Answer:
False
Explanation:
The Given statement of False. As The "Bateman gradient" states that males have more variable reproductive success than do females, since males can mate with many females while females are limited by the number of eggs they produce. This is false statement. This does not explain why the male Idaho ground squirrel follows his mate everywhere.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection? a. competition for food and space b. variation among species c. inheritance of acquired characteristics d. survival and reproduction
Answer: c. inheritance of acquired characteristics.
Explanation:
The inheritance of acquired characteristics is a part of Lamarck's theory of evolution. He states that organisms can pass through their genes characteristics that they have acquired in their lifetime to their offspring.
For example, if a giraffe is born with a short neck, and it lenghtens after years of trying to reach the higher leaves of a tree, Lamarck stated that its calves (its babies) would be born with a long neck.
Darwin, publisher of the first Natural Selection theory, said that, by a slight random mutation of the genes, the giraffe with the longer neck would already be born with the long neck. It would be more successful when finding leaves to eat, and therefore produce more offspring with its DNA than the ones with a short neck. As a result, the number of long necked giraffes would grow, and eventually the short necked ones would go extinct.
Inheritance of acquired characteristics ( C ) is not a component of the Theory of Evolution by Natural selection
Evolution by Natural selection involves competition for food and habitat within an ecosystem, the variation seen among species are existent due the factors of natural selection which makes some species become more adaptive to the ecosystem than others.
The ability to reproduce and survive within an ecosystem is a major factor determined the natural selection as well. While inheritance of acquired characteristics is part of Lamarck's theory of evolution which states that parents can pass on acquired characteristics to offspring and this disputes the theory of evolution by Natural selection.
Hence we can conclude that Inheritance of acquired characteristics is not a component of the Theory of Evolution by Natural selection.
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What is the role of mRNA during translation? A. It links the correct amino acids together. B. It provides the code for the protein. C. It breaks apart the tRNA molecules. D. It translates from amino acids to nucleic acids.
Answer:
B. It provides the code for the protein
Explanation:
Remember that mRNA stands for Messenger RNA.
The role of mRNA during translation is it provides the code for the protein. (Option B).
What happens during translation?During translation, the role of mRNA (messenger RNA) is to provide the genetic code that determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
The genetic code is carried in the form of codons, which are three-nucleotide sequences on the mRNA molecule. Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid or a termination signal.
The ribosomes, the molecular machines responsible for protein synthesis, read the mRNA sequence and use it as a template to assemble the correct sequence of amino acids in the growing polypeptide chain.
This process continues until a stop codon is reached, signaling the termination of protein synthesis.
So option B is the correct answer.
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1. An amoeba with 26% salt concentration is placed in a beaker of water with 55% salt concentration. What will happen to the amoeba
2. An animal cell with a 35% glucose solution is placed in distilled water. What will happen to the cell?
Answer:
it will dey in the whom
Explanation:
Final answer:
An amoeba with lower salt concentration placed in a higher salt concentration solution will lose water and shrink (crenate), while an animal cell placed in distilled water will gain water and potentially burst (hemolyze).
Explanation:
The questions relate to the principle of osmosis, which is the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. When an amoeba with a 26% salt concentration is placed in a 55% salt concentration solution, water will move out of the amoeba into the surrounding solution, causing the amoeba to shrink, a process known as crenation.
In the second case, if an animal cell with a 35% glucose solution is placed in distilled water, which is a hypotonic solution (meaning it has a lower concentration of solutes than the cell's internal environment), water will enter the cell. This will cause the cell to swell and potentially burst in a process called hemolysis.
Describing the relative concentrations of solutes in and out of cells helps us predict the direction of osmosis. Cells in a hypotonic solution typically swell due to the influx of water, whereas cells in a hypertonic solution shrink due to the efflux of water.
The respiratory system is best described as The system which removes wastes from cells and exhales them from the body. The system which delivers oxygen directly to cells and takes away carbon dioxide. The system which provides the ability to burn all nutrients in the cells. The system which delivers oxygen to the bloodstream and takes away carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Option (4).
