Answer:Phaeophyta--Described as "hairy" in appearance produce alginic acid, which can be used as a thickening agent.
Rhodophyta ;are utilized commercially to produce carrageenan and can photosynthesize at depths greater than 10 meters
Chlorophyta;Considered the progenitor of land plants, have 18S rRNA sequences comparable to plants
Chrysophyta;The is a diverse group that includes the diatoms, a major component of phytoplankton
Explanation:algae are a diverse group of organisms with majority of them living in water and a few on land. They are green and contains chlorophyll.they also contains phycobillins pigments.
Chlorophyta are green algae that exist in water habitat an example is Chlamydomanas reinhardi.they have similar structures with higher plants such as chlorophyll, cellulose cell wall and stores food as starch.
The chrysophyta includes diatoms.diatoms have a cell wall composed of pectin and deposits of silica. They may occur in large deposit as diatomaceous earth.
Phaeophyta--are brown algae. An example is sea weed they are found in deeper ocean waters. Sea weed has a thallus which branches into a basal holdfast that aids attachment to rocks.their blade allows the plant to float
Rhodophyta are algae which are sometimes Unicellular in form they have a characteristic red color due to the presence of phycoerythrin along with phycocyanin, chlorophyll.they are used as source of algar for microorganism culture.
The body uses non-specific immune responses as the first line of defense when we are exposed to pathogenic or disease causing organisms. Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?
A. Antibodies are produced after an infection.
B. Bacterial cell surface proteins start a response.
C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier.
D. Vaccine injections will imitate viral exposure.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A nonspecific response is a defense you are born with. You were born with unbroken skin to be a physical barrier.
Final answer:
The correct answer to the question about which factor is a nonspecific immune response is that unbroken skin provides a physical barrier, which is part of the innate immune system and acts non-specifically to block pathogens. So the correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
The non-specific immune response is the first defense mechanism of the body against pathogenic organisms. This response is innate and does not target specific pathogens. Instead, it includes physical and chemical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as leukocytes that phagocytize pathogens and other general responses to prevent infections from establishing themselves in the body.
Considering the provided options, the correct answer to the question 'Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?' is C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier. This is because unbroken skin is a part of the innate immune system, acting instantaneously to block the entry of a broad range of pathogens without specificity towards any particular type of pathogen. In contrast, the production of antibodies and the specific immune response involving B and T cells are tailored to specific pathogens and are thus specific, not nonspecific, immune responses.
Place the steps of circulation described below in the correct order, beginning with C.
13. _C_
14. ___
15. ___
16. ___
17. ___
A. De-oxygenated blood exits through the pulmonary artery and travels to the lungs to pick up oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxide
B. Oxygenated blood in the left ventricle leaves through the body’s main artery, the aorta, and travels throughout the body
C. De-oxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the right atria, then right ventricle
D. Blood delivers oxygen needed for cellular respiration to all cells in the body and removes the CO2 that is created as a result.
E. Newly oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atria and then down to the left ventricle
Answer:
B,A,E,D
Explanation:
hope this helped ;-}
The correct order of the steps of circulation, beginning with C, is: C, A, E, B, D
Explanation:C. De-oxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the right atria, then right ventricleA. De-oxygenated blood exits through the pulmonary artery and travels to the lungs to pick up oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxideE. Newly oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atria and then down to the left ventricleB. Oxygenated blood in the left ventricle leaves through the body’s main artery, the aorta, and travels throughout the bodyD. Blood delivers oxygen needed for cellular respiration to all cells in the body and removes the CO2 that is created as a resultHow many chromosomes in a tail
i might be wrong i would say 5
1. Flowering plants and bees have influenced each other's evolution, providing an example of
2. The idea that life can develop from non-living things, has been postulated in the
Oparin-Haldane hypothesis and demonstrated to be possible in the Miller-Urey experiment.
3. The idea that eukaryotes developed when prokaryotes were engulfed by other cells, called the
is supported by the fact that mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA.
Answer:
coevolution
abiogenesis
Endosymbiont Theory
It's estimated that over 99 percent of the species that have existed on Earth at some point in time are extinct today.
Coevolution implies that the evolution of one species is dependent on and works in relation to the evolution of another species. This may cause positive or negative impacts and could be beneficial to both organisms or only to one.
