Answer:
C. the genes for these two characters were on different chromosomes
Explanation:
Mendel conducted several experiments with peas to demonstrate the mechanisms of heredity. He decided to use peas because they self-fertilize, have a short life cycle, are easily grown and produce large numbers of offspring. Peas, in addition to the advantages already mentioned, have simple characteristics to observe, such as the color and shape of the seed. Mendel analyzed seven of these characteristics that had no intermediates: seed texture, seed color, seed coat color, pod shape, pod color, flower position, and plant height.
Through his study, Mendel concluded that the characters "seed color" and "seed shape" showed an independent variety. This is because the genes related to these two traits are distant from each other in the chromosome and therefore have no dependence between them.
At what point in the citric acid cycle do the methyl carbon from acetyl-CoA and the carbonyl carbon from oxaloacetate become chemically equivalent? Please reference specific steps in the citric acid cycle and draw structures of the intermediate in which the carbons are equivalent and the preceding molecule – labeling the inequivalent carbons.
Answer: at the formation of CITRATE
Explanation: details of the answer is in the attachments.
Citrate is a 6 Carbon compound formed from the reaction of methyl cabon of acetyl coAof(2c) and cabonyl carbon of oxaloacatate(4c).
The intermediate compound formed is CITRYL CoA.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) Malaria was a major problem in the early history of hominins but is no longer a major pathogen of humans.
(B) Scientists are engaged in an evolutionary arms race with disease-causing organisms.
(C) Use of antibiotics in farm animals contributes to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
(D) Global travel spreads pathogens more quickly than ever before.
(E) Most strains of Plasmodium falciparum are resistant to chloroquine.
Answer: Option A is false.
Malaria is a disease of human being.
Explanation:
Scientist suggested human beings might have caught malaria from chimpanzees and African gorilla.
Malaria is a life threatening disease caused by plasmodium falciparum, plasmodium vivax and other plaamodium species transmitted through the bites of female anopheles mosquito's that has lead to deaths of many people in past years. It is still a major pathogen of humans. According to world health organisation (WHO) in 2017, nearly half of the world was at risk of malaria. There was an estimated 219 cases in 87 countries of the world and an estimated deaths of 435000 of people in 2017.
Malaria can be cure and prevented
It can be cure by the administration of antimalarial drug which is arthemisin Based. It is important you consult your doctor for proper treatment.
Malarial can be prevented by using mosquito nets, using mosquito sprays in rooms to kill mosquito's, using mosquito repellants and keeping our environment tidy from the growth of mosquitoes.
Global travel spreading pathogens more quickly than ever before is False.
Global travel involves the movement of people from one place to another.
This has occurred from time immemorial and vaccination has helped reduce
its spread.
Vaccination and several tests results for contagious diseases are usually
done so as to prevent this occurrence which is why the spread of pathogens
being on the increase is false.
In this scenario also, malaria isn't spread through physical contact as it's not
contagious or communicable but through the vectors i.e mosquito.
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During the second set of photosynthetic reactions, called the Calvin cycle, all BUT ONE of the following occurs. A) Glucose is the end product of the Calvin cycle. B) By-products of the Calvin cycle include water vapor and oxygen. C) Carbon dioxide, a reactant of photo synthesis, is utilized during the Calvin cycle. D) ATP and NADPH, high energy molecules, are utilized to produce stored chemical energy.
Explanation:
False: B) By-products of the Calvin cycle include water vapor and oxygen
Photosynthesis is a chemical pathway that’s integral to producing energy in plants and other primary producers. Energy in the form of molecules of glucose is produced from light, water and carbon dioxide while oxygen (from the light reaction) is released.
Further Explanation:
This occurs in several complex steps, photosynthesis is a rate limited reaction, depends on several factors including carbon dioxide concentration, ambient temperature and light intensity; the energy is retrieved from photons, I.e. particles of light, and water is used as a reducing agent. This begins in the thykaloids, where pigment molecules like chlorophyll reside.