Explanation:
Respiratory system may be defined as the system involves in the exchange of gases between the tissue, lungs and the outside environment. The respiratory system involves nose, mouth, larynx, trachea, lungs, brochi, alevoli and alveolar ducts.
The oxygen is inhaled in the body and carbon dioxide is exhaled out from the body. The oxygen is transferred into the blood stream by binding of oxygen with hemoglobin. The oxygen is diffused in to body due to the partial pressure difference of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
Unattached earlobes are dominant to attached earlobes. Cleft chin is dominant to no cleft. Parents that are heterozygous for both traits are crossed. Determine the ratios of offspring with: Unattached earlobes and cleft chin : Unattached earlobes and no cleft : Attached earlobes and cleft chin : Attached earlobes and no cleft :
Answer:
Unattached earlobes and cleft chin : 9
Unattached earlobes and no cleft : 3
Attached earlobes and cleft chin : 3
Attached earlobes and no cleft :1
Explanation:
Given -
Unattached earlobes are dominant to attached earlobes
Let the allele for attached ear lobe be represented by "l" and and unattached ear lobe be represented by "L"
Cleft chin is dominant to no cleft.
Let the allele for cleft chin be represented by "C" and no cleft chin be represented by "c"
Genotype of heterozygous parents
LlCc X LlCc
LC Lc lC lc
LC LLCC LlCc LlCC LlCc
Lc LLCc LLcc LlCc Llcc
lC LlCC LlCc llCC llCc
lc LlCc Llcc llCc llcc
LLCC - 1
LlCc – 5
LlCC-2
LLCc – 1
LLcc-1
Llcc -2
llCC-3
llcc-1
Unattached earlobes and cleft chin : 9
Unattached earlobes and no cleft : 3
Attached earlobes and cleft chin : 3
Attached earlobes and no cleft :1
Answer:
This should help.
Explanation:
Full color (D) in domestic cats is dominant over dilute color (d). Out of 325 cats observed,194 have full color and 131 have dilute color. If these cats are in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium for the dilution locus, calculate the frequency of the d allele. Use three decimal places for your answer.
Answer:
frequency of d allele = 0.635
Explanation:
If p = frequency of dominant allele and q= frequency of recessive allele
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
p + q =1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where p² = frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
q²= frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
and 2pq= frequency of heterozygous genotype
Here,
q² = d² = 131/325= 0.403
so q= d= √0.40 = 0.6348 = 0.635
Hence frequency of d allele = 0.635
Final answer:
The frequency of the recessive allele (d) in a population of cats that is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is calculated using the number of cats with dilute color. Out of 325 cats, 131 have dilute color, which are homozygous recessive (dd). Using this number, the frequency of the d allele is found to be approximately 0.635.
Explanation:
To calculate the frequency of the d allele in a population of cats in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, we can use the observed phenotypes to infer genotypic frequencies. In Hardy–Weinberg, the frequency of the genotypes should be p2 for DD, 2pq for Dd, and q2 for dd, where p is the frequency of the dominant allele (D) and q is the frequency of the recessive allele (d).
Since we have 194 cats with full color and 131 with dilute color, we know that 131 cats are homozygous recessive (dd). The frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (q2) can be calculated as 131/325. To find the frequency of the recessive allele (q), we take the square root of q2.
Calculations:
Calculate q2: q2 = 131/325 = 0.403Calculate q: q = √(0.403) ≈ 0.635Using three decimal places, the frequency of the d allele (q) is approximately 0.635.
In terms of your heartbeat, digestion, and glandular functioning, your body is pretty much a well-oiled machine that works even when you are asleep. This is possible due to your __________ nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for control and regulation of unconscious body functions. It is constantly working even if we don't realize it, unlike the somatic nervous system, which is associated to voluntary actions such as movement via skeletal muscles.
Proteins can be visualized in many ways, each of which highlights a specific aspect of the protein. drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. helpreset
For the given sentences, the appropriate terms to be included are as follows :
Space-filling modelSimplified modelRibbon modelSimple ShapeWireframe modelThe 3D representation of a protein is represented by a space filling model, in which the atoms are shown as spheres.
