Answer:Physical fitness.
Explanation:
Physical fitness is the condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience.
Physical fitness ensures Genuine health or wellness. Genuine health or wellness is not just the absence of disease or infirmity, it is a state of positive well-being. It includes the physical, mental, spiritual, and scio-emotional dimensions of life.
Answer:
the push up test assesses C.) muscular endurance
Explanation:
Fabrizio Benedetti found that _____ injections of placebos were more effective in reducing pain than _____ injections.
a. predictable; unpredictable
b. visible; hidden
c. hidden; visible
d. unpredictable; predictable
What part of the emergency operations plans typically documents the methods, procedures, actions, and responsibilities for a critical operational function (such as communications or mass care) during emergency operations?
Answer: The basic plan.
Explanation:
The part of emergency operations plans that typically documents the methods, procedures, actions, and responsibilities for critical operation functions during emergency operations is the basic plan. This plan is different in every jurisdiction with its unique policies and organization.
The people who traveled on the majority of the trails seen here were primarily
Answer:
The people who traveled on the majority of the trails seen here were PRIMARILY
seeking new lands at low prices.
Explanation:
In the early 1800s, many people in the United States decided to migrate to the Western part of the country looking for more and better land, at affordable prices
People were trying to find new opportunities to prosper and they moved towards West. They encounter some difficulties such as the Indian Reservations and Native American Indians territories that belonged to them. Notwithstanding, people insisted and wanted a new place to dwell in. So yes, the people who traveled on the majority of the trails sought new land at low prices.
You have responded to a report of an abrupt collapse of a middle-aged man at a local office building. Your BLS assessment shows the man is unresponsive, not breathing normally, and has no carotid pulse. This condition is most likely caused by and treated with:
Answer: it is caused by cardiac arrest and could be treated with CPR and defribillation
Explanation:
Cardiac arrest is a sudden loss of unciousness because of sudden loss of heart function and breathing. This is exactly what happened to the middle age man.
Cardiac arrest can be treated by performing CPR and defibrillation.
''Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an effort to manually preserve intact brain function until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous blood circulation and breathing in a person who is in cardiac arrest.'',(wikipedia)
Fusing of the ossicles (otosclerosis) results in ________.
A) tinnitus
B) ménière's syndrome
C) sensorineural deafness
D) conduction deafness
Answer:
conduction deafness
Explanation:
Which clinical manifestation in a 6-month-old infant is most diagnostic for Tay–Sachs disease?a. Anemia and bruising.b. Enlarged liver and spleen.c. Cherry red spot on the retina.d. Progressive cognitive impairment
Answer:
The clincal manifestation that is most diagnostic for Tay-Sachs disease is c. Cherry red spot on the retina.
Explanation:
The Tay Sachs is a degenerative disease that affects the nervous system and the syntoms have to do with movemnt lost, cognitive impediments, lost of eye sight and finally death.
The presence of different syntoms are caused of the disease, but the doctor would examine the eye and most likely would determine the so called cherry red spot on the retine, that would suggest strongly the diagnose for this disease.
When body temperature rises during physical activity, which thermoregulatory response is stimulated?
a. shivering
b. sweating
c. vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels
d. redirecting blood to the visceral organs
When body temperature rises during physical activity, sweating is a thermoregulatory response that is triggered by increased heat production by skeletal muscles that stimulates vasodilation of skin blood vessels. Hence the correct option is (B).
What is Thermoregulatory Response ?Thermoregulation is a mechanism that involves maintaining the core internal body temperature. All thermoregulation formations help our bodies restore homeostasis, which is a state of equilibrium.
When our body's internal temperature becomes distorted, sensors in our central nervous system send information to our hypothalamus. In turn, it transfers signals to various organs and systems inside the body. They exchange with a trusted source of a range of mechanisms.
When the body wants to cool down, these mechanisms include:
1) Sweating
Sweat glands secrete sweat, as a result of which our skin cools down as it evaporates. It helps in reducing our internal temperature.
2) Vasodilation
The blood vessels inside your skin dilate. This results in promoting blood flow to the skin where it is cooler – away from swelling inside the body. It helps the body to discharge heat through heat radiation.
Thus, when body temperature rises during physical activity, sweating is a thermoregulatory response that is triggered by increased heat production by skeletal muscles that stimulates vasodilation of skin blood vessels. Hence the correct option is (B).