The chloroplast is a membrane-bound organelle found in plants. It contains several invaginations of a plasma membrane called the thylakoid membrane. This contains chlorophyll pigments, in stacks called granum, while the internal spaces of the organelle are called the lumen. Liquid surrounds the granum, forming the stroma.
Here, water is used as a reducing agent.
6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Carbon dioxide + water + energy= glucose + oxygen
Water supplies the chlorophyll in plant cell with replacement electrons for the ones removed from photosystem II. Additionally, water (H2O) split by light during photolysis into H+ and OH- acts as a source of oxygen along with functioning as a reducing agent; it reduces the molecule NADP to NADPH by providing H+ ions. NADP and NADPH are integral to the Calvin cycle where monosaccharides or sugars like glucose are produced after the modification of several molecules.
In the Calvin Cycle:
During the initial stage, three molecules of ribulose bisphosphate, RuBP are reduced and carbon is fixed from an inorganic CO2 to an organic form by the enzyme RuBisCO. With every molecule of CO2 fixed, 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid are produced. 3-PGA is a 3 carbon molecule with a phosphate attached. Next, NADPH and ATP facilitate the addition of electrons to or reduction of 6 molecules of 3PGA to 6 molecules of G3P (glyeraldehyde 3-phosphate). The process uses 6 molecules of ATP and 6 of NADPH, after which the conversion of NADPH and ATP to ADP and NADP+ occur; these are returned to the light dependent reactions. A molecule of G3P, goes to the cytoplasm from this cycle, to form other complex molecules. Fixing sufficient carbon for this G3P export requires 3 revolutions of the cycle. Since two molecules of G3P are made per revolution, 3 turns make 6 G3Ps; 5 of these are used to regenerate RuBP for further fixation.Thus... no [tex]H_{2} O[/tex] or [tex]O_{2}[/tex] are produced...
Respiration in the mitochondria utilizes the oxygen waste for the production of ATP in the Krebs’s cycle via the oxidization of pyruvate( through the process of glycoysis). The electron transport chain, in which oxygen functions as the terminal electron acceptor occurs in both plants and animals.
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During the Calvin cycle, glucose is produced, carbon dioxide is utilized, and ATP and NADPH are used to create stored energy. However, water vapor and oxygen are not by-products of this part of photosynthesis.
Explanation:In the second set of photosynthetic reactions, the Calvin cycle, three important processes occur but one does not. A) Glucose is indeed the end product of the Calvin cycle. C) Carbon dioxide, a reactant of photosynthesis, is utilized during the Calvin cycle. D) ATP and NADPH, high energy molecules, are utilized to produce stored chemical energy. However, B) the by-products of the Calvin cycle are NOT water vapor and oxygen. These are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, not the Calvin cycle.
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Which of the following is true when describing the permissive effect of a hormone?a) a permissive hormone can cancel out the effect of another hormoneb) this means that two hormones have a greater effect than just onec) the hormone can act alone when having an effect on a tissued) is usually the result of a second hormone's exposure on target cells
Answer:
The correct answer is d) is usually the result of a second hormone's exposure on target cells
Explanation:
Permissiveness is described as the situation in which one hormone is not able to exert its full effect on the target cell and it requires the presence of another hormone to exert its full potential on the target cell.
Therefore the permissive effect is usually the result of the secondary hormone's presence or exposure on target cells. For example, thyroid hormone increases the effect of epinephrine on target cells by increasing its receptors on the target cell.
Without thyroid hormone, the epinephrine can not exert full effect on its target cell. Therefore the right answer is d.
Hormones mediate changes in target cells by binding to specific hormone receptors. The number of receptors that respond to a hormone determines the cell's sensitivity to that hormone. In the context of permissive effect, one hormone enhances the effect of another hormone.
Explanation:Hormones mediate changes in target cells by binding to specific hormone receptors. In this way, even though hormones circulate throughout the body and come into contact with many different cell types, they only affect cells that possess the necessary receptors. Receptors for a specific hormone may be found on many different cells or may be limited to a small number of specialized cells.
