travelling of food. This layer is mainly responsible for the peristalsis movement of food in the gastro intestinal tract and responsible for the segmentation as well.

The muscularis externa, a layer in the alimentary canal, is responsible for both segmentation (mixing) and peristalsis (propulsion) of food through rhythmic muscle contractions, facilitating digestion and nutrient absorption.

The muscular layer of the alimentary canal, known as the "muscularis externa," is responsible for both segmentation and peristalsis. Peristalsis is the coordinated, rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in the muscularis externa that propels food through the digestive tract, while segmentation involves the mixing and churning of food to facilitate digestion and absorption.

These muscular movements are essential for moving food through the digestive system and breaking it down into smaller particles for nutrient absorption.

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Toxicology is the study of: a. The harmful effects of chemicals on biological systems. b. neurontin on animals c. none of these d. political thought in America e. possible actions of water and miscibility of chemicals

Answers

Answer:

The harmful effects of chemicals on biological systems

Explanation:

Toxicology is an interdisciplinary subject that involves chemistry, pharmacology, biology and medicine. Mathieu Orfila is known as the father of modern toxicology.

Toxicology generally deals with the study of harmful effects of poison or chemicals on the living system. Rate of exposure, age, sex and duration of dosage are some factors that can influence chemical toxicity.

Thus, the correct answer is option (a).

The primary function of the lymphatic system is

Answers

Answer:

The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells, throughout the body.

Explanation:

The peripheral nervous system is made up of

Answers

Answer:

Somatic and autonomic nervous system

Explanation:

It consists of somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system

Final answer:

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is comprised of nerves that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body, facilitating communication between the brain, limbs, and organs. It has two main subdivisions: the somatic and the autonomic systems and is further divided into sensory and motor divisions.

Explanation:

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is an essential component of the human nervous system. It comprises a network of nerves that extend from the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord, to various parts of the body. The PNS is responsible for connecting the CNS to limbs and organs, essentially serving as a communication relay back and forth between the brain and the extremities. It is made up of thick bundles of axons, known as nerves, which carry messages between the CNS and the muscles, organs, and sensory systems in the periphery of the body.

The PNS has two primary subdivisions: the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. The somatic nervous system is concerned with conscious perception and voluntary motor responses, while the autonomic nervous system controls involuntary functions such as heart rate and digestion.

The PNS is also divided into sensory and motor divisions. The sensory division is responsible for transmitting sensory information to the CNS, and the motor division is involved in transmitting motor commands from the CNS to the rest of the body.

Which of the following is true of carbon dioxide exchange? Select one: a. Carbon dioxide is produced in the mitochondria and cytoplasm of every living cell during respiration b. Carbon dioxide diffuses from cells into the blood plasma before entering erythrocytes. c. Carbonic acid is able to ionize and release protons into its environment, which has an effect of raising the pH. d. Hemoglobin helps maintain a constant pH in the blood by binding with H* ions released from bicarbonate ions.

Answers

Answer:

d. Hemoglobin helps maintain a constant pH in the blood by binding with H⁺ions released from bicarbonate ions.

Explanation:

The presence (CO₂) in in the erythrocytes lowers its pH as a result the affinity of hemoglobin decreases for oxygen. The carbon dioxide (CO₂) reacts with water to form carbonic acid in the presence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase which is present in the erythrocytes or red blood cells. The carbonic acid then changes into two ions hydrogen ion (H⁺) and bicarbonate ion (HCO₃⁻).  As a result of H⁺ ions, the pH of blood drops. Haemoglobin pick up hydrogen ions to balance the decrease in pH. Thus, haemoglobin helps in maintaining constant pH or keep pH of blood in buffer.

Explain, physiologically, why the ERV and IRV are lower during heavy exercise than they are during moderate exercise.

Answers

Answer: To meet the demand of more oxygen by the body.

Explanation: During the time of exercise the need for oxygen by the body increases. The minute ventilation of an individual will increase due to increase in the tidal volume and frequency of breathing.

The extra space is provided by the inspiratory reserve volume which acts as a reservoir of extra lung volume that can become inflated with air and as we need it.

So, Inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume decreases during heavy exercise as there is a need of more inhalation of oxygen and more exhalation of carbon dioxide as tidal volume increases and cover the space.

Final answer:

During heavy exercise, the need for increased oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide expulsion results in greater tidal volume usage and a deeper, more forceful exhalation, thus reducing ERV and IRV. Blood flow redistribution and an elevated cardiac output further limit these respiratory reserve volumes to prioritize metabolic needs over maximum lung ventilation capacity.

Explanation:

The question relates to why the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) and Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) are lower during heavy exercise compared to moderate exercise. Physiologically, during heavy exercise, there is an increased demand for oxygen and an increased production of carbon dioxide. This necessitates a higher rate of ventilation to facilitate gas exchange. As a result, the tidal volume (the volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a single breath) increases, utilizing a greater portion of the IRV. Simultaneously, to maximize the expulsion of CO2, individuals exhale more forcefully and deeply, reducing the ERV. This adjustment allows for the optimization of oxygen intake and carbon dioxide expulsion, which is crucial during periods of intense physical activity.

Another critical factor is the redistribution of blood flow during intense exercise. There is an increased blood supply to the working muscles and skin to support metabolic processes and heat dissipation, respectively. This hemodynamic adjustment further compromises the capacity for large IRV and ERV as the body prioritizes oxygen and nutrient delivery to the muscles over maximum pulmonary ventilation reserve capacities.

Lastly, the cardiovascular response to exercise, including increased heart rate and stroke volume, contributes to a heightened cardiac output. This enhanced cardiac activity supports the increased metabolic demands of heavy exercise but can limit the thoracic capacity for large expansions and contractions of the lungs, thereby decreasing the IRV and ERV.

47. Find the mismatched pair: A)Facilitated diffusion Extrusion of ions or small molecule with expense of Ar B) Uniport-A single molecule or ion passes through a carrier, regardless of direction (in or out) C) Antiport_Type of coupled transport in which one solute enters, another one exits the cell D)Symport--Type of coupled transport in which two solutes simultaneously enter or exit the cell.

Answers

Answer:

Option (A).

Explanation:

Facilitated diffusion may be defined as the process of  movement of the particles from the region of higher concentration towards the region of lower concentration with the help of specific integral transmembrane protein.

Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive diffusion and solute particle down the concentration gradient. So this process doesn't require an ATP or any other energy source.

Thus, the mismatched pair is option (A).

What is the impact on human health as we try to stay ahead of the evolutionary process?

Answers

The impact on the human health as we try to stay ahead of the evolutionary process is actually very bad. It is a fact that the humans are living much longer nowadays than ever before, with the main reasons for that being the well developed medicine and healthcare, much better standard of living, and having less riskier jobs. On the other hand, the human health, without being treated, is actually at an all time low. The immune system is much weaker than it has been, with the main reason being the isolation of the outside world and the higher level of hygiene. The allergies are becoming an ever growing problem because of this, as the immune system doesn't even recognize certain outside bodies are they an enemies or not. The constant radiation for numerous sources has caused development of numerous diseases. The old age has increased the percentage of diseases such as cancer, Alzheimer, Parkinson, or sclerosis. The less active life-style and food over saturated with fats and sugars has caused numerous health problems as well. All in all, the human health has become dependent on the pharmacy and its products, and without it it will suffer badly.

The following sentences describe some glycolysis reactions. Fill in the blanks. Note that a single red X will appear if you answer any of the blanks incorrectly. Feedback will be placed next to a blank that is incorrectly filled. Not all the terms will be placed. Some terms will be used more than once.In the first reaction of glycolysis, glucose is converted to ________. The phosphate from __________. A _______ is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate of __________ to a substrate. The product of this reaction is then to __________ fructose-6-phosphate. Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second ________ reaction, giving _________.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be

1. Glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate.

2. A hexose kinase is an enzyme.

3. Terminal phosphate of ATP to a substrate.

4. The product of this reaction is then to form isomer fructose-6-phosphate.

5. Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second phosphate ester synthesis reaction,

6. giving fructose-1,6 bisphosphate.