This theory states that the first building block of life that allowed for reproduction of organisms was the development of self-replicating RNA. This hasn't been able to be fully demonstrated in any science experiment but is based on the idea that there are RNAs that can catalyze biochemical reactions on their own without proteins.
This process points to the development of structures through the envelopment of smaller cells that perform specific functions. This is how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
This experiment was important because it showed that, in the right primordial soup, organic compounds could develop from inorganic compounds.
Explanation:
penn foster
1. coevolution
2. abiogenesis
3. Endosymbiont Theory
What do you mean by coevolution, abiogenesis and endosymbiont theory?Coevolution occurs when two or more species reciprocally affect each other's evolution through the process of natural selection. The term sometimes is used for two traits in the same species affecting each other's evolution, as well as gene-culture coevolution.
Abiogenesis or the origin of life is the natural process by which life has arisen from non-living matter, such as simple organic compounds.
The endosymbiotic theory states that some of the organelles in eukaryotic cells were once prokaryotic microbes. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the same size as prokaryotic cells and divide by binary fission. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA which is circular, not linear.
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Nutrients from digested food enter the bloodstream through the process of
(1) absorption (3) respiration
(2) elimination (4) secretion
Answer:
1. Absorption is the answer
Answer:
absorption
Explanation:
the food gets into the blood stream by absorbing the tiny cells of food
Which type of selection allows for the middle phenotypes to have increased fitness
Answer:
Stabilizing Selection
Explanation:
There are 3 types of selection: directional, stabilizing, and disruptive.
Directional selection means that the animal slowly evolves from one extreme phenotype to the other extreme. For example, in horses, a horse could evolve from very weakling into a super strong and fast one.
Stabilizing selection means that the middle phenotype is chosen over the two extremes. For example, in babies, a too-low or a too-high birth weight are both bad, so a middle-weight is preferred.
Disruptive selection means the two extremes are chosen. For example, if there is a population of mice living in an area of sand and grasslands, the light colored mice can blend in with the sand, while the dark colored mice can blend in with the grass. However, the middle-colored mice cannot.
The only one that matches here is stabilizing.
Hope this helps!
Select the reasons why organisms are classified. Check all that apply.
to name them
to determine their lifespan
to form groups
to allow identification
to show relatedness
to identify their habitats
Answer:
A, C, D, E
Explanation:
i took the test on edge
Answer:
its A C D E, and if its not them you messed up something
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is true about living things?
a. The organism’s development is completed before the life cycle begins.
b. Living things are based on a universal genetic code.
c. Cells may change in number but never differentiate.
d. A cell is the smallest unit of an organism that is considered alive.
Answer:
The answer is D) A cell is the smallest unit of an organism that is considered alive.
Explanation:
The statement that a cell is the smallest unit of an organism that is considered alive is true about living things.
What is living things?" Any organism or a life form that possesses or shows the characteristics of life or being alive."The characteristics include: it can grow, move, reproduce, eat food and perform metabolic activities.What is a cell?"The cell is a structural and functional unit of life."All organisms are made up of one or more number of cells.The cell has various organelles that performs various functions like: protein synthesis, replication, formation of energy, etc.
Hence, the correct option is d. A cell is the smallest unit of an organism that is considered alive.
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the role of a "leader sequence" is to A. directly control transcription. B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. C. determine whether RNA polymerase can bind. D. terminate transcription. E. direct the looping of the DNA that prevents transcription initiation.
Answer:
The role of a "leader sequence" is to B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon.
Explanation:
The "leader sequence" is the 5′ untranslated region (5′ UTR). Its main function is the regulation of translation of a transcript using different mechanisms. They differ depending we are talking about eukaryotes or prokaryotes (more complex). It determines whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. The operon is is a functioning unit of DNA that is made of a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter.
1. You are studying an integral membrane protein of the plasma membrane. It has a single transmembrane domain and the N-terminal portion of this protein is extracellular. You decide to perform mutagenesis studies of the stop-transfer sequence, and you mutate all of the valine and isoleucine residues within this sequence to lysine and arginine residues. What do you predict will happen to the transport of this protein and explain why
Answer:
A 22 to 25 amino acid sequence present in the central section of the protein, which gives rise to an alpha helix in the membrane is known as the stop-transfer anchor sequence. The sequence plays an essential function in targeting the protein towards the plasma membrane. On the other hand, it also ceases targeting of the protein towards the endoplasmic reticulum, which was started by the signal peptide.