The number of receptors that respond to a hormone determines the cell's sensitivity to that hormone, and the resulting cellular response. Additionally, the number of receptors that respond to a hormone can change over time, resulting in increased or decreased cell sensitivity. In up-regulation, the number of receptors increases in response to rising hormone levels, making the cell more sensitive to the hormone and allowing for more cellular activity. When the number of receptors decreases in response to rising hormone levels, called down-regulation, cellular activity is reduced.
In the context of permissive effect, when one hormone has a permissive effect on another hormone, it means that the presence of the permissive hormone enhances the effect of the other hormone. It allows the other hormone to have a greater effect than it would have on its own. This is an example of the interaction between different hormones and their receptors in target cells.
Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene's function would be most likely to cause a person to
A. develop an extra limb
B. have cancer immediately
C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life
D. lose the capability to produce gametes
E. be extra protected from ever getting cancer
Answer:
The correct answer is C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life.
Explanation:
Cell cycle checkpoints are controlled by different proteins which are coded by different genes. They are important in cell cycle regulation and stops cell cycle immediately if they find any problem in the cell like mutation.
The cell cycle will not be continued if the problem does not solve and cell death will occur which prevents cancer by preventing the mutation to spread into new cells.
Therefore if a mutation occurs in certain genes that enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle then the mutated gene will pass in new cells and the mutated cells will grow uncontrollably due to no checkpoints so the person will probably have cancer at some point in his or her life.
A child was in a diving accident. When brought into the emergency room, the doctor used sharp and blunt objects to determine if there was any sensation on the bottom of the foot and the lateral aspect of their palm. The child stated they could not feel the stimulus in either area. What nerves were most likely damaged?
Answer:
S1 and S3
Explanation:
The spine is composed of 33 vertebrae and has 31 pairs of nerves that are distributed throughout the body in an organized manner. Each nerve that leaves the spine is responsible for imparting sensitivity and strength to a particular area of the body, so whenever there is a compression or cut of a nerve, a particular area of the body is compromised.
When a person has a feeling of numbness in the foot, as shown in the above question, it is more likely that there is a change in the spine, specifically in the nerves S1 and S3. This is because nerve S1 is responsible for eversion of the foot, while nerve S3 is responsible for the intrinsic muscles of the foot.
Which of the following is true of stem cells? See Concept 20.3 (Page 429)
They can reproduce indefinitely in culture.
They can be found in both embryonic and adult tissues.
Their use is highly controversial.
They can differentiate to produce many different kinds of specialized cells.
All of the above.
Answer:
The correct answer is option - all of the above.
Explanation:
Stem cells are the cells that have the ability to differentiate and develop into all kinds of cells in the body of an individual organism. These cells helpful in several functions like developing cells of various types and repair them. Stem cells can be embryonic and adult stem cells.
These cells can be grow culture with proper media and result in reproduce indefinitely. Use of stem cells are consider as unethical by various researchers, communities and scientists
Thus, the correct answer is option - all of the above.
Answer:
The correct answer is- All of the above
Explanation:
Stem cells are the undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into different and specific types of cells. They can be found in embryo and in adults. The embryonic stem cell can form all the cell of the body as they are pluripotent but adult stem cell mainly differentiates into a particular type of cell.
Due to having inherent properties stem cells can reproduce indefinitely in a culture medium. There use is highly controversial because they can be used to develop human embryo unethically therefore most controversy occurs on the use of embryonic cells. So the correct answer is- all of the above.
the tailless trait in the mouse results from an allele of an gene on chromosomes 17. a cross of tailless x tailless mice produces tailess and wildtype offspring in a ratio of 2 tailess: 1 wildtype. all tailess offspring from this cross when mated with wildtype produce a 1:1 ratio of tailess to wildtype. is the allele for the tailess trait dominant or recessive?
Answer:
Dominant
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Select the phrases that accurately describe properties of the most common form of the DNA double helix. a. The phosphodiester bonds between nucleotide residues run in opposite directions in the two strands. b. The sugar–phosphate backbone is exposed to the solvent, whereas the nitrogenous bases are in the interior of the double helix. c. Base pairs have a spacing of . d. A helical turn consists of about . e. DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and guanine (the purines) and equal amounts of cytosine and thymine (the pyrimidines).