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Sweating is the primary thermoregulatory response that is stimulated when body temperature rises during physical activity, helping to cool the body efficiently.
The correct thermoregulatory response that is stimulated when body temperature rises during physical activity is sweating. Sweating is the body's way of cooling off by releasing moisture onto the skin's surface, which then evaporates and carries away heat.
Additionally, the sweat glands help prevent overheating by increasing sweat secretion, allowing the body to maintain a stable internal temperature even during strenuous activities.
The __________ is a clear, watery fluid that helps to maintain the intraocular pressure of the eye and provides nutrients for the avascular lens and cornea.
The answer is the aqueous humor.
The fluid between the cornea and the anterior vitreous is called aqueous humor, maintains the intraocular pressure of the eye.
What is aqueous humor?The lens is bathed in and fed by the aqueous humor, which also regulates eye pressure. Since the lens and cornea do not have a blood supply, the aqueous humor transports nutrients to those tissues in place of the blood.
The humor is two fluid-like fluids that fill the human eye and maintain the eyeball's shape and ocular pressure. A fluid that resembles water called aqueous humor is present in front of the lens.
Therefore, aqueous humor, a transparent, watery fluid, fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the lens, which are located in front of the lens.
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A pregnant mother recently had an ultrasound that indicated massive defects in the formation of her unborn baby’s heart. Other oddities were noted in the spinal cord region, the kidneys, and the formation of the facial features. She had an amniocentesis to examine the baby’s karyology, and it was noted that there was a deletion of a small piece of one chromosome. The doctors advised her that she would likely miscarry. The devastated parents consult you as a genetic advisor on the likelihood that a future pregnancy would end similarly. What advice do you give this unfortunate couple?
The mutation was probably a germ line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children
The advice that can be given to the couple is that the mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children. The correct option is D.
What is germ-line mutation?A gene change in a body's reproductive cell (egg or sperm) that becomes incorporated into the DNA of the offspring's cells. Parents pass on germline mutations to their children.
Endogenous factors such as cellular replication errors and oxidative damage frequently cause germline mutations.
This damage is rarely repaired imperfectly, but it can occur frequently due to the high rate of germ cell division. Endogenous mutations in sperm are more common than in ova.
The couple can be advised that the mutation was most likely a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
The mutation was probably a somatic mutation that occurred only in the cells of the baby’s heart, so they should try to have more children.The mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that occurs in all of the mother’s egg cells, so they should NOT try to have more children.The mutation was probably a somatic mutation in the mother that she passed on to her baby, so they should NOT try to have more children.The mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children.The mutation was probably a somatic mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children."Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you not expect to observe in Tony"A. jaundiceB. increased clotting timeC. decrease in plasma protein productionD. portal hypertension and ascitesE. All of the answers are correct.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Cirrhosis of the liver causes scar tissue to gradually replace your healthy liver cells, it heavily affects the platelets. "Initially patients may experience fatigue, weakness, and weight loss. During later stages, patients may develop jaundice (yellowing of the skin), gastrointestinal bleeding, abdominal swelling, and confusion." It also increases clotting. But it does not affect the plasma.
The signs that would not expected to observe in Tony is decrease in plasma protein production. The correct option is C.
What is liver cirrhosis?The scarring (fibrosis) of the liver that results from chronic liver injury is called cirrhosis. The liver cannot function correctly because of the scar tissue.
Because it develops after earlier stages of liver damage from illnesses like hepatitis, cirrhosis is sometimes referred to as end-stage liver disease.
The most common causes of cirrhosis are prolonged alcohol consumption or diseases like hepatitis B or C that cause liver damage. Usually, the harm caused by cirrhosis cannot be reversed.
However, if it is identified early enough and treated appropriately, there is a potential of delaying the progression.
Jaundice, a longer clotting time, ascites, portal hypertension, and increased clotting time are the symptoms that one may anticipate seeing in Tony.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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An explosion of a fuel tanker has resulted in melting of clothing on the driver and extensive full-body burns. The client is brought into the emergency department alert, denying pain, and joking with the staff. Which is the best interpretation of this behavior?
A, The client is in hypovolemic shock.B, The client has experienced extensive full-thickness burns.C, The paramedic administered high doses of opioids during transport.D, The client has experienced partial-thickness burns.
The correct answer would be option B, The client has experienced extensive full thickness burns.
