Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle refers to diastole, would be, B: false.
Explanation:
The cardiac cycle is defined as the process by which the heart fills up with both oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood, and pumps one towards the lungs for oxygenation and the other towards the body, to delived oxygen and other nutrients to the organs. In order to accomplish this function, the heart has two parts in its cycle, the sistole and diastole. The sistole is the part of the cycle when the heart literally squeezes its chambers, both the atria and mostly the ventricles, to pump out the blood present in them. Distole is the part of the cycle when the chambers relax, and open to their fullest extent, to permit the entrance of the necessary blood from the vessels, so that a new cycle can begin. This is why the answer would be false. Diastole is when the heart is relaxed and getting filled with blood.
Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
In terms of general training, the idea is always go from broader to specific. In that sense, power exercises will allow the body to start mobilizing large groups of muscles, and not focus on only one region, or one specific muscle. According to all the research on proper training, and the correct order in which these two types of exercises: power training and strength training, should be, it says that power training comes first, because power training allows for large groups of muscles to mobilize and thus will maximize the capabilities of the muscles. Then, strength exercises will be initiated to work on specific muscles, or much smaller groups of muscles. This is why the answer is A.
What is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types with the purpose of performing one or more specific physiological functions?
A. Cell
B. Tissue
C. Chemical
D. Organ
Answer:
The correct answer is D. Organ
Explanation:
An organ is made up of two or more tissue to perform one or more specific physiological functions. Organs can be made up of four type of tissue nervous, epithelium, muscular and connective tissue.
Most of the organ contains all four tissue for example small intestine. Internal wall of small intestine is made up of epithelium tissue which is surrounded by smooth muscles and connective tissue containing neurons.
It performs different function like secretion of digestive enzymes and absorption of nutrients from digested food in the body. Muscle tissues have the function in peristalsis movement to pass the digested food further in the colon.
An organ is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types, designed to perform specific physiological functions.
Explanation:An anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types with the purpose of performing one or more specific physiological functions is known as an organ. Each tissue is a collection of similar cells that work together to carry out a specific role. Multiple tissues collaborate within an organ to perform complex functions critical to the body's health and maintenance. For instance, the human heart, comprising muscular tissue, nervous tissue, and connective tissue, pumps blood through the body.
To illustrate further, within the human body, various organs form part of organ systems which work together to perform broad physiological functions. The kidneys, which include smooth muscle tissue and various types of connective and epithelial tissues, filter waste from the blood and regulate bodily fluids, serving the larger excretory system.
What does the specific gravity of the urinalysis test?
Answer:
Explanation:
A urinalysis can be define as a specific test of the urine. It is used to detect and manage a wide range of diseases and disorders, such as urinary tract infections, function of the kidney and diabetes.
The specific gravity test is a kind of urinalysis that checks the ratio of urine density compared to that of the density of water. It gives an idea about the kidney's capacity and ability to concentrate the urine. It is the routine part of the urinalysis. The range of reference for specific gravity is 1.005-1.030.
What are the tiny functioning units found within the cytoplasm called?
A. Organisms
B. Organ systems
C. Organelles
D. Organs
Answer:
C. Organelles
Explanation:
A cell is the structural and functional unit of all the living organisms. Every eukaryotic cell contains the tiny units located in the cytoplasm of a cell is called organelles. Examples of organelles are the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus.
These organelles are bounded by a unit membrane, they perform a specific function for the cell.
For example, the nucleus controls the activities of the cell, mitochondria works as a powerhouse of the cell, chloroplast present in green plants that performs the function of photosynthesis.
Antigens are molecules that react with components of the adaptive immune system. Antigens that can initiate the adaptive immune response are called:
a. Haptens
b. Immunogens
c. Cytokines
d. Lymphocytes
Answer:
The correct answer is b. Immunogens
Explanation:
Immunogens are the antigens that can trigger the immune response in the body once gets inside the body. Any antigen having capacity to excite a immune response against them is called immunogens but not every antigen is immunogen.