The sugar and phosphate bond is placed outward of the DNA towards the solvent and the base of nitrogen is inside the helix.
Explanation:
The edges that are outward to the double helix formation of DNA are composed by sugar and phosphate molecules and make the backbone.
These two strands of DNA is placed in the opposite direction from the helix. But the nitrogen base is there inside the helix. It shapes like a ladder rung because of the hydrogen bond. This bond keeps the backbone held together.
_______ are involved in determining continuously varying or multiple factor traits.
Answer:
Polygene
Explanation:
Continuous variation occurs because of the effect of the combination of many genes (polygenes) which and is called polygenic inheritance. So in polygenic inheritance, each gene or trait contributes to the character. In discontinuous variation mainly alleles of a single gene are involved.
Polygenic trait inheritance can be influenced by the environment for example in cows the milk yield is not only affected by genes but also by environmental factors like weather, diet, etc. Some other examples of continuous variation are height, weight, shoe size, etc.
So polygenes are involved in determining multiple factor traits or continuous variation.
Kathy has been an administrative assistant for many years and spends many hours per day using the computer keyboard. She has recently been complaining about a burning sensation in her middle finger that sometimes extends to her elbow. Her doctor gave her a splint to wear on her wrist to immobilize it while she types. What condition is he attempting to treat
Answer: The Doctor is treating her for Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). It can be treated with Non Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDS) and pain relief drugs
Explanation:
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS) is a disorder which is caused by the compression of the median nerve located in the wrist. As Kathy continually types on the keyboard the median nerve is being compressed for a longer time causing inflammation.
Carpal Tunnel is an area in the wrist where bones and ligaments create a small passage way for the median nerve. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is therefore caused by the compression of the median nerve in the wrist. The symptoms include feelings of numbness, tingling, burning sensation over the surface of the thumb, forefinger, middle finger, half of the ring finger some feel pains from the wrist up to the arm.
They can be treated with Non Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDS) and ibuprofen to treat the inflammation and for pain relief.
The doctor's use of a wrist splint to treat Kathy's symptoms is consistent with the management of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve.
Explanation:The doctor is treating Kathy for symptoms that are indicative of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS), a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve in the wrist. The use of a wrist splint aims to stabilize the wrist and minimize pressure on the nerve to relieve symptoms such as the burning sensation in Kathy's middle finger that extends to the elbow.
Contrasting this condition, tendinitis is another type of repetitive strain injury that could cause similar symptoms but has different treatment protocols, typically involving rest, icing, and anti-inflammatory medications. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and its management often include using splints, corticosteroid injections, and surgery for more severe cases.
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Which statement is false? a. The number of double bonds in a fatty acid affects its melting point. b. Naturally occurring fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons. c. Wax esters contain long chain fatty acids and long chain alcohols. d. Triacylglycerols are polar due to their ester functional groups.
Answer:
d. Triacylglycerols are polar due to their ester functional groups.
Explanation:
Triacylglycerols are nonpolar due to the ester bond that forms between the glycerol polar hydroxyl (-OH) group and the fatty acid polar carboxylic acid (COOH) group. This leads to the release of a water molecule.
After eating lettuce contaminated with EHEC (E. coli) , what physical/chemical barriers to infection will the pathogen encounter en route to the intestine and once it reaches the intestine, but before it can attach to epithelial cells of the intestine?
Choose all the correct options below:a. Defensinsb. Cytolytic T-cellsc. Activated macrophagesd. Perforinse. Lysozymef. Mucing. Stomach acidh. IgGi. gut microbiotaj. tight junctions of gastrointestinal epithelial layers
Defensins, lysozymes, mucin, stomach acid, gut microbiota, tight junctions of gastrointenstinal epithelial cells are the physical/chemical barriers to infection will the pathogen encounter en route to the intestine and once it reaches the intestine after eating lettuce contaminated with EHEC
Explanation:
The enterohemorrhagic strain of Escherichia coli (EHEC) grows in the intestines, produces the highly potent Shiga toxin. E.coli is a foodborne pathogen.
Innate immunity acts against the EHEC pathogens through physical and chemical barriers with certain non-specific responses.