The ribbon model, which is utilized for 3D presentation and uses distinct colour codes for different protein components, aids in understanding the fundamental components of protein structure.
A 3D image created using computer graphics is a wireframe model. When we simply want to investigate the functions of a protein and not its structure, a basic shape diagram is sufficient.
When examining a protein's structure and functions, a simplified diagram is employed.
Various models are suited in various setting and therefore, the terms that best fit in the statement are space-filling model, simplified model, ribbon model, simple shape model, wireframe model respectively.
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A certain amount of fiber in foods contributes to the health of the digestive system. However, eating too much fiber leads to nutrient losses. The characteristic of diet planning illustrated by this statement is called _____.
Answer:
moderation
Explanation:
According to my research on various studies conducted by nutritionists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the characteristic of diet planning illustrated by this statement is called moderation. This is the act of controlling how much of a substance is consumed in order to maximize or minimize it's effects.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
_____ recognized the vital role of the internal environment and suggested that the objective of mechanisms within the body is to preserve the constant conditions of the internal environment.A) Carolus LinnaeusB) Claude BernardC) Schwann and SchleidenD) Robert Hook
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B.
Explanation:
Claude Bernard was a French physiologist who is known for his concept of homeostasis.
He made many discoveries in the field of medicine and provided a new concept called Milieu intérieur which was associated with the stability of the internal environment of the organisms which was later termed "Homeostasis" by Walter Bradford Cannon.
He explained the importance of the "internal environment" of the organism and showed that the living organism does not totally rely on the external environment.
Thus, option- B is the correct answer.
The following five questions are related to the following experiment.
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to "drive" using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette (without nicotine). You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. Your hypothesis is that nicotine will increase the likelihood of being involved in a collision.
1.) In this study, the independent variable is:
2.) In this study, the dependent variable is:
3.) In this study, the participants who smoke a cigarette without nicotine comprise the _____________________ group.
4.) In this study, the participants who smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) comprise the ______________________ group.
5.) A confounding variable related to this experiment could be:
Answer:
1) The independent variable is nicotine consumption.
2) The dependent variable is 'Involvement in a collision'. In this case the values the variable could take would be binary. For example 'were involved in a collision' and 'weren't involved in a collision'.
3) In this study, the participants who smoke a cigarette without nicotine comprise the __control___________________ group.
4.) In this study, the participants who smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) comprise the ___experimental___________________ group.
5.) A confounding variable related to this experiment could be:
Confounding variables are any other variable that also has an effect on your dependent variable. They are like extra independent variables that are having a hidden effect on your dependent variables.
In this case, there are many examples of confounding variables that could have an effect on the dependent variable:
For example:
Subject's eyesight
Subject's age
Subjects's driving experience,
and so on
Boreal owls range over a much larger area than do other owls of similar size. The reason for this behavior is probably that the small mammals on which owls feed are especially scarce in the forests where boreal owls live, and the relative scarcity of prey requires the owls to range more extensively to find sufficient food.
Which of the following ,if true, most helps to confirm the explanation above?(A) Some boreal owls range over an area eight times larger than the area over which any other owl of similar size ranges.(B) Boreal owls range over larger areas in regions where food of the sort eaten by small mammals is sparse than they do in regions where such food is abundant(C) After their young hatch, boreal owls must hunt more often than before in order to feed both themselves and their newly hatched young.(D) Sometimes individual boreal owls hunt near a single location for many weeks at a time and do not range rather than a few hundred yards.(E) The boreal owl requires less food, relative to its weight, than is required by members of other owl species.
Answer:
(B) Boreal owls range over larger areas in regions where food of the sort eaten by small mammals is sparse than they do in regions where such food is abundant
Explanation:
Living beings exhibit various changes in the behavior and niche to make themselves better fitted to the conditions of their habitats.
Boreal owls feed on the other smaller mammals such as mice and shrews. These organisms that serve as their prey are relatively less abundant in the habitat. To ensure the food availability, the boreal owls occupy a larger area so that they can catch their less abundant food organisms.
In the habitats where the prey species of boreal owls are present in a larger number, these owls occupy smaller regions since the food organisms are easily available.