The client is brought into the emergency department alert denying pain, and joking with the staff. The client has experienced extensive full thickness burns.
Explanation:
Extensive Full thickness burns are the burns that are caused by heavy fire penetration in the body. These burns not only destroy the epidermis layer of the skin, but also the dermis layer of the body. It may also go to fat layer beneath the skin.
So when the driver who had the extensive full thickness burns was brought to the emergency, and he was denying pain and was joking with the staff, it means that the extensive burns has put his body in narcosis, in which the pain is so high that the person just can't feel that. Due to full thickness burns, the body goes into narcosis.
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If the cusps of an atrioventricular valve are damaged or functionally impaired so that they do not close completely during the normal point in the cardiac cycle, blood may flow backwards. This is called
Answer:
Regurgitation
Explanation:
When talking about having a healthy cardiovascular system, valves play a very important role, since they are the ones in charge of the correct supply of oxygen rich blood that is moving through the heart. If case there is a medical condition that affects the valves the patient can have symptoms such as fatigue or shortness of breath.
It is necessary to select the appropriate treatment because this condition can be life threatening.
A 16-year-old client is highly disruptive in class and has been in trouble at home. The parent recently found the adolescent torturing a cat. When questioned, the adolescent laughed. What condition might the client be suffering from?
Based on the given information, the 16-year-old client may be suffering from conduct disorder. Conduct disorder is a mental health disorder characterized by persistent and repetitive behaviors that violate the rights of others or societal norms.
Children with conduct disorder (CD) exhibit persistent patterns of violence towards others as well as flagrant disregard for social norms at home, school, and among peers. These rules infractions may constitute criminal offences and lead to arrest.
These behaviors may include aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, lying, theft, and other forms of deceitful and disruptive conduct.
The a cat and laughing when questioned about it is a concerning sign of conduct disorder. It is important for the adolescent to receive appropriateact of torturing treatment and therapy to address their behavior and prevent any further harm to themselves or others.
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A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
a) "You must have the second one in 1 year and the third the following year."b) "You must have the second one in 2 weeks and the third in 1 month."c) "You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d) "You must have the second one in 6 months and the third in 1 year."
Answer:
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."
Explanation:
When going for a hepatitis B vaccine, it comes in three doses. The firs dose is being shot in the arm ( usually ), then it's followed by a second does that comes a month later. The third dose is injected 5 months after the second dose. It all depends on person's age and the brand of injection, but it's usually safe to say that 3rd shot should occur at least 16 weeks after the 1st shot, and at least 8 weeks after the 2nd shot.
Tubuloglomerular feedback, What are the smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole that are adjacent to the macula densa?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Juxtaglomerular cells or the granular cells
Explanation:
In the juxtaglomerular apparatus which is formed by the distal convoluted tubule and the glomerular afferent tubule contains specialized epithelial cells which detect the concentration of the sodium ions in the fluid and contract the afferent arteriole.
The juxtaglomerular cells are derived from the smooth muscle cells of the afferent arterioles present adjacent to the macula dense which is involved in the production of the renin when the blood pressure falls and thus increases the blood pressure.
Thus, Juxtaglomerular cells are the correct answer.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing the differences among the various diuretic agents. Which would the instructor cite as a difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?
a. potassium losses are greater with spironolactone than with hydrochlorothiazide.
b. Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.
c. Spironolactone is more likely to be taken with a potassium supplement.
d. The two diuretics act in different parts of the nephron
The correct answer is B: Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.
Further Explanation:
When a patient is given the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide they will lose more potassium in their body than if they were given the diuretic spironolactone. A diuretic medication is used when a person is having urinary issues.
Potassium is important in the body and a needed vitamin for the body to work correctly. It is important that a pharmacist knows a patients history before dispensing medications. If the patient has a history of low potassium the patient should not be given hydrochlorothiazide.
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The most significant difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide is that they function in different sections of the nephron. In addition, potassium loss is higher with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Explanation:The pharmacology instructor would cite multiple differences between the diuretic agents spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide. The most significant difference, however, lies in that these two diuretics act in different parts of the nephron (option d). Specifically, spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and works in the distal tubules and collecting ducts, while hydrochlorothiazide works in the distal convoluted tubule.
Besides, it is important to note that potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone (option b). This is because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Patients often have to take a potassium supplement when on hydrochlorothiazide, but less so with spironolactone (refuting option c).