Explanation:

Glycolysis is a sequential breakdown of glucose into product pyruvate releasing energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. This reaction takes place in ten steps in which the first three steps are ATP consuming reactions while last steps yield ATP molecules.

Step 1: includes the breakdown of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the presence of enzyme hexose kinase which helps in the transfer of phosphate group from ATP to intermediate formed. This reaction is known as Phosphate ester synthesis.

Step 2: includes isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate which is again broken down to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase which again transfers a phosphate group from ATP. This is also a Phosphate ester synthesis reaction.

Thus, filled options are the correct answer.

The lattice or meshwork of __________ forms spongy bone.

Answers

Answer: the correct answer is Trabeculae .

The lattice or meshwork of trabeculae forms spongy bone.

Explanation:

Trabeculae of bone provide structural support to the spongy bone found at the ends of long bones.

An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that their child will have curly hair?

Answers

Answer:

I believe the correct answer is 0

Explanation:

The parents who had children had wavy hair and straight hair. With the wavyhair parent having a dominant heterozygous H gene for curly hair from the first parent and a recessive h gene from the secod parent, having children with a mating partner who has homozygous hh for straight hair meant that half of the offsprings will have heteroygous wavy hair gene while the other half will have the homozygous straight hair gene.

Further Explanation:

Let Curly hair be: HH

Let Straight hair be: hh

Parental gametes = HH(curly hair) x hh(straight hair)

These 2 parents had offsprings as represented in the Punnet square below:

 

H H

h Hh Hh

h Hh Hh

Genotypic ratio of offsprings: 4Hh

Phenotypic ratio of offsprings: 4 Wavy hair.

One of the offsprings with wavy hair went ahead and had offsprings with an individual with straight hair. It is represented in the Punnet square below:

Let Straight hair be: hh

Let wavy hair be: Hh

Parental gametes = Hh(Wavy hair) x hh(straight hair)

H h

h Hh hh

h Hh hh

Genotypic ratio of offsprings: 2Hh:2hh

Phenotypic ratio of offsprings: 2 Wavy hair: 2 straight hair

NOTE: None of the children had curly hair (HH)

The probability that the child will have curly hair (HH) = 0/4 hence the proalility is 0. None of the children were born with curly hair

The wavy hair parent had a dominant heterozygous H gene for curly hair from the first parent and a recessive h gene from the second parent. The probability that children had curly hair (HH) is 0%.

What is dominant heterozygous?

The parents who had kids had straight and wavy hair. Having children with a mating partner who has homozygous hh for straight hair meant that half of the offspring will have the heterozygous wavy hair gene and the other half will have the homozygous straight hair gene.

 

Curly hair: HH

Straight hair: hh

Gametes = HH(curly hair) x hh(straight hair)

Straight hair: hh

wavy hair be: Hh

One of the offspring with wavy hair Hh went ahead and had offspring with an individual with straight hair.

Parental gametes = Hh(Wavy hair) x hh(straight hair)

The genotypic ratio of offspring: 2Hh:2hh

Phenotypic ratio of offspring: 2 Wavy hair: 2 straight hair

The image of the cross is attached below.

Therefore, the probability that children had curly hair (HH) is 0%.

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23. What biological term is best used to explain the color of leaves changing with the decreased in ambient UV light as seasons change? a. Photo-periodism c. Growth hibernation b. Evanescence d. Photo-liberation

Answers

Answer: a. Photo-periodism

Explanation:

The relative length of the day is considered as a major factor in the development of plants, particularly in sexual reproduction. The plants were grouped considering that the flowering and fruiting occurs only when the length of the day is within certain limits so that these phases are achieved only in certain times of the year. Therefore, some species respond to long days, while others respond to short days, and still, others are capable of responding to all day lengths. The name and meaning of each group became as follows:

Short Day Plants: They are the species that bloom in smaller photoperiods than a critical maximum.

Long day plants. These are the species that bloom in larger photoperiods than a critical minimum.