An antigen is called immunogen when it has some characteristic features like foreignness, high molecular weight and chemical complexity. An immunogen can initiate both innate and adaptive immune response. Adaptive immune response is memory based and very specific for any particular immunogen.
Some common immunogens are: bacteria, virus, drugs, chemicals, dust, toxins.
The neonate is stimulated to take its first breath by....
SELECT ALL CORRECT OPTIONS
OPTION A the buildup of CO2 Ãn the blood and csf
OPTION B the demand for oxygen
OPTION C a reflex arc triggered by the emergence of the head
OPTION D none of these
Answer: OPTION A the buildup of CO2 in the blood and csf
OPTION B the demand for oxygen
Explanation:
The high concentration of carbon dioxide levels in the blood and in the cerebrospinal fluid. Also the low oxygen levels stimulates the respiratory center of the brain to trigger the newborn to take the breath. The first birth initiate within the 10 seconds of the birth after the event when mucus is aspirated out from the child nose and mouth.
Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute, would be, A: True.
Explanation:
When the body is at rest, usually, the heart should be beating between 60 to 70 beats per minute. Variations in these numbers will depend on the activity the person is doing, and other circumstances that may affect it. However, the heart has its own regulatory system, and its beats should never, under normal circumstances, reach over a 100 bpm. If this happens, if the heart, for no reason (excesive exercise, use of certain medication to produce tachycardia, drugs) starts going up the speed measurement to over 100, it is really dangerous, and the condition is known as tachycardia. This is why the answer is true.
The patient is experiencing steatorrhea (fat in the stool). Test show that the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts is normal and the absorption of orally administered glucose is normal. A disorder in which of the following is most likely to be present?
A. Brush border enzyme level
B. Gastric motility
C. Ileal motility
D. Pancreatic enzyme secretion
E. Villus surface area
Answer:
The best answer from the choices given here, for the question: A disorder in which of the following is most likely to be present, would be, D: Pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation:
The process of fat digestion, and especially of absorption, is a pretty complex one, because there are many steps that must take place in order for the body to reduce complex lips into their most basic units, and use them. As such, aside from pH in the stomach, and the contact with lingual lipase, which starts the process of unwinding of the lipidic structures, most of the absorption of these nutrients happens in the small intestine and vital to it is the mixing of pancreatic enzymes, especially lipase, to break down the unions enough that the mycelles are formed and the villi can capture these nutrients to pass them on to the lymphatic system. Usually steatorrhea, which is presence of fats in the stool, happens for several different reasons, but in this patient, given the characteristics, it is evident that he is having problems with the secretion of pancreatic lipase, and the fats are not breaking up so that the small intestines cannot absorb them.
Final answer:
A disorder in pancreatic enzyme secretion is most likely to be present in a patient with steatorrhea when bile salt circulation and glucose absorption are normal. Pancreatic lipases are essential for fat digestion; their deficiency can lead to fat excretion in the stool.
Explanation:
The patient is experiencing steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool, indicative of a problem with lipid digestion and absorption. Considering the given test results that show normal enterohepatic circulation of bile salts and normal absorption of glucose, a disorder in pancreatic enzyme secretion is most likely to be present. Pancreatic enzymes, especially lipases, are crucial for breaking down dietary fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed in the intestine. Without sufficient pancreatic enzyme activity, triglycerides are not properly hydrolyzed, leading to their excretion in the stool as fat.
Lipid absorption typically occurs in the small intestine with the assistance of bile salts that emulsify dietary fats, making them accessible to pancreatic lipases. However, since bile salt circulation is normal in this patient, the condition suggests a deficiency in the enzymes required for lipid digestion rather than a problem with bile salts or intestinal surface area for absorption.
The pattern of most hormone secretion is described to be _____________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Pulsatile secretion
Explanation:
Pulsatile secretion refers to the regular pattern in which certain cell types secrete cellular products as their secretions.
Generally, the cellular secretions are the intercellular signaling molecules like neurotransmitters and hormones.