Thus, the process of translation of the remaining of the protein occurs within the cytosol due to the tethering of the transmembrane domain. In the stop-transfer anchor sequence, the hydrophobic amino acids present are isoleucine and valine. After mutation, these amino acids get converted into arginine and lysine, thus, hydrophilic amino acids replace hydrophobic amino acids in the sequence.
Due to this, the transmembrane domain cannot be targeted towards an integral part of the plasma membrane by the short transfer anchor sequence, and therefore, now the translocation of the protein will take place towards the endoplasmic reticulum as initiated by the signal peptide at the beginning.
Which disease can destroy red blood cells?
EOS
Which disease infects T cells?
Which disease produces a scaly, stinging, and itchy rash on the feet?
Which disease can destroy red blood cells?
I) Hemolytic anemia is a decease which destroys red blood cells .
Which disease infects T cells?
ii) chromosomal breakage syndromes (CBSs) is one one of those decease that infect T cells.
Which disease produces a scaly, stinging, and itchy rash on the feet?
iii) Eczema , it's a skin disorder .
thanks
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum are composed largely of phospholipids facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and proces
Answer:
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi
Explanation:
Lysosomes are organelles whose function is the digestion of macromolecules, they contains hydrolytic enzymes and membrane proteins
Suppose that you have just started a summer internship working for a cooperative service, where you will collect soil samples, conduct laboratory and field tests, and make recommendations on soil conservation and agricultural practices.
(i) Identify one biome that is characterized by soil that is rich in humus. Describe how humus originated in the soil of this biome and TWO ways that humus improves conditions for plant growth.
(ii) Describe TWO soil conservation practices that are designed to decrease soil erosion. *
Answer: seen below
Explanation:
I) Deciduous forest: is an example of a biome (a biome is a large naturally occurring community of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat) it's seasonal/tropical and temperate.
Humus which is an organic component of soil originated here because of plant and animal materials decomposition on the forest. Two ways humus improves soil conditions includes;
a) by providing fertility or nutrients for plants and soil organisms.
b) humus also helps the topsoil hold water.
II) Two soil conservation practices that decreases erosion include;
a) Conservation tillage, minimizes the number of tillage passes, where the soil aggregate disruption is reduced, and a minimum of 30% of the soil surface covered with residues, and this aims to reduce by disturbing the soil as little as possible when planting crops.
b) Terracing or division terrace, this helps by shaping the land to create level shelves of earth to decrease soil and water runoff, thereby decreasing erosion.
As energy is transferred through
an ecosystem, not all trophic
levels receive the same amount.
The diagram shows a marine
ecosystem. Which leopard seal
prey is the most efficient energy
transfer for this ecosystem? *
In a marine ecosystem, the leopard seal's most efficient prey from an energy transfer viewpoint would be the organism closest to it in the trophic level - likely fish or penguins. This is because less energy is lost to the environment each time it moves up a trophic level.
Explanation:In a marine ecosystem, it's important to remember that energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next with a general efficiency of about 10%. This means that for a leopard seal, the prey that would provide the most efficient energy transfer would likely be the one closest to it in the food chain.
Let's say the leopard seal's potential prey includes krill, fish, and penguins. The krill, being primary consumers that eat producers (like phytoplankton), would have the most energy available. Next would be the fish that eat the krill, and then the penguins - secondary and tertiary consumers respectively.
Therefore, the most efficient prey for a leopard seal, from an energy transfer perspective, would be the one closest to it in trophic level - likely the fish or the penguins. This is because less energy is lost to the environment as it moves up each trophic level.
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The liver is the......................
gland in the body.
The liver is the
gland in the body.
The liver is the...................... gland in the body.
Answer: The liver is the largest
gland in the body.
Final answer:
The liver is the largest gland in the human body and has multiple functions in metabolism. It is involved in carbohydrate metabolism by carrying out processes like gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glycogenesis, as well as the breakdown of hormones.
Explanation:
As the largest gland in the body, the liver assumes a pivotal role in maintaining overall metabolic equilibrium. Beyond its sheer size, this vital organ serves a multitude of functions crucial for bodily functions. In the realm of carbohydrate metabolism, the liver orchestrates intricate processes such as gluconeogenesis, the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources; glycogenolysis, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for immediate energy needs; and glycogenesis, the storage of excess glucose as glycogen for future use.