Neutral day plants: They are those that bloom in a wide range of the photoperiod.

1. Where is the CFTR protein found?

in heart cells

in cells lining the lungs

in every cell in the body

in muscle cells

in skeletal cells

Answers

Answer:

CFTR protein is found in the cells lining the lungs

A culture of bacteria is fed glucose containing radioactive carbon and is then examined. During the citric acid cycle, radioactive carbon would first appear in:

Answers

Answer:

C. carbon dioxide

Explanation:

In the citric acid cycle, CO2 is released, and radioactive carbon would be released in the form of CO2 from the citric acid cycle after 3 rounds.

Final answer:

In the citric acid cycle, radioactive carbon first appears in the cells of the mesophyll tissue.

Explanation:

In the citric acid cycle, radioactive carbon would first appear in the cells of the mesophyll tissue.

The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur within the cells of living organisms. The cycle is a key process by which cells generate energy from the food they consume.

Radioactive carbon can be introduced into the cycle through the consumption of radioactive carbon-14, which is a radioisotope of carbon that is produced in the atmosphere when nitrogen-14 is bombarded with cosmic rays. This radioactive carbon-14 is then incorporated into the cells of the mesophyll tissue, where it undergoes a series of chemical reactions as part of the citric acid cycle.

The citric acid cycle begins with the breakdown of glucose molecules into pyruvate, which is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then fed into the cycle, where it is converted into citrate through a series of chemical reactions involving enzymes such as citrate synthase, aconitase, and isocitrate dehydrogenase.

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A damages axon in the PNS may be able to regenerate only if the cell body is intact. Why do you think that the cell body must be intact for regeneration to occur?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The central nervous system (CNS) does not have capacity to repair itself but, the PNS or the peripheral nervous system can repair and regenerate itself. The PNS can regenerate its damaged axon only when its cell body or cyton and its neurilemma are intact. The proximal end of the cyton has growth cones. The axon grows from the cones.    

Final answer:

The cell body or soma of a neuron is crucial for axon regeneration because it is the site of protein synthesis and energy production, which are necessary for the rebuilding of the axon and its myelin sheath. The myelin sheath allows for efficient signal transmission along the axon and requires proteins produced in the soma for its structure and function. New research involving intracellular signal peptide (ISP) shows promising results for supporting nerve regeneration.

Explanation:

The cell body of a neuron, or its soma, is the central part of the neuron that contains the nucleus. This part of the cell is critical for its survival and function. It is in the cell body where all the protein synthesis and energy production necessary for the neuron to function takes place. Somas produce the proteins that are necessary for the structure and function of the axon and its myelin sheath.

The myelin sheath, made by Schwann cells in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), is critical to the functioning of the axon. It acts as an insulator for the axon, allowing electrical signals to travel down the axon in a rapid and efficient manner. This is through a process known as saltatory conduction, where the signal jumps between gaps in the myelin called Nodes of Ranvier.

When an axon is damaged, the cell body is necessary to orchestrate the rebuilding of the myelin and the axon. If the cell body is not intact, these processes cannot occur, hence preventing regeneration. Recent scientific research has shown promise for supporting the regeneration process through a drug called intracellular signal peptide (ISP), potentially offering new avenues for nerve healing in the future.

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The highest rate of absorption in the digestive tract takes place in which of the following? The large intestines The stomach The liver The small intestines

Answers

Answer:

The small intestine.

Explanation:

Digestion may be defined as the process of breakdown of large food molecule into simpler substances with the help of enzymes and digestive juices. Digestive system includes the alimentary canal and its associated glands.

The process of complete digestion and maximum absorption occur in the small intestine. Small intestine contains numerous finger like structures called villi, these villi increases the surface area that helps in the food absorption.

Thus, the correct answer is option (4).

Answer:

liver

Explanation:

Why do children tend to have high-pitched voices, and why do males typically have lower voices than females do?

Answers

Answer:

Children tend to have high pitched voice because the larynx is small and thin.

Males have lower voices because they have larger and thicker larynx.