Some of the examples of pulsatile secretions are gonadotropin-releasing hormone, insulin, growth hormone, glucocorticoids, and thyrotropin.
Which of the following not only flexes the hip but also extends the knee joint?
a. satorius
b. psoas major
c. tenor fasciae latae
d. gracilis
Answer:
a. satorius
Explanation:
The sartorius muscle is a two-joint muscle that moves both the hip and knee joints. Although anatomically considered a thigh extensor, its contraction actually causes a flexion of the hip joint. This is due to its location in the anterior (extensor) compartment of the thigh. Additionally, it is involved in abduction and external rotation of the hip joint.
In the knee joint, it forces an internal flexion and rotation. Flexion movement is the result of tendon insertion into the knee joint behind the flexor-extensor axis. When all five movements are performed simultaneously the legs cross in meditation position. Thus, the muscle is most easily palpable in this position.
In hypertension, it is the __________ pressure that causes the injuries to the cardiovascular system.
a. systolic
b. diastolic
c. afterload
d. preload
e. Both A and B
f. Both A and C
g. Both C and D
Answer:
A. systolic
Explanation:
It is the systolic pressure that causes the injuries to the cardiovascular system.
Having a high systolic pressure for a long period of time can increase your risk of having significant cardiovascular problems, such as a heart attack or stroke.
A hematocrit of 30 would indicate
a) anemia
b) increased number of RBC
c) polycythemia
d) decreased number of WBC
e) increased number of Platetets
Answer:
a) anemia
Explanation:
The hematocrit is a measure of the volume of erythrocytes compared to the total blood volume.
The normal hematocrit levels are:
Men: 40 - 54 %
Women: 36 - 48 %
Children: 37 - 45 %
In all cases, a hematocrit of 30 is a low level. That means that the person has fewer Red Blood Cells in their blood than normal, which is characteristic of anemia.
This drug used for treating hypertension acts by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a vasoconstrictor.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. calcium channel blocker
c. ACEi
d. digitalis
Answer:
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
ACEi are a group of drugs that inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme. This enzyme is produced in the lung and converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II which is a potent vasoconstrictive peptide that helps to narrow the vessels and also stimulates aldosterone secretion. This mechanism normally helps to raise blood pressure.
Examples of ACEi are captopril, enalapril, lisinopril.
Compare and describe briefly the healthcare system of United States
and China?
Answer:
In the United States there is no National Health Service. If someone gets ill, it's likely they will have to pay for their treatment.
The US government does fund two kinds of health plans though: Medicare and Medicaid while in China it consists of both public and private medical institutions and insurance programs. About 95% of the population has at least basic health insurance coverage.
Stains formed outside the tooth structure and are removable by a prophy.
Answer:
The correct term is - extrinsic stain.
Explanation:
Extrinsic stains are normally present on the surface of a tooth and occur due to taking pigmented beverages such as coffee, tea, carbonated drinks, caramel coloring, and foods. Smoking cigarettes is also one of the reasons that can cause an extrinsic stain.
This can be removed by dentists or professionals like hygienists. The stain particles act on the outer surface of the teeth and pigmented them which cause stain yellowish or brownish in individuals.
Thus, the correct answer is - extrinsic stain.
What is the mechanism of aldosterone?
a. It causes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
b. It activates angiotensin.
c. It stimulates the secretion of renin.
d. It stimulates the secretion of water
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex, in the adrenal gland.
Aldosterone is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system which helps to maintain blood pressure.
When renal blood flow drops, juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney convert prorenin into renin. Renin then converts angiotensinogen (released by the liver) into angiotensin I, that then is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme in the lung.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictive peptide that helps to narrow vessels and also stimulates aldosterone secretion.
At this point, aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion (to maintain electrolyte balance).
The final result is an increase in extracellular fluid volume and therefore in blood pressure.
Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) sinuses.
C) discontinuous capillaries.
D) vasa vasorum.
E) fenestrated capillaries.