"The correct answer is (B) Boreal owls range over larger areas in regions where food of the sort eaten by small mammals is sparse than they do in regions where such food is abundant.
This answer choice most helps to confirm the explanation provided in the question because it directly supports the hypothesis that boreal owls range over a larger area due to the scarcity of their prey. If boreal owls are observed to increase their hunting range in areas where the food supply for small mammals (their prey) is low, it suggests a causal relationship between prey scarcity and the owls' ranging behavior. This observation would strengthen the argument that the relative scarcity of prey is indeed the reason why boreal owls cover a larger area compared to other owls of similar size.
Let's consider the other options:
(A) Some boreal owls range over an area eight times larger than the area over which any other owl of similar size ranges. - While this statement indicates that boreal owls range over a larger area, it does not provide information about the relationship between prey scarcity and ranging behavior.
(C) After their young hatch, boreal owls must hunt more often than before in order to feed both themselves and their newly hatched young. - This statement explains a change in hunting frequency due to the needs of their offspring, but it does not specifically link this behavior to the scarcity of prey.
(D) Sometimes individual boreal owls hunt near a single location for many weeks at a time and do not range rather than a few hundred yards. - This statement actually contradicts the explanation by suggesting that boreal owls sometimes do not range extensively, which would weaken the argument.
(E) The boreal owl requires less food, relative to its weight, than is required by members of other owl species. - This statement suggests that boreal owls might need less food, which could imply that they do not need to range as far. It does not support the explanation that they range more extensively due to prey scarcity.
Therefore, option (B) is the most supportive evidence for the explanation given for the ranging behavior of boreal owls."
What are the strengths and limitations of this model?
Answer:
strengths are it's simple and easily understood and limitations is that it cant maintain simplicity if it's more descriptive
Answer:The model clearly shows how digestion occurs in the cell and the organelles involved in the process. However, the model doesn’t show the other organelles in the cell or the environment in which the cell lives.
Explanation:i did the answer
Alon claimed that a tincture of a local herb was effective in lowering anxiety and was planning to invest in the product. As evidence of his claim, Alon, who had anxiety over his financial situation, said that he felt much better after the treatment, was much more relaxed, and no longer worried about his finances. What methodological flaws BEST characterizes Alon's investigation?
Answer:
Not using control cases and testing his hypothesis only on one pacient, himself. Not creating or using a method that allowed him to measure the results.
Explanation:
During the investigation Alon had a few methodological flaws. First of all, he based a hypothesis over only one case, his own. He should have tested the product on different pacients under similar circumstances, the more the merrier. Moreover, it is not recommended that the investigator tests the hypothesis on himself, since he can lose perspective.
Second of all, he did not use control cases. This means he should have given placebo pills (pills with no medical effect at all) to a group of pacients without them knowing. Doing this helps eliminating the psicologycal factor of the equation, since pacients have proven to get better, in some cases, just because they thought the medicine would heal them, and not because of the drug itself.
Also, he came to a conclusion based on how anxious and worried he felt after the treatment, but expresses the results with words such as "much more". In this case he should have created and/or used a method to measure the change in anxiety and how much the pacient worried. For example, before starting the test he could have rated his anxiety level from 1 to 10, and then, done the same thing during and after the treatment was over. By doing this he creates data that can be numerically processed and makes the human subjectivity factor smaller.
_______ labs, are suitable for work involving agents not known to cause disease in adult humans. This lab presents minimal potential hazard to lab personnel and the environment.
Answer:
Biosafety level 1 labs.
Explanation:
Biosafety level labs are used for the the isolation of the harmful antigens nder the required set of conditions. Different types of biosafety level labs are Biosafety level 1, Biosafety level 2 and Biosafety level 3.
The Biosafety level 1 labs (BSL 1) labs are used for the well characterization agents that are not able to cause disease in humans. The lab prevent the individual from the potential hazard and also prevent the environment. The special equipments are used in the BSL1.
Thus, the answer is biosafety level 1 labs.
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed an experiment to narrow down what type of molecule the transforming factor is. They added enzymes to the heat-killed S strain to target different types of molecules in each test. If they had then injected the different mixtures into mice, what would the results have been?