Explanation:

Its the larynx that makes noise, so known as voice box. Changes in the length and thickness of larynx cause voice modulation. This modulation helps male getting a deeper voice.

The larynx of children are small and thin which helps to a high pitched voice and during the time of puberty, larynx starts growing and thickening.This makes the voice low pitched and deep.

Thus, its the thickening and thinning of larynx that helps in voice modulation.

Which of the following best describes the hypothalamus?

A. visceral control center of the body
B. somatic motor control center
C. gateway to the cerebellum
D. relay station for the special senses

Answers

Answer: A. visceral control center of the body

Explanation:

The hypothalamus corresponds to a small area in the Central Nervous System responsible for vital phenomena within the animal organism. Due to its importance, evolutionarily, it was protected by its location in the central part of the brain and protected by the skullcap. It commands the Endocrinological system. It exerts its direct action on the pituitary and indirect on other glands such as adrenal, gonads, thyroid, mammary and even on various organic tissues (muscle, bone, viscera. It acts on HYPOPHYSIS and interferes with the regulation of metabolism in general. It indirect influence: sleep/wake, hunger, blood pressure, the regulation of body heat production and loss, among others.

Final answer:

The hypothalamus is the visceral control center of the body. It is involved in the release of hormones, regulation of body temperature, and maintaining daily physiological cycles.

Explanation:

The hypothalamus is best described as the visceral control center of the body (option A). It is a small region of the brain that plays a crucial role in many vital functions, including releasing hormones, regulating body temperature, and maintaining daily physiological cycles. It connects the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, allowing it to control various body functions. It's not directly involved in somatic motor control, it's not referred to as the gateway to the cerebellum, nor does it serve as the relay station for the special senses.

The hypothalamus is the visceral control center of the body and is located at the base of the brain. It helps regulate various functions in the body such as body temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormone release. For example, it controls the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, which affects growth, reproduction, and stress response.

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The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports phosphate into the cell even when the concentration of phosphate outside the cell is much lower than the cytoplasmic phosphate concentration. Phosphate import depends on a pH gradient across the membranemore acidic outside the cell than inside the cell. In this bacterial cell, phosphate transport is an example of ________.

Answers

Answer:

Co-transport.

Explanation:

Co-transport may be defined as the process of transport of two molecules across the membrane without the use of energy. Two types of co transport are symport and antiport.

The bacteria transport system import phosphate into the cell. The import of the phosphate depends on pH. Since, the import of phosphate depends on pH and does not depend on the ATPase activity. Here, the phosphate molecules can simultaneously cross the membranes.

Thus, the answer is co-transport.

Final answer:

In bacteria, the phosphate transport system that functions despite a lower external phosphate concentration and relies on a pH gradient is an example of active transport, which uses energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.

Explanation:

The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports phosphate into the cell even when the concentration of phosphate outside the cell is much lower than the cytoplasmic phosphate concentration. When phosphate import depends on a pH gradient across the membrane—more acidic outside the cell than inside the cell—this process is an example of active transport.

Active transport requires energy to move substances across a membrane, typically against their concentration gradient. Examples of active transport mechanisms include the sodium-potassium pump, which exchanges sodium for potassium ions against their respective concentration gradients using ATP. Similarly, phosphate is transported into bacterial cells against its gradient, facilitated by a pH difference, and this process too may utilize energy in the form of ATP or other couplings with primary active transport mechanisms.

In some cases, substances are modified during the import process as seen in group translocation, which also contributes to the energy-neutral import of substances like sugars via the phosphotransferase system. Nonetheless, the essential characteristic of active transport is the use of energy to accomplish the movement of substances across cell membranes.

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While Sandy was engaging in sexual activity with her significant other, she noticed rhythmic muscle contractions and a period of time in which she felt that immense tension was released. Sandy likely just experienced the _____, which is a component of the sexual response cycle.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is orgasm.

Explanation:

Sexual response cycle is a 4 stage process of responses to sexual stimulation. The four stages are -the very first stage is the excitement phase, following by the plateau phase, the third stage is the orgasmic phase and in the last resolution phase.