Physical barriers include skin and mucous membrane. Chemical barriers include stomach acid, lysozyme, defensin.
Tight junctions are the watertight regions lining the gastrointestinal mucosal surface with tightly packed epithelial cells which prevent the flow of E. coli bacteria between the host compartments.
The mucous membranes covered with tight junctions secrete mucin and lysozyme.
Mucin blocks the pathogen’s ability to attach to the cell surfaces and thereby inhibits its invasion.
Lysozymes are mucosal enzymes which act against the pathogens trying to adhere to the gut epithelium.
Defensins are peptides that attack the cytoplasmic membrane of the pathogens and kill them
Stomach acid (HCl) reduces the pH of the gut and maintains an acidic environment, and thereby inhibits the entry of foodborne pathogens
Gut microbes are commensal organisms that aid immunity by:
Colonization and creating competition for space and food Secreting toxins which can kill the pathogenic organismsWhich of the following is a consequence of acid deposition? Group of answer choices A) It increases the likelihood of low-lying ground fogs. B) It results in offshore eutrophication, damaging coral reefs. C) It creates rainwater that can damage skin cells or cause cancers. D) It leaches important minerals from soils. E) It is increasing the rate of global warming.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Acid deposition is the process by which the acid formed in the atmosphere falls off with the rain and gets deposited in the lithosphere.
The deposition of the acid in the soil causes many adverse effects on the living organisms especially plants as deposition of acid leads to the reactions which result in the release of the elements from their compounds via a process known as "leaching".
The leaching of the elements leads to the decrease in the fertility of the soil and thus productivity of the plants or crops.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
The acid rain is usually defined as a type of precipitation which is comprised of acids such as sulfuric and nitric acids and is harmful to the living organism.
It directly affects the soil because the nutrient particles present in the soil such as phosphorus, nitrogen, and aluminum are washed away during acid rain. The acid rain adds the hydrogen ions to the soil and reacts with the nutrients present in the soil and thereby removes it and it eventually flows to the streams and rivers. This process of eroding soil particles is often known as leaching.
Thus, Acid rain leads to the leaching of important soil minerals.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
The flower color of the Four-o'clock plant is determined by alleles of genes that demonstrate incomplete dominance. Heterozygotes have an intermediate phenotype of pink flowers while homozygous individuals have either red or white flowers. A plant with red flowers and a plant with red flowers are crossed. If 500 offspring were produced, what number of the F1 offspring would have pink flowers?
In a cross between two homozygous red Four-O'clock plants, all offspring would also be homozygous red. No pink flowered offspring a result of incomplete dominance, would be produced because there are no white alleles present in the parents.
Explanation:The question is about the inheritance pattern known as incomplete dominance in the Four-o'clock plant. In the case of the heterozygote self-cross, the genotypic ratio is 1CRCR:2 CRCW:1 CWCW, which equates to 1:2:1 for red:pink:white. If a homozygous red plant (CRCR) is crossed with another homozygous red plant (CRCR), all the offspring would be homozygous red (CRCR) because there are no alleles for white flowers (CWCW) in the parents. Therefore, no pink flowers (heterozygous CRCW), which derive from one red and one white allele, could be produced in this cross.
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In a cross between two plants with red flowers, all F1 offspring would have red flowers due to incomplete dominance, resulting in no individuals with pink flowers among the 500 offspring produced.
In incomplete dominance, heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate phenotype between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes.
In this case, crossing two plants with red flowers (homozygous dominant) would produce offspring with only red flowers. Therefore, no F1 offspring would have pink flowers.
Since both parent plants have red flowers, they would contribute the dominant allele for red flower color to all of their offspring. Consequently, all 500 F1 offspring would inherit the dominant allele for red flowers, resulting in no individuals with pink flowers.
A woman heterozygous for A blood marries a man heterozygous for B blood.