Answer:
The correct answer is E) fenestrated capillaries
Explanation:
Capillaries with perforated linings are called fenestrated capillaries. These capillaries are found in those tissues where molecules are require to be exchanged continuously between the tissue and the blood like in kidney, endocrine gland and small intestine.
These capillaries plays important role in secretion and absorption because they are more permeable than continuous capillaries and helps in the movement of large molecules across it. These capillaries have diameter between 70-80 nm.
Fenestrated capillaries which are present in glomerulus of kidney helps in filtration of waste product from the blood. In intestine these capillaries helps in absorbing the nutrient in the body.
Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining that have gaps between the cells lining the blood vessels. This allows for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells.
Explanation:Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining, which means they have gaps between the cells that line the blood vessels. These gaps allow for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells. Fenestrated capillaries, on the other hand, have small pores or openings in their lining, but no significant gaps. Sinuses are large, open spaces within tissues or organs. Perforated capillaries and vasa vasorum are not recognized terms in the context of blood vessels.
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Bronchi split into bronchioles as they extend into the lungs. ________ have cartilage in their wall for support and ___________ do not.
Answer:
Bronchi: Bronchioles
Explanation:
Bronchus is a part of the human respiratory system. It is the air passage that guide the air into the lungs. The bronchus branches into the right and the left bronchus which further branches into the secondary and tertiary bronchi.
The walls of the bronchi has the hyaline cartilage for support. As the bronchi becomes narrower, the hyaline cartilage in the walls decreases. The narrow branched bronchi that can not be supported by a hyaline cartilage are known as the bronchioles.
Consumption of alcohol, particularly larger volumes, causes increased urination. This is primarily due to inhibition of the secretion of which hormone?
Select one:
a. Aldosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Adrenaline
d. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
e. Renin
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
ADH, also called arginine vasopressin is a hypothalamic hormone (storaged in the posterior pituitary) that regulates body’s osmotic balance.
ADH increases the amount of solute-free water reabsorbed from the one filtrated in the kidneys.
Also, increases peripheral vascular resistance due to the constriction of arterioles, and therefore raises blood pressure.
Ethanol (alcohol) reduces secretion of ADH by blocking voltage-gated calcium channels. As a result, urine volume increases and this may cause dehydration.
Each of the following statements concerning the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except one, identify the exception
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by cells in the heart.
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium loss at the kidneys
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces the sensation of thirst
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide suppresses ADH secretion.
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide increases aldosterone secretion.
Answer:
The correct answer is E.
Explanation:
The main function of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is to reduce extracellular fluid volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex, that is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system which helps to maintain blood pressure. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and potassium excretion, and as a result an increase in extracellular fluid volume and in blood pressure.
In conclusion, ANP reduces aldosterone secretion.
All provided statements about the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) are true except for the one claiming it increases aldosterone secretion. In reality, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion.
Explanation:The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) has several important functions related to fluid and electrolyte balance. ANP is indeed produced by cells in the heart (A) and promotes sodium loss in the kidneys (B), which can help to lower blood volume and pressure. ANP also reduces the sensation of thirst (C) and acts to suppress secretion of the antidiuretic hormone ADH (D). These effects all work together to reduce fluid and sodium retention. However, the statement that atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) increases aldosterone secretion (E) is not correct. In fact, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone is another hormone that promotes sodium and fluid retention, so ANP works against it to reduce these effects.
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What is elbow tunnel?
Answer:
The ulnar nerve in the elbow, it travel through the tunnel as tissue which is known as cubital tunnel. It basically passes under the bump inside our elbow.
This type of the bony bump is also known as medial epicondyle. Ulnar nerve is the three important nerve in our arm.
In our body, the spot at which the nerve run due to the medial epicondyle it is basically known as funny bone. It is occur in the elbow part of our body due to the compressed and irritation in the arm.