Moreover, the liver plays a key role in hormonal regulation by breaking down insulin and various other hormones, contributing to the finely tuned orchestration of metabolic activities. This multifaceted involvement in metabolic processes underscores the liver's significance as a dynamic organ essential for maintaining homeostasis and ensuring the seamless functioning of the body's diverse physiological pathways.
A change over time in the inherited traits of living things is called????
Please help
Answer:
Evolution
Explanation:
Evolution consists of changes in the heritable traits of a population of organisms as successive generations replace one another
Statement: Allopatric models of speciation follow Occam’s Razor in the sense that they require minimal assumptions to allow populations to evolve separate traits. For example, once populations are separate, only a single simple process like drift is necessary to drive differentiation (phenetic concept), evolution of novel characters (phylogenetic concept), or even permanent breeding barriers (biological species concept). It doesn’t mean that other factors don’t participate (e.g., selection, mutation), but it doesn’t require them.Sympatric models (which don’t physically separate populations) require more assumptions, usually needing to invoke at least two additional assumptions. These are usually:A) That sister species are each other's closest relative.B) Selection against hybrids and assortative mating.C) Ploidy level shifts
Answer:
B) Selection against cross breeds and assortative mating.
C) Ploidy level movements
Explanation:
Sympatric speciation is typically known as troublesome determination, a kind of common choice wherein two particular varieties in an attribute are supported rather than a transitional type of the characteristic. This speciation mostly happens through polyploidy, in which a posterity or gathering of posterity will be delivered with double the ordinary number of chromosomes.
Chymotrypsin has three residues in the active His-57, Asp-102, and Ser 195. To evaluate the importance of Ser-195 for the enzymatic activity, this amino acid residue is replaced by another amino acid. Predict what changes you expect in the activity of the enzyme in the following three different mutant enzymes. In every case, explain your answer (5 p each).
The question given is incomplete, below is a complete questiongotten from google:
Chymotrypsin has three residues in the active site: His-57, Asp-102, and Ser 195. To evaluate the importance of Ser-195 for the enzymatic activity, this amino acid residue is replaced by another amino acid. Predict what changes you expect in the activity of the enzyme in the following three different mutant enzymes. In every case, explain your answer (5 p each).
A) Ser-195 to Thr
B) Ser-195 to Cys
C) Ser-195 to Ala
Answer:
Explanation:
A serine protease that breaks the peptide bond in the protein at the carboxy terminal of aromatic amino acids tyrosine, tryptophan and phenylalanine is known as Chymotrypsin.
Three amino acids form a catalytic triad: aspartate, histidine and serine.
Histidine acts as a general acid base catalyst, and it is stabilized by Aspartate, while serine provides the nucleophile in form of oxygen that attacks on the carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond to form a tetrahedral intermediate.
Since serine has a hydroxyl (-OH) group and the bond between oxygen and hydrogen is removed by histidine which acts a general base catalyst and accepts the proton. This makes the oxygen in the hydroxyl group nucleophilic and it binds with carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond. This function can be replaced by any other amino acid which can produce a nucleophile.
A) Threonine has a hydroxyl group. Just like serine, the bond between oxygen and hydrogen is broken due to the acceptance of protons by histidine. Here, also oxygen in the hydroxyl group become negatively charged species, hence a nucleophile that can attack on the carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond.
B) Cysteine has thiol (-SH) group. Here, similar to serine and threonine, when histidine, acting as a general base, will accept the protons, the Sulphur (S) in cysteine will become negatively charged and act as a nucleophile. It can then attack the carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond to be cleaved.
Similar to serine, threonine and cysteine also have polar side chain so they can produce nucleophile and can replace the serine residue in the active site.
C) Alanine has a non polar side chain containing a methyl group. This methyl group being non polar is not able to produce a nucleophile specie when histidine acting as a general base catalyst tries to extract proton from methyl. No nucleophile is produced and it fails to attack the carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond, therefore no peptide bond is broken.
What are the two most common reasons for modifying the land in South and Southeast Asia?
I will give brainiest to first answer
THE TWO MOST COMMON REASON FOR MODIFYING THE LAND IN SOUTH AND SOUTH ASIA IS
(i) first is significantly, the area of lands categorized as under forest/woodland and wetlands declined .At the same time, cultivated area increased .