What is the probability that they will produce offspring with AB blood?
a)0%
b)25%
c)50%
d)75%
Answer:
b) 25% is the right answer
Explanation:
A woman heterozygous for A blood group with genotype = Iᵃi
A man heterozygous for A with genotype = Iᵇi
so after cross between Iᵃ i x Iᵇ i
alleles man woman
Iᵃ i
Iᵇ IᵃIᵇ Iᵇi
i Iᵃi ii
so the offspring will be
25 % AB IᵃIᵇ 25 % A Iᵃi
25 % B Iᵇi 25 % O ii
The probability that a woman heterozygous for A blood and a man heterozygous for B blood will produce offspring with AB blood type is 25%.
Explanation:The subject of this question is genetics and it deals with the inheritance of blood types. For a woman heterozygous for blood type A (IAi) and a man heterozygous for B blood (IBi), their possible gametes (sperm and eggs) are IA, i and IB, i respectively. When we cross these possibilities, we get four possible combinations of genotypes in their offspring: IAIB (which is type AB Blood), IAi (Type A blood), IBi (Type B blood) and ii (Type O blood). Each of these outcomes has a 25% chance of occurring, because they are equally likely due to the principles of Mendelian genetics. Therefore the chance they will produce offspring with AB blood is 25%.
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Consider the cladogram representing most of the major categories of animals. Consider the point B in the cladogram. What characteristic might be used to separate the animals, beginning with the pigeon and moving to human, from the other animals?
A) contain jaws
B) endoskeleton with backbone
C) fur or hair
D) tetrapod
Answer: C. Fur is Hair
Explanation: i got it right
What is the process of converting energy from a light - excited electron into ATP
Answer:
Photosynthesis
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process in which the energy will be converted from the light exited electron to phosphorylate the bond of ADP molecule to ATP.
Comparing sequences between genes and between species allows evaluation of the rates of change. Which of the following have been observed: Select one or more:(A) introns have a higher mutation rate than exons.(B) non-synonymous mutations are found at a higher rate than synonymous mutations.
Answer:
A and B is correct.
Explanation:
Mutations are spontaneous variations to nucleotide sequences, therefore in two animals or two chromosomes they can not be identical by nature. Therefore, the introns interact with non-coding sequences and therefore their sequences are not established as consensus in nature and are therefore highly prone to mutations.
Hence both the statement are correct.
Answer:i think its b.)
Explanation:
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Select one:
a. If you want to make a cDNA library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the mRNA from.
b. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from.
c. If you want to make a cDNA library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from.
d. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the mRNA from.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
cDNA library or complementary library is the DNA library constructed from the mRNA which is isolated from the specific tissue.
The genomic library is constructed from the genome sequence of the organism by cutting the gene of interest or the whole genome with a restriction endonuclease and then inserting it into the vectors.
Since the genomic library includes the whole genome which is same in every cell and tissue whereas the cDNA library contains the coding genes expressed in the specific tissue only therefore, Option-B is the correct answer.
The correct answer is 'if you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from' because genomic DNA is constant across different tissues. However, for a cDNA library, tissue type matters as different tissues express different genes.
Explanation:The correct statement among these options is b. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from. The reason for this is that genomic DNA is the complete DNA sequence of an organism, which means it is identical in all cells (except reproductive cells and some immune cells).
On the other hand, the cDNA library represents a collection of only the mRNA sequences that were active in the cell at the moment of extraction. Therefore, for the creation of a cDNA library, it does matter which tissue the mRNA is isolated from because different tissues express different genes.
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A drug that prevents assembly of the mitotic spindle would cause the cell cycle to stall just after
A. chromosome condensation
B. attachment of the spindle to the chromosomes
C. all the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell
D. the separation of sister chromatids
E. cytokinesis
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Colchicine is the drug that prevents the assembly of the mitotic spindles which halts or stops the cell cycle.
The colchicine acts by inhibiting the microtubule polymerization thus mitotic spindles which takes place after the condensation of the chromosomes during prophase and pre-metaphase.