The right side of the heart acts as a pump for the
A. pulmonary circulation.
B. systemic circulation.
C. coronary circulation.
D. hepatic portal circulation.
E. cerebral circuit.
Answer:
The correct option is: A. pulmonary circulation
Explanation:
The heart is muscular organ that is present in the central compartment of the thoracic cavity. It is responsible for pumping blood in the circulatory system through the blood vessels.
The right atrium of the heart pumps the deoxygenated blood received from the body into the right ventricle, which further pumps the received deoxygenated blood into pulmonary artery that carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
The pulmonary veins then carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left heart. This is known as the Pulmonary circulation.
Therefore, the right heart acts as a pump for the pulmonary circulation.
The right side of the heart is involved in pulmonary circulation, meaning it pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Option A. pulmonary circulation is the correct role of the right side of the heart.
Explanation:The right side of the heart is crucial for pulmonary circulation, which pertains to the process of moving deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. In contrast, the left side of the heart is responsible for systemic circulation, pumping oxygenated blood from the lungs to the rest of the body. This distinction is essential to understand how blood travels through the heart's chambers and the overall circulatory system.
When considering the options provided in the question, A. pulmonary circulation correctly defines the role of the right side of the heart. The blood pumped from here goes through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated. The rest of the options, including systemic circulation, coronary circulation, hepatic portal circulation, and the cerebral circuit, are not directly facilitated by the right side of the heart.
Furthermore, the thickness difference in the muscle walls between the heart's right and left sides is due to the required pressure to pump blood through the respective circuits. The left side has a thicker wall as it needs to pump blood throughout the body, whereas the right side, pumping to the closer lungs, has a thinner wall.
Which hormone is produced by the cell type indicated in the figure of a thyroid follicle, below?
Select one:
a. Calcitriol
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Calcitonin
e. Triiodothyronine (T3)
Answer:
The correct answer is e. Triiodothyronine
Explanation:
The thyroid follicles are located in the thyroides, is composed by follicular cells that secrete thyroid hormones.
The hormone produced by the follicular cells is T3 (Triiodothyronine) and T4 (Thyroxine). These hormones are later released into the bloodstream. The hormones are produced in response to TSH, the hormone secreted by the hypophysis which signals the thyroid to produce hormones.
Next to the follicles, there are parafollicular cells which are responsible for synthesizing and releasing calcitonina.
The antidiuretic hormone is released by the hypophysis.
Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D. It reaches the active state within the kidney, therefore, is completely separated of the thyroid.
Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called ___________.
Answer:
The correct term to use to fill in the blank fort he question: Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called:___, would be, tartar.
Explanation:
Because of bad mouth hyginie, and also due to other factors, some people tend to get a really tough mineralized plaque that can only be treated, once it forms, by dental professionals. These hardened plaques, which are now mineral deposits are known as tartar, and the problem with it is that tartar covers the tooth and becomes a binding site for further plaque and for bacteria that can cause other problems. This tartar can also be known as dental calculus and it is much tougher than plaque alone. Once tartar is formed, the teeth begin to stain and those stains cannot be removed because they are literally adhered to them. Only professional processes will remove tartar.
The hard mineral deposit that forms around the teeth is called dental calculus or tartar. It is the result of calcified plaque, which forms due to bacterial activity. Proper oral hygiene and professional cleaning are necessary to manage it. Option c is correct.
Dental calculus forms when plaque, a biofilm of bacteria, proteins, and carbohydrates, becomes hardened through calcification. This typically occurs due to the metabolic activity of bacteria such as Streptococcus mutans, which produce acids that facilitate the mineralization of plaque.
Over time, if plaque is not removed through regular oral hygiene practices like brushing and flossing, it can calcify into a tough, crusty deposit. Once formed, dental calculus cannot be removed by brushing alone and requires professional dental cleaning.
Complete question as follows:
Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called ___________.
a. Calcium
b. Plaque
c. Tartar
Visual perception is greatly dependent on experience.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Visual perception or vision is described as the ability of the brain of an individual to elucidate or interpret the light reflected from the objects in the surrounding environment.