During orgasm phase muscle contraction occurs in the lower pelvic muscles. Women experience vaginal contractions and uterine contraction. Orgasms are also included muscular spasms in the body and generally feels like releasing immense tension.

Thus, the correct answer is orgasm.

What are sleep patterns?

Answers

Different patterns you go to sleep

What are the components of the integumentary system?

Skin, hair, nails, and glands
Skin, cardiac muscles, joints, and glands
Joints, bones, skeletal muscles, and skin
Hair, blood cells, smooth muscles, and joints

Answers

Skin, Hair, nails, and glands.

The integumentary system has the components of the
Epidermis, The epidermis is the most superficial layer of the skin that covers almost the entire body surface.

Hair.

Nails.

and the Sudoriferous Glands, Sebaceous Glands, and Ceruminous Glands.

Answer: Skin, hair, nails, and glands

Explanation:

The integumentary system is an organ system. It consists of skin, hair, feathers, scales, hooves, exocrine glands and nails. These structures provides the external protection to the body from different types of damage like loss of water, injury and invasion of pathogens.  

The skin is a thick outer cover of the entire body. It protects the body from incident UV rays, chemicals, physical damage and diseases.

The nails and hair are the extensions from the skin. They are composed of hard keratin material. They also provide protection against unfavorable external environmental conditions.

The exogenous glands are the glands which are present over the superficial tissues. These produce secretions which protects the entry of microbes inside the body.

which statements about allosteric enzymes are true? exhibit cooperativity in substrate binding (homoallostery) exhibit regulation of their activity by other, effector molecules (heteroallostery) there is no difference in the binding curve for a cooperative binding versus noncooperative binding enzyme are frequently multisubunit proteins, with multiple active sites

Answers

Final answer:

Allosteric enzymes, often multisubunit proteins, can exhibit homoallostery and heteroallostery. There is, however, a difference in the binding curve for a cooperative binding versus a noncooperative binding enzyme.

Explanation:

Allosteric enzymes are indeed often multisubunit proteins that have multiple active sites. They can exhibit homoallostery, where they show cooperativity in substrate binding. This means that the binding of one substrate molecule to one active site increases the affinity of the rest of the active sites for the same substrate.

Allosteric enzymes also exhibit heteroallostery, meaning, their activity can be regulated by other effector molecules binding to a site other than the active site. Effectors can be either inhibitors or activators that decrease or increase the enzyme's activity respectively.

However, it's not accurate to say there is no difference in the binding curve for a cooperative binding versus noncooperative binding enzyme. The binding curve for allosteric enzymes (cooperative binding) is sigmoidal, while for non-allosteric enzymes (noncooperative binding), it is hyperbolic.

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Final answer:

Allosteric enzymes exhibit cooperativity in substrate binding and can be regulated by effector molecules. They typically show different binding curves for cooperative versus noncooperative binding. These enzymes are often multisubunit proteins, with multiple active sites that can be influenced by effector molecules.

Explanation:

The statements about allosteric enzymes given by the student consist of several true points. Allosteric enzymes do indeed exhibit cooperativity in substrate binding (also known as homoallostery), which means that the binding of a substrate molecule to one active site on the enzyme can enhance the binding of more substrate molecules to other active sites. Furthermore, allosteric enzymes can be regulated by effector molecules (referred to as heteroallostery), which can either inhibit or activate the enzyme.

However, there is a distinction in the binding curve for allosteric enzymes with cooperative versus noncooperative binding; cooperative binding often results in a sigmoidal (or S-shaped) enzyme kinetics curve, whilst noncooperative binding usually produces a hyperbolic curve. Also, allosteric enzymes are often multisubunit proteins, meaning they are composed of more than one polypeptide chain and possess multiple active sites. These active sites can be influenced by the binding of effector molecules, leading to changes in the enzyme's activity.

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Got the Cold ?It may be because of your genetic background?

Answers

This is truuuuuuuuuuuue because relatives before you could have possibly been less immune to the cold virus or other viruses which could be why you are more prone to sickness more
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