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Chuck works for Deepwater Drilling Corporation. While operating a Deepwater drill, Chuck suffers an injury. Under state workers' compensation laws, Chuck will be compensated only if
a. he does not have health insurance.
b. he is completely disabled.
c. his injury was accidental.
d. his injury was intentional.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C
C. his injury was accidental
Explanation:The law states that an employee is entitled to statutory benefits from the employer when the employee suffers a personal injury by accident in the course of working for the employer.
So Chuck will only be compensated if the injury was by accident in the course of working and not intentionally.
Sarah Buchanan is a nursing student who is doing a home health care nursing clinical. She is assigned to visit Ted Wall, a 50-year-old black man who is in the late stage of AIDS. His wife Sheri is also 50 years old and is raising their daughter’s two children who are 3 and 5 years of age. Sheri does not work outside the home. Ted is receiving Social Security benefits. The mother of the children is in jail for dealing drugs. The children’s father has not been involved with them at all. Sarah determines that this is an example of what type of family?
Answer:
Alternative Family
Explanation:
Alternative family is a relatively new evolved type of family structure that include family life types that are entirely different from the usual traditional family that consists of a father, a mother and the children. Alternative family is a non—traditional family type that embraces models of family life, such as lesbian/gay families, single—parent households, adopting individuals, women—headed families, IVF etc.
In the traditional family model or nuclear family, the man is meant to be the main provider of the needs of the family, and to be supported by the wife, while the wife is to provide home care to the children and the husband. In the case cited in the question, the family life seen in Ted’s family is in contrast with what an ideal traditional family model should look like. It is an example of an alternative family.
Final answer:
Ted Wall's family, being cared for by Sarah Buchanan, is an example of C. Extended family, where multiple generations provide mutual support and share responsibilities.
Explanation:
Sarah Buchanan has determined that Ted Wall's family is an example of an extended family. This family structure includes at least three generations sharing a household or providing support to each other, even if they do not live under the same roof. In this case, Ted and Sheri are caring for their grandchildren while their mother is in jail, and the family is possibly reliant on Ted's Social Security benefits. Extended families often share the economic and child-rearing responsibilities, which is seen in Ted and Sheri's situation with their daughter's children.
When evaluating information taught about conception and fetal development, the patient verbalizes understanding about transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube and into the cavity of the uterus with which statement?
Answer:
"It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus."
Explanation:
Hi! The answer to your question is "It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus." This is because the transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube is 3 days.
A client with a diagnosis of hemolytic anemia has gone to a community-based laboratory for follow-up blood work. The lab technician confirms with the client that hematocrit is one of the components of the blood work. The client replies, "I thought the point of the blood work was to see how many red blood cells I have today." How could the technician best respond to the client’s statement?A) "This result will tell your care provider about the number of red blood cells in a given quantity of your blood plasma."
B) "Your hematocrit measures the average size of your red blood cells and indirectly measures your oxygen-carrying capacity."
C) "The result will indicate how many of your red blood cells are new and young and will indicate your body's production rate of red cells."
D) "The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood."
Answer:
D) "The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood."
Explanation:
When going for a blood work, people diagnosed with anemia usually check their hematocrit.
The hematocrit is a test that reveals the mass of red blood cells in a person's blood count. It is used to determine whether or not a person has anemia. If the percentage of red blood cells is abnormally low, a person is diagnosed with anemia. The symptoms of anemia are paleness and weakness as well as fast heart rate and sensitivity to the cold.
The hematocrit specifically measures the proportion of one's blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, helping to determine if the body has an appropriate number of these critical oxygen-carrying cells.
Explanation:The best explanation that the technician could provide to the client's question would be option D: 'The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood.'
Hematocrit is a measure of the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells. It is typically measured as part of a complete blood count (CBC).
In essence, it provides information about the number and size of red blood cells and can help determine if the body has too many or too few red blood cells, which are essential for carrying oxygen throughout the body.
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Shelly just found out she is pregnant and is 5'4" and weighs 185 lbs. How many pounds should Shelly weigh at most when she delivers if she gains the recommended amount of weight based on her starting weight?a. 205 lbs.
b. 215 lbs.
c. 225 lbs.
d. 230 lbs.