According to the German physician and physicist, Hermann von Helmholtz, the vision or the visual perception is the result of the ability of an individual to make conclusions and assumptions from the incomplete insufficient information which is based upon past experiences.
Which of the following are involved with regulating pH of body fluids?
a) all of these
b) proteins
c) exhaling carbon dioxide
d) bicarbonate
e) excretion by the kidneys
Answer:
The correct answer is a) all of these
Explanation:
Human body developed many mechanisms to regulate the pH of the body fluid. Carbon dioxide in the blood forms carbonic acid which neutralize the extra base and decrease the pH of blood.
Bicarbonate ions in the blood helps in neutralizing the extra acid in the blood and is reabsorbed by kidneys. Excretion of excess H⁺ ions from kidney also helps in regulating the pH of body fluid.
Almost all the proteins acts as buffer because they have charged regions which can bind to H⁺ or OH⁻ ions thus provide buffering capacity to the blood.
Thus, the correct answer is a all of these.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are:
a. primary bronchi.
b. secondary bronchi.
c. tertiary bronchi.
d. bronchioles.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The trachea divides into 2 main primary bronchi (left and right bronchus). Then the right bronchus divides into 3 secondary bronchi (or lobar bronchi) and the left bronchus does it into 2 secondary bronchi.
All of the secondary bronchi divide into tertiary bronchi, also called segmental bronchi.
After that, the tertiary bronchi continue division to several branches until they become bronchioles (the smallest branches of the bronchial tree).
The bronchioles divide into terminal bronchioles, then respiratory bronchioles, then alveolar ducts and finally alveolar sacs, where gas exchange occurs.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. These are less than 1 millimeter in diameter and lead to small air sacs (alveoli) where gas exchange occurs.
Explanation:The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. The bronchial tree is a branching system of air passages that start from the trachea, branching into two primary bronchi, each leading to a lung. These primary bronchi further divide into secondary and tertiary bronchi, each getting smaller and reaching further into the lungs. The smallest of the branches, the bronchioles, are only about 1 millimeter or less in diameter and lead to small air sacs called alveoli where gas exchange takes place.
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The structure in the neck known as the "Adam's apple" is the
a. epiglottis.
b. cricoid cartilage.
c. glottis.
d. thyroid cartilage.
Answer:
d. thyroid cartilage.
Explanation:
The Adam's apple , also called the laryngeal prominence .
It is present in the neck of the human's body and it is a lump or which is made up of the thyroid cartilage , surrounding the larynx area .
Adam's apple is prominently visible in the neck of most of the males .
The shape of Adam's apple is like a bump present under the layer of the skin . In males , it is clearly visible and is palpable .
Part of the tooth visible in the oral cavity.
Answer:
The correct answer is clinical crown.
Explanation:
In supplementation to possessing very unique activities, each tooth exhibits a particular location and comprises specific configurations that help in its activity. All teeth, having distinct shapes, exhibits similar anatomical parts. Each tooth exhibit a clinical crown, that is, the part of the teeth visible in the oral cavity.
The other parts are the anatomic crown and root. The tooth is connected with the below present alveolar bone with the help of fibers called periodontal ligaments. Each tooth comprises the same four constituents, that is, dentin, enamel, pulp, and cementum.
A treatment for early nephropathy is ____________. It may even slow progression.
Answer:
The answer to the question: A treatment for early nephropathy is:____. It may even slow progression, would be: the use of pharmacotherapy with ACE´s (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors) and also with ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers).
Explanation:
Nephropathy is a condition most commonly found in patients with diabetes and it is characterized by a damage of the kidneys and their filtering function, due to constant exposure to high blood pressure, and high osmolarity due to presence of high levels of glucose in the filter. In order to reduce the damage caused by diabetes, and especially high blood pressure, a condition to which the kidneys are very susceptible, treatment today still goes straight to the use of angiotensin inhibitors, and blockers, to reduce the production of this enzyme that generates further increases in blood pressure. These are ACEs and ARBs.