(ii) another is requirement of additional land due to increase in population.
Explanation:
Between 1880 and 1980, the South and Southeast Asian landscape underwent dramatic modification.The 81% of the lost forest and wetland vegetation appears to have been converted into expanded agricultural land.
Human population in this region more than tripled between 1880 and 1980, producing an enormous demand for additional land for cultivation.
Answer:
C-
agriculture and forestry
Explanation:
Which of these energy resources is both renewable and sustainable?
A. Coal
B. Biofuel
C. Solar
D. Oil
Answer:
C. Solar
Explanation:
Solar energy doesn't run out as long as the sun is around and it doesn't affect the environment.
Answer:
C. Solar
Explanation:
Science is seldom advanced in isolation. Watson and Crick could not have arrived at their model of the helix without discovery of the structure of and how they are linked together, X-ray crystallography data, or biochemical analysis of the molar proportions of in double-stranded .
Answer:
Correct question= What does the history behind the elucidation of secondary structure of DNA tell you about the role of the scientific community in advancing science? Were Watson and Crick solely responsible?
Explanation
The earlier discovery of nucleotide sequence and base pairing by Levene formed the basis of later discovery and formulation of double Helix DNA structure by Waston and Crick. Thus Levene work contributed to discovery of DNA double helix structure of Waston and Crick
In addition earlier work of Franklin on X-ray crystallography data, and comprehensive research on biochemical analysis of ,molecular proportion of nucleotide by Chargaff, were another supporting bedrock on which Waston and Crick built their discovery of double helix structure of DNA.
Evidently most scientific discoveries were usually arrived at from the earlier work or discoveries, and rarely in isolation.
Mr. Walker plants a new plant next to a tall tree in his yard. It is partly in the sun, but is mostly in the shade He notices that it is
growing with all of its leaves on one side. Why is the plant growing this way?
A.It is dying
B.It is trying to get sunlight.
C.It is trying to stay in the shade.
B.It wants to be closer to the tree.
Answer:
B. it's trying to get sunlight.
(D. is plausible too)
Explanation:
Plants need sunlight for photosynthesis, so they tend to act towards the sunlight (phototropism)
Mr. Walker's plant is growing with all its leaves on one side to reach more sunlight, which is a response called phototropism, influenced by the hormone auxin aiding in maximizing photosynthesis.
Mr. Walker's plant is exhibiting a common response to its light environment known as phototropism, which is the growth of a plant in the direction of its light source. Since the plant is mostly in the shade due to a tall tree, it grows toward the area where it can receive more light. In more scientific terms, this is caused by the plant hormone auxin, which redistributes on the shaded side of the plant, causing those cells to elongate more and thus bending the plant toward the light. This adaptation helps the plant maximize its photosynthesis capabilities by increasing the exposure of its leaves to sunlight. Plants in different light conditions, such as full light or shade, may also exhibit different growth characteristics, with sun-loving plants having reduced leaf area and thicker leaves, and shade plants showing the opposite traits.
16-16: In a series of experiments, genes that code for mutant forms of an RTK are introduced into cells. The cells also express their own normal form of the receptor from their normal gene, although the mutant genes are constructed so that the mutant RTK is expressed at considerably higher concentration than the normal RTK. What would be the consequences of introducing a mutant gene that codes for an RTK (A) lacking its extracellular domain, or (B) lacking its intracellular domain
Answer:
Kinase-connected receptors or receptor tyro-sine kinases react for the most part to protein and chemical go between. A solitary trans membrane helix interfaces the extracellular restricting area to the intra-cellular space. e.g. insulin, development factors. The official of the ligand triggers the commencement of a few succession of occasions related with phosphorylation of proteins, this is called protein kinase course.
For instance, the official of development hormone to the receptor in the plasma layer causes dimerization (by the actuation of Janus kinase 2, JAK2) of the receptor (conformation change) that bring about auto-phosphorylation of tyro-sine buildups. The official of SH2-space (src homology) protein (Grb-2) to the phosphorylated tyro-sine buildups invigorates cell development through a course of protein phosphorylation.
a). RTKs are the trans-membrane receptors, which have a ligand restricting site on the extracellular area and tyro-sine authoritative on the intra-cellular space. In the event that it comes up short on the extracellular area, the ligand can't tie to the receptor site, so no cell reaction happens.
b). On the off chance that it does not have the intra-cellular space, the ligand can tie to the receptor site, the receptor can't impart signs tot eh intra-cellular area because of the absence of intra-cellular space.