Answer:
A. 205
Explanation:
205 because Underweight women who become pregnant are at a higher risk for delivery of low birth weight (LBW) infants, fetal growth, and
perinatal mortality. Pre Pregnancy underweight is also associated with
a higher incidence of various pregnancy complications, such as
antepartum hemorrhage, premature rupture of membranes, anemia,
endometriosis, and cesarean delivery.
The goal in prenatal nutritional counseling provided by WIC is to
achieve recommended weight gain by emphasizing food choices of
high nutritional quality; and for the underweight woman, by
encouraging increased consumption and/or the inclusion of some
calorically dense foods.
During pregnancy, folate requirements increase to 150% of non-pregnant needs in order to Multiple Choice aid in energy metabolism. prevent oxidative damage from increased free radical production. support increased DNA synthesis. deposit bone minerals.
Answer:
support increased DNA synthesis
Explanation:
Folic acid (folate) is a complex B vitamin. Along with vitamin B12, folic acid is required for the formation of normal red blood cells and for the synthesis of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), the genetic material of cells. Folic acid is also necessary for the normal development of the fetal nervous system.
Pregnant women or women of childbearing age should take folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of having a baby with a birth defect, especially neural tube defects. The folate serves to ensure a healthy pregnancy and good development of the baby. If a pregnant woman has folic acid deficiency, there is an increased risk of having a baby with a congenital spinal cord or brain defect (neural tube defect).
The most dangerous type of allergic reaction to food is
Answer:
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
it is very severe, warning!
I think the most dangerous is anaphylaxis because it impairs with your breathing and it also makes you breathe less.
Many of Joe's signs and symptoms can be related to the loss of glucose in his urine. Normally, urine does not contain glucose. When plasma glucose levels are elevated, however, some of the glucose from the plasma passes into the urine. Apply the principle of osmosis to explain why Joe was getting up all night to use the bathroom and why he has low blood pressure and signs of dehydration.
Choose the most accurate explanation for Joe's problem.
A. The frequent urination is happening because the urine contains a large volume of glucose. The loss of glucose from his plasma has decreased his blood volume.
B. The frequent urination is happening as part of a feedback loop to regulate his blood volume. It does not have anything to do with his plasma glucose.
C. The frequent urination is happening because his kidneys have stopped working. The kidney failure leads to low blood pressure.
D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
The option correct is D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
Principle of Osmosis: Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.Glucose in Urine: Normally, glucose is reabsorbed in the kidneys and does not appear in urine. However, when blood glucose levels are very high (as in uncontrolled diabetes), the kidneys cannot reabsorb all the glucose, leading to its presence in the urine (a condition known as glucosuria).Water Follows Glucose: Due to osmosis, the presence of glucose in the urine creates a high solute concentration in the urine. Water moves from the blood plasma (lower solute concentration) into the urine (higher solute concentration) to balance the solute levels.Increased Urination: The movement of water into the urine increases the volume of urine produced (polyuria), leading Joe to get up frequently during the night to urinate.Decreased Blood Volume: As water is drawn into the urine, it reduces the overall volume of water in the bloodstream, leading to a decrease in blood volume.Dehydration and Low Blood Pressure: The loss of blood volume results in dehydration. Dehydration can cause low blood pressure (hypotension) because there is less fluid circulating in the blood vessels.Thus, Joe's symptoms of frequent urination, low blood pressure, and signs of dehydration can all be explained by the osmotic effects of glucose in his urine drawing water out of his bloodstream.
Justin and Kenneth have been best friends for as long as they can remember. Kenneth loves to run, but Justin hates to exercise. Recently, they both went for an annual checkup at the doctor, and they are comparing their blood test results. Based on the information you know, which of the following is most likely true?A. Justin is going to develop health complications.B. Kenneth is going to develop health complications.C. Justin may have unnecessarily high levels of bad cholesterol.D. Kenneth may have unnecessarily high levels of bad cholesterol.
Answer: C.
Explanation: Down Below Is A List That Causes High Cholesterol
Poor dietObesityLack of exerciseSmokingAgeDiabetesHope this helps you and others have a good day!
Answer:
High cholesterol is normally due to what you eat meaning that that's already not an option because no information states their diets.
If Kenneth loves running then he shouldn't develop health problems because it sounds as if he is healthy.
This pretty much leaves us A because Justin may develop health problems if he truly thinks exercise is that irrelevant that he hates it.