Answer:
Different from the one is expected
Explanation:
Even mice are mammals like us, but they have different characteristics, so in this way, they the codification and the effects of the molecule, in mice will be different as in humankind. The enzymes could be different in these species, or also the codification proteins.
In 1944, Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed experiments treating the heat-killed S strain with different enzymes to identify the transforming principle. They found that only when DNA was destroyed did the R strain not transform, indicating that DNA was the genetic material responsible for hereditary traits.
Explanation:Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty's Transforming Principle Experiment
In 1944, Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty sought to further understand the nature of Griffith's transforming principle. They hypothesized that the transforming factor responsible for endowing bacteria with new properties was either protein, RNA, or DNA. To test this, they treated the heat-killed S strain with enzymes that would degrade each type of molecule separately and observed the subsequent transformation of the R strain of bacteria.
They discovered that when DNA was degraded by the enzyme, the ability of the extract to transform the R strain was lost. The remaining enzymes which targeted proteins and RNA did not inhibit transformation, thus indicating that DNA is the transforming principle. If they had injected these different mixtures into mice, it is expected that only the mixtures where DNA was not destroyed would result in the transformation of the R strain into the virulent S strain, inherently proving that DNA is the genetic material responsible for this transformation.
Seeds that desiccate and become quiescent are known as ________ seed while those that hydrated at the time of seed shed and are unable to withstand desiccation are known as ______________ seed. quilzewt
Answer:
orthodox; unorthodox
Explanation:
Orthodox seeds are the seeds which are long-lived and can be successfully dried to the moisture contents as low as 5% without the injury and are able to tolerate the freezing. They are therefore, also called as the desiccation tolerant seeds.
On the other hand, unorthodox seeds are short-lived and thus, cannot be dried to the moisture content which is below 20-30% without the injury and are also unable to tolerate the freezing. They are therefore, also called as desiccation sensitive seeds. The seeds are very difficult to be stored and also the ex-situ conservation of them is problematic.
The chances of a species going extinct are increased when its geographic range is _____________, its local population size is ______________, and its habitat tolerance is _______________.
Answer:
The correct answers are - "restricted", "small" and "narrow" in the order of blanks.
Explanation:
Extinct animals or species are the species that are no longer present on the earth or in other words no longer living. It includes all different types and times of animals and species such as gigantic prehistoric species like dinosaurs and mammoth or very modern animals or species like Dodo.
The chances of being extinct can be increased by all different reasons and conditions, the restricted geological range is one of them here geological range refers to the geological area or boundary for a spatial species that it does not occur outside of this boundary.
Another condition is a smaller local population size which decreases the probability of survival of a particular species. Habitat tolerance is another essential condition which describes the tolerance the conditions of a particular area are tolerable for a species or not.
Thus, the correct answers are - "restricted", "small" and "narrow" in the order of blanks.
The parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the facial bones is often modified so that there is less angulation of the facial bones. For this modification, the orbitomeatal line is adjusted to _____ degrees.
a) 30 degrees
b) 37 degrees
c) 55 degrees
d) 60 degrees
Answer:
c) 55 degrees
Explanation:
This inclination is also done so there is less inclination and extension of the neck since the patient ends up with the OML (orbitomeatal line) more perpendicular to the IR plane.
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________. ANSWER : - is more durable than all other epithelia -aids in digestionlines most of the respiratory tract -is found in some of the larger glands
The study of the cell is called cell biology. There are two types of cells on the basis of the number and these are unicellular and multicellular.
The correct answer is “lines most of the respiratory tract”.
What is epithelium?The epithelium is a type of body tissue that forms the covering on all internal and external surfaces of your body, lines body cavities and hollow organs, and is the major tissue in glandsRespiratory epithelium is characterized by ciliated pseudostratified epithelium containing goblet cells.
The goblet cells secrete mucous which helps trap pathogens in the respiratory tract. The wave motion of the cilia help moved the trapped pathogens out of the respiratory tract to be coughed out or swallowed.
Hence, the correct answer is the respiratory tract.