This acts as checkpoint which can halt the cell cycle at the phase of chromosome condensation.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Your lab group is experimenting with the diffusion of molecules across a membrane. Dialysis tubing is used as a model cell membrane, because is it semi-permeable, allowing small molecules to cross the membrane, but NOT larger molecules, like starch. A starch solution is placed in the dialysis tubing and then the dialysis tubing is placed in an iodine and water solution. Iodine is used as an indicator for the presence of starch. Normally, iodine is a yellow-brown color, but in the presence of starch, it turns a deep purple. After observing the experimental setup for 20 minutes, the iodine solution remains brown, but the starch solution inside the dialysis tubing is purple and swollen. Based on what you learned from the lab, starch is MOST likely to cross the cell membrane at which of the points indicated on the diagram? A) Starch crosses the cell membrane at A. B) Starch crosses the cell membrane at B. C) Starch crosses the cell membrane at D. D) Starch crosses the cell membrane at E.
Answer:
Starch crosses the cell membrane at E.
Explanation:
i did the USATestprep
Answer:
C) Starch requires ATP energy for transport and therefore cannot cross the dialysis tubing into the iodine solution.
Explanation:
I did the USAtestprep
Which of the following is a true statement?
Mucus protects the stomach lining from digestive secretions.
Protease breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
Lipase breaks down proteins in the small intestine.
Pepsin is an antibacterial agent that kills some bacteria.
How can a tumor suppressor gene lose its function? Check all that apply
a. Duplication
b. Aneuploidy leading to loss of the tumor suppressor gene
c. Aberrant DNA methylation
d. Gene mutation
Explanation:
Antioncogenes also called as tumor suppressor genes. The cell proliferation is controlled negatively by tumor suppressor genes. Antioncogenes maintains the replication and division process of cell. The antioncogenes prevent uncontrollable growth of cell. The mutation in the gene can lead to cancer.
The gene mutation can cause tumor suppressor gene to lose its function. The mutation in the tumor suppressor genes will code for certain proteins with loss of function in tumor suppression.
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When constructing a Punnett square, _____________ go on the outside of the square, and _______________ go inside the square.
A. diploid gametes, haploid offspring
B. diploid offspring, diploid parents
C. haploid gametes, diploid offspring
D. haploid offspring, diploid gametes
E. haploid offspring, haploid parents
Answer:
haploid gametes, diploid offspring
Explanation:
Gametes that produces offprings are usually hapliod (n) e.g the sperm cell or the egg cell. In the Punnet Square, When these two hapliod gametes fuses together, they produce a diploid offspring carrying the traits of both of the gametes.
Which of the following statements about PCR is/are FALSE? There may be more than one correct answer.
A) PCR reactions contain DNA template, primers, deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates, and heat- resistant DNA polymerase
B) Each PCR cycle includes three steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension
C) After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA increases in a linear manner
D) One limitation of PCR is that it requires prior knowledge of the sequence to be amplified
E) PCR is a very sensitive technique and can amplify target sequences present in extremely low copy number
F) The single-stranded DNA primers must anneal to opposite strands of template DNA at distant sites, with their 5′ ends directed toward each other
Answer: The answer is C
Explanation:
After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA does not increase in a linear manner
Final answer:
The false statements about PCR are C) DNA increases linearly after each cycle, and F) primers must anneal at distant sites with 5' ends facing. In PCR, DNA increases exponentially, and primers anneal close to the target with 3' ends facing.
Explanation:
The student has asked which statements about Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) are false. The false statements are:
C) After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA increases in a linear manner
F) The single-stranded DNA primers must anneal to opposite strands of template DNA at distant sites, with their 5′ ends directed toward each other
Statement C is false because the amount of DNA increases exponentially after each PCR cycle, not linearly. Each cycle doubles the amount of DNA being amplified. Statement F is also incorrect; the primers anneal to opposite strands of the template DNA at specific sites close to the target sequence, and they are oriented with their 3′ ends facing each other, not their 5′ ends.
PCR involves a cyclic process of denaturation, annealing, and extension which results in the exponential increase of the DNA target sequence. Heat-resistant DNA polymerase, such as Taq polymerase, is used for its ability to withstand the high temperatures needed for denaturation.
Cellular respiration uses one molecules of glucose to produce approximately ___ molecules of ATP.