Hope this helps.... :)
.
Which is the first step in treating a drug abuse problem?
acknowledging the problem
exploring treatment options
supervised medication
detoxification
Answer:
The first step in treating a drug abuse problem is acknowledging the problem.
Explanation:
A is the answer because without acknowledging the problem you can't explore treatment options, supervise medication, or get detoxification without acknowledging the problem first.
Hope this helps!! Good Luck! :)
A federal qualification of HMOs is __________, and those that are federally qualified must provide or arrange for basic services for members as needed and without limitations on time, cost, frequency, extent, or nature of services provided.
HMOs must provide basic services to members without service limitations, offering a viable alternative to fee-for-service systems by reimbursing providers based on patient numbers and reducing moral hazard and adverse selection concerns.
Explanation:A federal qualification of HMOs is that they must provide or arrange for basic services for members as needed and without limitations on time, cost, frequency, extent, or nature of services provided. In contrast to the fee-for-service health financing system, Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs) reimburse medical care providers based on the number of patients rather than the cost of services. This approach aims to reduce moral hazard and combat adverse selection in insurance markets, where the likelihood of care needed is unevenly known between insurance buyers and the company. Healthcare providers, thus, have the incentive to allocate resources efficiently and prevent overutilization while ensuring the quality of care.
Under HMOs, providers receive a fixed payment per person enrolled, encouraging them to limit unnecessary services while managing care responsibly. As healthcare provision shifts, many doctors are now compensated through a combination of managed care and fee-for-service, which includes a flat amount per patient with additional payments for specific health conditions.
How Can Disorders Be Treated in Children and Adolescents? Which of the following are positive effects associated with using central nervous system stimulants, such as Ritalin, to help treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children?
A. They decrease distractibility and overactivity.
B. They are associated with increased happiness, social adeptness, and academic success.
C. They cause a small increase in positive behaviors and a small decrease in negative behaviors.
D. They increase attention and ability to concentrate.
Answer:
- Disorders can be treated with psychotherapy and also with medicine.
- The possitive effects of using central nervous system stimulants such as Ritalin, are:
A. They decrease distractibility and overactivity.
D. They increase attention and ability to concentrate.
Explanation:
Ritalin is a medicine that is sometimes recomended for treating ADHD, as a stimulants for the nervous system, it can help kids concentrate and be able to focus in particualr activities. Kids or adolescents that suffer from this disorder find it hard to concentrate, and to control their impulsivity or constant need to move. This help kids performance better at school, because it decreases overactivity and for instance also distracatibility and help them be seated and concentrate in school activities.
According to the commonsense models of illness, an individual’s belief about the possibility of managing or treating an illness is termed:
a. consequence/symptoms.
b. control/cure.
c. identity/name.
d. cause/source.
Answer:
B. control/cure
Explanation:
It is known that there are medical conditions which are difficult to deal with, that is why it is necessary that patients undergo an appopriate control in order to have a better quality of life. One example of these conditions can be diabetes which requires an entire change in lifestyle and a suitable control in order to enhance the patient's life.
Most of the oxygen in the atmosphere results from the process of
Answer:
photosynthesis
Explanation:
plants and other organisms convert sunlight into oxygen
Final answer:
Most atmospheric oxygen comes from photosynthesis, a process by which plants and bacteria convert CO₂ and water into oxygen, facilitated by sunlight. Oxygen accumulation started about 2.4 billion years ago, and the process supports life by creating the ozone layer.
Explanation:
Most of the oxygen in the atmosphere results from the process of photosynthesis, which is performed by plants and photosynthetic bacteria. This essential process operates through the conversion of carbon dioxide and water into organic materials and molecular oxygen (O₂) using sunlight. The general reaction for photosynthesis is CO₂ + H₂O + hv (light energy) → (CH₂O) + O₂. Through this process, not only is oxygen produced, but we also get the creation of the ozone layer, which consists of ozone (O₃). This layer protects Earth from the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation, making the planet hospitable for life.
The accumulation of free oxygen in our atmosphere began around 2.4 billion years ago. Prior to that time, Earth's atmosphere contained little to no free oxygen, and geological processes alone would have resulted in an atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide, much like Venus. The presence of free oxygen in Earth's atmosphere is a direct result of the activity of photosynthetic organisms over billions of years, altering the composition of our atmosphere significantly.