Answer:
(A) lacking its extracellular domain:
RTK receptors can bind to the ligand, this phenomenon leads to a decrease in the rate of molecular interaction between receptors and ligands.
(B) lacking its intracellular domain:
RTK receptors can not bind to the ligand and therefore they are inactive, this phenomenon doesn't have effects on the receptor-ligand interaction mechanism
Explanation:
These types of experiment are very important in molecular biology since they enable to determine the function of transmembrane proteins in molecular signaling pathways
Which of the following is NOT a function of lymphatic system?
a) production of red blood cells
b) return of excess tissue fluid to the blood
c) transport of fats and lipids from the small intestine
d) defend the body against pathogens
Final answer:
The lymphatic system does not produce red blood cells; this process occurs in the bone marrow. The lymphatic system is instead responsible for functions such as fluid drainage, immune response, and lipid transport.
Explanation:
Function of the Lymphatic System
The lymphatic system has several key functions, such as draining body fluids and returning them to the bloodstream, circulating lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell essential for the immune system), and transporting fats and lipids from the small intestine to the bloodstream. However, production of red blood cells is not a function of the lymphatic system; this occurs in the bone marrow, part of the hematopoietic system.
To answer the student's question directly: The option that is NOT a function of the lymphatic system is a) production of red blood cells.
How does comparing fossils from different areas help scientists?
Answer:
It helps them figure out what was in the area thousands of years ago
1.
What does your liver do? Ist two major roles and briefly explain each
role.
The table above shows the average amount of sunlight for each month. During which month would the Summer Solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
B. Month 4 because it had an average of 13.32 hours of sunlight.
C. Month 7 because it had an average of 14.93 hours of sunlight.
D. Month 5 because it had an average of 14.52 hours of sunlight.
Answer:
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
Explanation:
Summer Solstice occurs in June, which is the sixth month of the year. Summer Solstice is the longest day of the year, for the Northern hemisphere this is between the 20, 21 or 22 of June, During one of these days, the Northern hemisphere is more exposed to the sun rays giving more hours of sunlight, which means a longer day.
One type of chicken has three different types of feather: white, speckled (spotted black and white) and black. A speckled chicken is mated with a black chicken. If 8 chicks are born, how many would be speckled?
A)8
B)4
C)6
D)2
I'm going to use the letter W for this
Going by the question, white is the dominant trait.
WW = white
Ww = speckled
ww = black
4 chickens would be speckled because 50% of the punnet square is Ww
An image of a plant growing in a tunnel is shown. Which tropism is best illustrated?
Answer:
Gravitropism i think?
Explanation:
Answer:
Gravitropism
Explanation:
Gravitropism (also known as geotropism) is a coordinated process of differential growth by a plant or fungus in response to gravity pulling on it. Gravity can be either "artificial gravity" or natural gravity. It is a general feature of all higher and many lower plants as well as other organisms.
Make chart with Microsoft Office that describes at least 3 major events that occur in development of the fetus during each month of pregnancy. The must include the month, the size of the embryo or fetus, and a description of 3 major events that occur that month. You can cut and paste or simply attach this to your submission.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Month 1
Fertilization
Embryo formation
Blastocyst
Fetus development
Month 2
Fetus growth
External organs begin to differentiate
Month 3
Eyelids form
Nose begins to develop
Face starts to form
Month 4
Organ systems complete
Fetal circulation complete
Placenta complete
Distinct fingers and toe
Month 5
Fetus size 10 – 17 cm
Heartbeat is present
Sex differentiated
Rudimentary kidneys formed
Month 6
Fetus size 25 cm
Weight 260gms
Fetal movements felt by mother
Langua covers
Month 7
Fetus size 28 – 36cm
Weight 680gms
Eyebrows and finger nails develop
Wrinkled skin
Month 8
Fetus size 35 – 38 cm
Weight 1200 – 1800gm
Eyes open and close
Skin is red
Month 9
Fetus size 42 – 49 cm
Weight 1900 – 2700 gms
Eyelids open
Amniotic fluid decreases
Month 10
Fetus 48 – 52 cm
Weight 3000g
Smooth skin
Bones osstifies