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A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?
A) The pollen grains will be pure red.
B) The pollen grains will be pure blue.
C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors.
E) Insofar as the pollen grains are independent of the plant that produced them, they will not absorb either stain.2
Answer:
A) The pollen grains will be pure red.
Explanation:
Plants have alternation of generations, this means that there are two different stages in their life-cycle: a sexual haploid (n) phase and an asexual diploid phase (2n). These phases occur in different individuals, so there is an haploid plant called gametophyte that carries gametes and after fecundation, it will rise a diploid sporophyte (asexual).
In seed plants, the sporophyte is the plant that we normally see, and the gametophyte is reduced into an organ of the sporophyte. The male gametophyte is the pollen that is produced in the sporangium in anthers (parts of sporophyte). When a pollen grain fecundes a female gametophyte (egg), it will produce a diploid embryo or new sporophyte.
Therefore, if the researcher exposes pollen to both stains, these grain will stain red, because red stain identifies gametophyte tissue.
Pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors after being exposed to two stains that differentiate sporophyte tissue (blue) and gametophyte tissue (red).
C is correct
Explanation:When a researcher exposes pollen grains to two different stains where one stains sporophyte tissue blue and the other stains gametophyte tissue red, and then rinses away the excess stain, the observed outcome should be that the pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
This is because pollen grains are part of the gametophyte generation of the plant lifecycle, thus the interior containing the generative cell which is responsible for the next generation of gametes will stain red. However, pollen grains are also contained within the larger sporophyte structure of the seed plant, where the surrounding tissues are part of the sporophyte generation and will thus stain blue.
Which statement is true of pH buffers? (a) They consist of strong acids and strong bases. (b) They keep the pH of the blood constant. (c) They consist of weak acids and weak bases. Both (a) and (b). Both (b) and (c).
Answer: Both (b) and (c).
Explanation: A buffer solution is a solution that prevents changes in pH. These solutions are composed of a weak acid and its conjugated base, for example CH3COOH (acetic acid) and CH3COO− (acetate ion), or a weak base and its conjugated acid, for example NH 3 (Ammonia) and NH4+ (ammonium ion). Buffer solutions are very important in biological systems since they can mantain the right pH in blood or inside the cell, so they can function correctly.
During gamete formation, each allele of a pair for a gene moves to separate gametes. Which principle is indicative of this statement?
A.
The principle of independent assortment
B.
The principle of segregation
C.
The principle of unit characters
Answer:
A
Explanation:
"The principle of independent assortment" is the one principle among the following choices given in the question that is indicative of this statement. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is the first option. I hope that the answer has actually come to your great help.
Need help please!
Mars was once similar to Earth in that
A. it had only one moon.
B. liquid water flowed on its surface.
C. it showed evidence of plate tectonics.
D. its atmosphere had a thin layer of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
B. Liquid water flowed on its surface
Answer:
B. Liquid water flowed on its surface.
Explanation:
We see evidence nowadays that Mars once had flowing water on its outer crust/surface. But due to temperature and different climate changes, the water changed into ice, and some of this water evaporated to space. Hope this helps!
Knowing what we know about the link between genetics, environment and intelligence, what would be your expectations if you were a teacher and you had a pair of monozygotic twins in your classroom
Answer:
I would expect them to perform similar.
Explanation:
Studies suggest that intelligence has a genetic component and can, in part, be passed from parent to child - but not only that. There are outer components that contribute to the formation of intelligent individuals. Better nutrition and more access to education would be possible explanations for the progressive increase in intelligence test scores over time.
Homozygous twins are those that are mainly characterized by similarity between individuals. These twins are formed from the same zygote, ie after the fertilization process. Because of this characteristic, they have the same genetic heritage and are therefore considered identical.
As the homozygous twins in their classroom have the same genetic heritage and attend the same environment, we can conclude that their intelligence is influenced by the same factors. For this reason, a teacher who taught these two brothers might have expectations that they would perform similarly in the classroom.
Monozygotic twins' intelligence is influenced by both genetics and environment.
Explanation:There is evidence that both genetics and environment play a role in intelligence. When it comes to monozygotic twins (twins that share 100% of their genetic material), their intelligence is influenced by both their shared genetics and their shared environment. Twins raised together in the same home tend to have more similar IQs than twins raised in different homes. This suggests that the nurturing environment they share has an impact on their intelligence.
Your friend Melissa has suffered from diabetes for her entire life. She regularly tests her blood to make sure her sugar levels are not too high or low. Which gland in her endocrine system is responsible for regulating her blood sugar?
Answer:
Pancreas
Explanation:
The pancreas manufactures by the islets that manufactures glucagon, is in charge of produce insuline that is responsible for synthesizing glucose
Some orchids grow high on trees so that they can get enough light for photosynthesis. The trees are unaffected by the presence of the orchids. The relationship between the orchids and the trees is an example of __________.
Answer: Commensalism (Symbiotic relationship)
Explanation:
Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship in which one species gets benefits while the other species remain unaffected.
Orchids are epiphytes which grows on the inner branches of trees of rainforest that helps in taking nutrients directly from the air around them and sometimes from the decaying organic matter of their host tree. Epiphytic orchids stores water in their stems and compensate in dry periods. Trees having rough barks that holds humus and water in it's crack supports orchids better than other trees with smooth barks.
A defect in the absorption of certain nutrients in the small intestine has been linked to an abnormally-delayed initiation of differentiation. If the levels of HER2, PTEN, and Akt protein can be estimated accurately, what is the earliest point in development at which the defect could be evaluated?
The earliest point to evaluate the defect is during the 6th to 8th week of embryonic development, when small intestinal differentiation normally begins.
The defect in nutrient absorption related to delayed differentiation could be evaluated during early embryonic development, particularly during the formation of the small intestine. The small intestine arises from the endoderm around the 4th to 5th week of human embryogenesis.
HER2, PTEN, and Akt are key regulators in cellular proliferation, survival, and differentiation, often influencing the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, which controls various developmental processes, including cell growth and differentiation.
So, monitoring levels of these proteins around the time when the small intestinal epithelium begins to differentiate—around the 6th to 8th week—could provide an indication of any delays in initiation of differentiation.
Describe how water is important to plants in terms of hydrolysis and dehydration
Water is crucial for plants as it is involved in dehydration synthesis, where it is a byproduct, and hydrolysis, where it breaks bonds between molecules.
Dehydration synthesis involves the formation of new bonds between molecules and requires energy, creating water as a byproduct. Conversely, hydrolysis reactions use water to break bonds between molecules, releasing energy in the process.
During photosynthesis, water molecules are split in a process known as photolysis. This step is critical as it generates the hydrogen necessary for the synthesis of glucose, which plants use as an energy source. Meanwhile, the oxygen produced during photolysis is released into the atmosphere, contributing to the oxygen we breathe.
Moreover, water is essential in maintaining plant turgor, which gives the plant structure and enables growth. Water also serves as a medium for transporting vital minerals and nutrients from the roots throughout the plant, further demonstrating its key role in plant physiology. Lastly, through the process of transpiration, excess water vapor is released, which not only aids in nutrient transport but also helps to regulate temperature within the plant.
Researchers compared similar proteins from related organisms in different habitats. They found
that the proteins from organisms living in harsh environments had a greater number of cysteine
amino acids than did proteins from organisms not living in harsh environments. The structure of
cysteine is shown. Bonds can form between the sulfur atom of different cysteine amino acids (S-S bonds)
Which of the following best describes the effect of a greater number of cysteine amino acids on the
stability of the proteins?
Answer:
The change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of protein.
Explanation:
Disulfide bond:
This is the bond in which sulfur of one amino acid forms a covalent bond with the sulfur of another amino acid.
Proteins contain normally two amino acids which have sulfur in their structure these are Methionine and cysteine
Disulfide bridges formation:
The disulfide bridges are formed by the oxidation of cysteine with the sulfhydryl groups. These bridges are important in the stabilization of the protein tertiary structure. These disulfide bridges are also responsible for bringing the hydrogen bonds closer in two parts of a chain.
Best Choice:
The change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of a protein.