A. 36
B. 2
C. 4
D. 24
E. 12
Answer: 2 ATPs
Explanation:
In the overall reaction, glycolysis converts one six-carbon molecule of glucose into two three-carbon molecules of pyruvate.
The net products of this process are two molecules of ATP ( 4 ATP produced − 2 ATP used up).
Cellular respiration uses one molecules of glucose to produce approximately 36 molecules of ATP
What is cellular respirationDuring cellular respiration, one molecule of glucose is used to produce approximately 36 molecules of ATP (adenosine triphosphate). ATP is the energy currency of cells and is synthesized through the process of cellular respiration.
Although the exact number of ATP molecules produced can vary slightly depending on the specific conditions and efficiency of cellular respiration, the approximate yield of ATP from one glucose molecule is commonly estimated as 36 molecules.
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Which of the following indicates that a muscle fiber is relaxed?
ATP molecules are bound to the heads of the myosin filaments.
Myosin heads are attached to actin filaments, forming cross bridges.
Calcium ions are bound to troponin, causing the protein to change shape.
Z lines are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere.
ATP molecules are bound to the heads of the myosin filaments
In relaxed form of the sarcomere, ATP is bound to its site on the myosin heads. It is when the ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi that the mysoin forms a cross ridge with the actin fiber. Upon hydrolysis the ADP + Pi exits the site and another ATP binds. This again causes the myosin head to disengage the actin fiber and the cycle is repeated.
Explanation:
During contraction of muscle calcium ions are usually released from their sarcoplasmic reticulum where they bind to troponin enabling tropomyosin to be exposed such that myosin can bind. Contraction of sarcomere causes the z lines to move closer together.
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Why is a cap added to mRNA, but not to tRNA or rRNA?A-Transfer RNA and rRNA exhibit complex structures with double stranded regions. The three-dimensional shapes of these molecules keep the 5\' end of the RNA away from the enzymes that process the cap.B-Transcription and processing of mRNA occur in the nucleus, where cap binding proteins are found. These proteins, which add and modify the cap, are not found in the cytoplasm, where tRNA and rRNA are transcribed and processed.C-Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.D-Only mRNA contains introns. Capping occurs simultaneously with intron removal because the same enzymes and proteins involved in both of these processes must bind to RNA at the same time.
Answer:
The correct option is C ' Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.'
Explanation:
All the different type of RNA's undergo the process of transcription. However, their transcription is carried on by different types of RNA polymerases.
The transcription of the mRNA is carried by RNA polymerase II. The process of capping is essential so that the mRNA is stopped from degradation.
The rRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase I which cannot add a cap tothe RNA.
The tRNA is transcribed by the RNA polymerase II, but the domain is different which cannot undergo the process of capping.
Increasing substrate concentration restores enzyme activity that has been blocked by ____(A) a noncompetitive inhibitor only.(B) neither a competitive nor a noncompetitive inhibitor.(C) both a competitive and a noncompetitive inhibitor.(D) a competitive inhibitor only.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The structure of a competitive inhibitor resembles that of the substrate. It may thus combine with the enzyme to form enzyme-inhibitor (EI) complex rather than enzyme-substrate (ES) complex . However, increasing the substrate concentration and keeping the inhibitor concentration constant restores enzyme activity: as the active site releases the bound inhibitor to bind with the substrate.
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Increasing substrate concentration can only restore enzyme activity blocked by a competitive inhibitor, as this type of inhibition is reversible and concentration-dependent. Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site and are not influenced by substrate concentration.
Explanation:Increasing substrate concentration restores enzyme activity that has been blocked by (D) a competitive inhibitor only. A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the enzyme's active site, competing with the substrate. Since both the substrate and inhibitor are competing for the same site, the presence of more substrate increases the chance that the substrate will bind instead of the inhibitor. This competition is concentration-dependent, and inhibition can be completely reversed by sufficiently increasing the substrate concentration.
On the other hand, a noncompetitive inhibitor binds to a different site on the enzyme, causing a conformational change that affects the active site and hence enzyme activity. Substrate concentration increases do not affect the binding of a noncompetitive inhibitor, so enzyme activity is not restored by increasing substrate concentration in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor.