The function of pulmonary ventilation is to ___________.
a. remove carbon dioxide from the blood.
b. maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
c. remove air from dead air space.
d. supply oxygen to the blood.
e. prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The function of pulmonary ventilation is to b. maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.

Explanation:

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs, so its main function is to maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. The air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. In the lungs, Inside the air sacs, oxygen moves across paper-thin walls to tiny blood vessels called capillaries and into your blood. That's how the oxygen gets into the bloodstream.

Answer 2
Final answer:

Pulmonary ventilation aids in gaseous exchange. It removes carbon dioxide from the blood, supplies oxygen to the blood, and maintains adequate alveolar ventilation.

Explanation:

The function of pulmonary ventilation is a combination of the options given. It includes the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood, supplying oxygen to the blood, as well as maintaining adequate alveolar ventilation. When you breathe, the process of pulmonary ventilation enables gaseous exchange, where oxygen is absorbed into the blood, and carbon dioxide, a waste product, is expelled from it. So the correct answer is a combination of a, b, and d.

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Related Questions

After an rna molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene. True or False

Answers

Answer:

After an RNA molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene. True

Explanation:

In a cell, the flow of information goes from DNA to RNA to protein. After an RNA molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene, portions called introns are removed and the remaining exons are spliced together to produce an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence. In a eukaryotic cell, translation occurs in the cytoplasm. A ribozyme, for example, is a biological catalyst made of RNA.

Which of these components of the human body can control heartbeat?
I.Epinephrine (Adrenaline),
II. ADH Hormone,
III. Nerves from the brain

Answers

it’s I. Adrenaline, because it makes the body react more quickly and to do that your blood flow needs to go faster. It also stimulates the body to use sugar for fuel.
Final answer:

Nerves from the brain control heartbeat.

Explanation:

The component of the human body that can control heartbeat is Nerves from the brain. The nerves from the brain carry electrical signals that regulate the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles, resulting in a coordinated heartbeat. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) and ADH Hormone do not directly control the heartbeat, although they can have an indirect effect on it by affecting the activity of the nerves or the heart muscles.

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____is the term applied when one gene interferes with the expression of another

Answers

Answer:

Epistasis

Explanation:

Sorry it its wrong

Under most conditions, the supply of energy by catabolic pathways is regulated by the demand for energy by anabolic pathways. Considering the role of ATP formation and hydrolysis in energy coupling of anabolic and catabolic pathways, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

Answers

Answer:

High levels of ADP act as an allosteric activator of catabolic pathways

Explanation:

The correct statement is that high levels of ADP act as an allosteric activator of catabolic pathways.

What is the atp yield for one mole of glucose oxidized by the pathway that uses the non-phosphorylating gapdh?

Answers

Answer:

Only 4 molecules of ATP are produced during non phosphorylation process.

Explanation:

Oxidative phosphorylation is a process which produces most of ATP that is produced during cellular respiration. Glycolysis produces 2 ATP molecules. Citric acid cycle produces 2 ATP molecules while during non-phosphorylation, only four ATP are produced which occurs in the absence of oxygen during anaerobic respiration.

Can a plant reproduce without another plant involved? Does the rock cycle have a beginning? What are two ways carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere?

Answers

Answer:

Yes, a plant can reproduce without another plant involved.

No, there is no beginning of rock cycle.

Two ways in which carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere are burning of fossil fuels such as petrol and coal etc and respiration process.

Explanation:

This type of reproduction occurs in non seed bearing plants such as ferns and mosses etc. These plants reproduce by the formation of spores. Spore formation is a type of asexual reproduction in which only one plant is involved. In cellular respiration, glucose molecule is broken down and energy is released with carbon dioxide gas. Fossil fuels are also responsible for the emission of carbon dioxide gas after burning in vehicles and industries.

Which of these is a factual statement about carbon? 1 point Burning rainforests helps restore equilibrium to the carbon cycle There is no relationship between carbon emissions and global climate change Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe Humans use far too much carbon-based fuel

Answers

Final answer:

The factual statement is 'Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe'. Carbon is integral to living organisms and is heavily used as fossil fuel, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels and thus, driving global climate change. Burning rainforests disrupts, rather than restores, the carbon cycle equilibrium.

Explanation:

The factual statement among the options provided is 'Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe'.

Carbon plays a vital role in the structure of macromolecules and is of primary importance to living organisms. Also, it's worth noting that humans have used carbon-based fuels extensively since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, leading to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. This increase has subsequently been associated with climate change, forming a direct relationship between carbon emissions and global climate alteration.

Moreover, the destruction of rainforests does not assist in restoring the equilibrium of the carbon cycle, but rather contributes to carbon dioxide release and further exacerbates climate change.

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Mutations are always
a. Good
b. Bad
c. Neutral
d. Natural occurrences

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Mutations can be good, bad, or neutral so the answer must be d, that they occur naturally. In any given environment many mutations can occur, but the mutation's effect on an ecosystem or being can vary. Mutation happen to people, diseases, animals, and even plants.

Final answer:

Mutations can be either good, bad, or neutral, and are always naturally occurring. Good mutations provide an evolutionary advantage, bad ones can cause diseases, and neutral ones have no significant impact on the organism's survival.

Explanation:

Mutations are often thought of in negative terms, but they can be good, bad, or neutral. They are also unquestionably natural occurrences. For example, certain mutations may offer an evolutionary advantage, thus fitting into the 'good' category. Other mutations can lead to life-threatening diseases, classifying them as 'bad'. Many mutations are 'neutral', meaning they do not significantly impact the organism's survival. Regardless of their effects, they are natural processes occurring at the genetic level.

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A protein that is normally localized in the cytoplasm has been engineered so that it will be secreted from the cell instead.
Which of the following represents the most likely pathway for the protein after it has been completely synthesized?

A. sER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment
B. rER \to secretory vesicle \to Golgi \to environment
C. rER \to Golgi \to sER \to cytoplasm \to environment
D. cytoplasm \to rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment
E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment

Answers

Answer:

E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment

Explanation:

A protein that is normally localized in the cytoplasm has been engineered so that it will be secreted from the cell instead will follow the following sequence:

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) (where the protien is being snthesized)-------------> Golgi apparatus (where the sorting and packaging of the protien occurs)-----------------------> Secretory vesicles-------------------------> Environment.

Hence E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment is the right answer.

Question 1 (1 point)
The diagram shows a bean plant growing in soil.



Which labels best complete the diagram?

Answers

Answer:

X: Positive gravitropism

Y: Negative gravitropism

Explanation:

i just did the quiz and got it correct

Answer: my boy syeddit is

The independent variable in this experiment was and the dependent variable was

Answers

Answer:

the independent variable is the experiment was MOLECULE SIZE, and the dependent variable was ABILITY TO DIFFUSE.

Explanation:

What is another common use of the food produced by plants?

Answers

Answer:

Food that produced by plants is common to be used for making products.

Final answer:

Plants are used for medicinal purposes, such as quinine for malaria, and for producing alcoholic beverages through fermentation. They also provide raw materials for industries and have cultural significance.

Explanation:

Aside from being a staple in our diet, plants serve a multitude of purposes in human life. One common use of the food produced by plants is for medicinal purposes. For instance, quinine, which is extracted from cinchona trees, has been used to treat conditions like malaria and to reduce fever and alleviate pain. Additionally, fermentation of plant sugars and starches is a traditional method used to create various alcoholic beverages, such as wine and beer. Moreover, plants are also vital for providing raw materials like timber, fibers, and oils for various industries, and for cultural and ceremonial uses in many societies.


Is the lumen of an artery, capillary or vein, large or small? Why?

Answers

Answer:

Arteries have thick walls composed of three distinct layers (tunica) Veins have thin walls but typically have wider lumen (lumen size may vary depending on specific artery or vein) Capillaries are very small and will not be easily detected under the same magnification as arteries and veins.

Explanation:

Final answer:

The size of the lumen varies among arteries, capillaries, and veins, designed according to their roles in the circulatory system. Arteries have smaller lumens to maintain blood pressure, while capillaries' tiny lumens facilitate exchange between blood and tissues, and veins have larger lumens for low-pressure return of blood to the heart.

Explanation:

The size of the lumen varies among arteries, capillaries, and veins based on their structure and function within the circulatory system. Arteries, being closer to the heart and receiving blood at a higher pressure, have thicker walls and consequently smaller lumens compared to veins. This smaller lumen helps maintain the pressure of blood flowing through the system. In contrast, veins have larger lumens and thinner walls, accommodating for the lower pressure of blood returning to the heart. Capillaries, the smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels, have the smallest lumens, with diameters just wide enough to allow single erythrocytes (red blood cells) to pass through. This size facilitates the exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues.

Arterioles, a type of small artery leading into capillaries, are termed resistance vessels due to their small lumen sizes slowing down blood flow, hence playing a critical role in regulating blood pressure. Veins, with their larger lumens, serve as reservoirs that return blood to the heart under lower pressure. Overall, the variation in lumen size across these vessels is crucial for the efficient functioning of the circulatory system, each serving a unique purpose tailored to its role in blood circulation.

How do the levels of thermal energy and speed differ between low- and high-friction surfaces?

Answers

Answer:

high friction surfaces have more movement which creates more heat on the surface, which means that there will be more thermal energy on a high-friction surface than on a low-friction surface.

Explanation:

Jacob and Monod were intellectually primed to draw the conclusions they did concerning regulation of the lac operon. In part, this was due to their fascination with mechanisms of enzyme regulation. They knew that the activity of some enzymes is regulated when their reaction product binds to the enzyme, changing its shape and therefore its activity. This knowledge allowed them to easily make the intellectual leap to propose _____.A) the existence of the CAP binding siteB) allosteric regulation of the repressorC) positive regulation of the lac operonD) the existence of the operatorE) co-transcribed and co-regulated genes of bacterial operons

Answers

Answer:

Jacob and Monod were intellectually primed to draw the conclusions they did concerning regulation of the lac operon. In part, this was due to their fascination with mechanisms of enzyme regulation. They knew that the activity of some enzymes is regulated when their reaction product binds to the enzyme, changing its shape and therefore its activity. This knowledge allowed them to easily make the intellectual leap to propose B) allosteric regulation of the repressor

Explanation:

When we talk about the mechanisms of enzyme regulation, we refer to allosteric regulation of the repressor. The Allosteric control of transcriptional regulatory proteins allows organisms to react to changes in environmental and metabolic conditions. Also, it is s a thermodynamic phenomenon. When it binds one molecule, the affinity with which a protein binds to a second molecule is altered.

Instinct theories of aggression would have the most difficulty accounting for 1.biochemical influences on aggression. 2.silent and social aggression in animals.3.unprovoked outbursts of aggression. 4.wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture.

Answers

Answer:

4.wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture.

Explanation:

According to instinct theory of aggression, aggression is an innate trait and people are born with varying levels of it. It is a result of biological drive for protecting ourselves from danger and is instinctual.

Instinct theory focuses more on the innate property of aggression thus it has most difficulty in explaining the effect of culture and environment on it. People in different cultures show different levels of aggression which can not be explained just on biochemical or genetic terms. Even two identical twins born and brought up in different culture might exhibit different levels of aggression.

Final answer:

Instinct theories of aggression struggle most with explaining the wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture, as these theories often overlook the profound impact of cultural and environmental factors on aggressive behavior.

Explanation:

The instinct theories of aggression would have the most difficulty accounting for wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture. Instinct theories often suggest aggression is a natural and inherent response, potentially overlooking the significant impact of cultural, social, and environmental factors. For example, while some cultures may value aggression and view it as a sign of strength or leadership, others may encourage peaceful resolution and cooperation, leading to lower levels of aggression. This cultural variability challenges the universality proposed by instinct theories. Additionally, the role of cultural norms, education, and societal expectations in shaping aggressive behavior indicates that aggression is not solely the product of innate tendencies but is significantly influenced by learned behaviors and cultural context.

Angiotensin II is a potent ____________ that helps regulate blood pressure. Angiotensinogen, is an inactive hormone synthesized and released continuously from the ____________ . Its activation, which occurs within the ____________ , is initiated by the enzyme renin. Renin is released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the ____________ in response to either (1) ____________ blood pressure (as detected by decreased stretch of ____________ within granular cells, or by decreased NaCl detected by ____________ within macula densa cells); or (2) stimulation by the ____________ division. The sequential action of renin and angiote

Answers

Answer:

Angiotensin II is a potein VASOCONSTRICTOR that helps regulate blood pressure. Angiotensinogen, is an inactive hormone synthesized and released continuously from the LIVER. Its activation, which occurs within the BLOOD, is initiated by the enzyme renin. Renin is released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the KIDNEYS in response to either (1) LOW blood pressure (as detected by decreased stretch of BARORECEPTORS within granular cells, or by decreased NaCl detected by CHEMORECEPTORS within macula densa cells); or (2) stimulation by the SYMPATHETIC  division. The sequential action of renin and angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) causes the formation of angiotensin II (the active form of the hormone).

Explanation:

Angiotensin is a peptide hormones that regulate blood pressure by causing increase in blood pressure through vasoconstriction. It is a part of the renin- angiotensin system that regulate the internal pressure of the blood. It is stimulated when the level of blood pressure reduces or there is an decrease in the sodium chloride in the blood. It effects is to vasoconstrict the blood vessels thereby increasing the blood pressure in the vessels. Angiotensinogen is the inactive hormone synthesized by the liver and upon activation through baroreceptors or chemoreceptors, the liver releases angiotensinogen into the blood stream to be ctivated by the enzyme secreted from the kidney's juxtaglumerular apparatusand then activated to teh angiotensinogen I, angiotensinoI is then activated into angiotensin II by the angiotensin II by the angiotensin converting enzyme. Angiotensin also causes the increase in the aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex to promote the retention of sodium by the kidneys, this also helps to increaee the blood pressure. Various receptors helps in signalling the body to a reduced blood pressure level. This includes the baroreceptors which are pressure receptors and detect changes in pressure of the blood; chemorecptors which are chemical receptors that detect the change in the concentration of sodium and chloride ion in the blood. All this function together with the sympathetic division of the CNS to help the body regulates its change in blood pressure in a given time.

The trait of medium-sized leaves in iris is determined by the genetic condition PP′. Plants with large leaves are PP, whereas plants with small leaves are P′P′. A cross is made between two plants each with medium-sized leaves. If they produce 80 seedlings, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected?

Answers

Answer:

20 large size leaves plants

40 medium sized leaves plants

20 small sized leaves.

Explanation:

PP = large leaves

P'P' = small leaves

PP' = medium leaves

PP' was crossed with another PP' plant:

PP'   x   PP'

progeny = PP, 2PP', and P'P'

PP = 1/4  x 80 = 20 large size leaves plants

PP' = 1/2 x 80 = 40 medium sized leaves plants

P'P' = 1/4 x 80 = 20 small sized leaves.

Hence the phenotypes would be:

20 large size leaves plants

40 medium sized leaves plants

20 small sized leaves.

Final answer:

In a cross between two iris plants both with medium-sized leaves, the expected phenotypes of the 80 seedlings would be approximately: 20 with large leaves, 40 with medium leaves, and 20 with small leaves.

Explanation:

This question revolves around the principles of Mendelian genetics and Punnett square analysis. When two plants with medium-sized leaves (genotype PP') are crossed, a Punnett square reveals that the possible genotypes of the offspring can be PP, PP', or P'P'. The genotypic ratio will be 1:2:1, respectively, meaning for every four offspring, one is expected to be PP (large leaves), two are expected to be PP' (medium leaves), and one is expected to be P'P' (small leaves). If 80 seedlings are produced, applying the genotypic ratio we can expect about 20 seedlings to have large leaves (PP), 40 to have medium leaves (PP'), and 20 to have small leaves (P'P').

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Which statement is incorrect regarding the genetic diversity of livestock?
a. The use of only the most productive breeds improves genetic diversity.
b. Livestock come from very few species.
c. The genetic diversity of livestock has declined during the past century.
d. Different breeds are adapted to different climatic conditions.
e. Different breeds are adapted to different diseases.

Answers

Answer:

A. The use of only the most productive breeds improves genetic diversity.

Darwin proposed a new theory of how evolution works. What theory is this and how does it work?

Answers

Answer:

Darwin defined evolution as "descent with modification," the idea that specs change over time to give rise to new species and share a common ancestor. The mechanism that Darwin proposed for evolution is natural selection.

Explanation:

I majored in Biology

In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to A. interbreed and produce fertile offspring. B. live in a common area. C. eat similar foods and possess a similar diet. D. express the exact same genes and phenotypic traits.

Answers

Answer:

In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to A. interbreed and produce fertile offspring

Explanation:

A group of organisms living in a common area is not enough to be classified in the same species. Eating similiar foods and possessing a similar diet either.  Biologocial concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange  between their gene pools. In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Two very closely related species that have diverged from each other quite recently shared a common ancestor recently in evolutionary time. They will persist only as distinct  biological species if they have reproductive isolation from one another.

Answer: interbreed and produce fertile offspring

Explanation: Because it make's sens is common knowledge :-)

A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of:_____

Answers

Answer:

A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of genetic drift.

Explanation:

Genetic drift is the change in allelle frequencies in a population due to chance events, more likely to occur in  small populations.Frequency of traits changes in a population due to chance events (random change). Unlike natural selection, which favors beneficial traits, genetic drift is random and can cause an increase in traits that are beneficial, detrimental, or neutral.

Hence,A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of genetic drift.

some one please help!! I am looking for a good short definition if possible:) What is a front?

Answers

Answer:

The boundary between two air masses that have different temperatures or humidity. In the mid-latitude areas of the Earth, where warm tropical air meets cooler polar air, the systems of fronts define the weather and often cause precipitation to form.

Explanation:

Scientific definition for front

Answer:

A weather front is a boundary separating two masses of air of different densities

Explanation:

Researchers studied mice embryos to determine whether the cells of the ear bones originated from the same embryonic cells as the cells that form the jaw in other vertebrates. Why would the researchers use mice instead of opossums or humans? Do the results from mice tell you something about your own ears? Why or why not?

Answers

The researchers will use mice instead of opossums or humans to determine whether the cells of the ear bones originated from the same embryonic cells as the cells that form the jaw in other vertebrates because in this type of experiment, organisms that are ideal are the ones that have a short life span, easy to be researched on and easy to mantain.

It will be very tedious and demanding to use opossums and humans in this type of practical experiment because,it is against the culture and norms guilding human living and existence to use humans as model organisms,opossums as well are very bad model organisms because unlike the mice,opossums are long lived and it will be very difficult to raise and maintain an opossum in a laboratory.

Humans and mice are both mammals just that human is a higher mammal but they share similar features in terms of pattern of development,though there is a clear difference during their early development,so because of the common ancestry shared by the mice and humans,the result of the experiment on the mice with share a close similarity with the pattern that is expected in humans.

Describe the location of the four chambers of the heart.

Answers

Answer:

The heart has four chambers: The right atrium receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right ventricle. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.

Explanation:

The four chambers of the heart are Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle.

The right atri.um is located in the upper right corner of the heart superior to the right ventric.le (superior to the right ventricle and anteromedial to the left atrium)

The left atriu.m is located in the posterior aspect of the right at.rium, next to the superior vena cava (superior to the left ventric.le, posterolateral to the right at.rium, posterior to the aortic root, and anterior to the esophagus)

The right ven.tricle is located in the lower right portion of the heart below the right at.rium and opposite the left ventri.cle (extends from the right atri.um to the ape.x of the heart)

The left ven.tricle is located in the bottom left portion of the heart below the left atr.ium, separated by the mit.ral valve (in a posterior and lateral location relative to the right ven.tricle)

Sorry for the periods in between the words, it kept saying it contained innappropriate words even though it didn't

In humans, babies that are born too small often lack the reserves to thrive, and babies that are too large are prone to difficult births.

Since babies at the extremes are less likely to survive, evolutionary pressures favor moderately-sized babies.

What type of selection is this an example of?

A. Artificial Selection
B. Directional Selection
C. Stabilizing Selection
D. Disruptive Selection

Answers

C) option is correct

Explanation:

Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection which favors intermediate genotype but eliminate extreme genotypes (inferior and superior)

Stabilizing selection is not a common phenomenon in the history of evolution of earth, so it is not a main reason of species diversity on earth

In the given example of humans, babies that are born too small lack the reserve to thrive (inferior genotype) and babies that are too large are prone to difficult births (superior genotype) whereas moderately-sized babies are favored (intermediate genotype) so this clearly reflects stabilizing selection

This part of the peripheral nervous system controls smooth muscle

Answers

Answer:  The autonomic nervous system controls smooth muscle of the viscera (internal organs) and glands. This picture shows the general organization of the autonomic nervous system. The preganglionic neuron is located in either the brain or the spinal cord. This preganglionic neuron projects to an autonomic ganglion.

Explanation:  I found it on google luv x

A population of 15 birds inhabits a fairly new island. Ten of the birds are dark brown and five of them are light brown. By chance, two of the dark brown birds and three of the light brown birds die before producing any offspring. All of the birds in the next generation are dark brown. This change in phenotypic frequency can be attributed to _____. quilet

Answers

Answer:

Genetic drift

Explanation:

In the given question, out of ten dark-colored birds, 2 dies and out of five light-colored birds 3 dies. This produces only the dark-colored birds in the next generation but no light colored birds.

From this, we can observe that the gene pool of the small population has changed due to chance event or random event.

Since in the given situation, the small population of birds is taken into account in which the gene pool has changed due to a random event is known as the Genetic drift.

The genetic drift is the phenomenon which is associated with the shift or drift in the gene pool therefore is the answer.

The change in the bird population's phenotype, with all offspring being dark brown, can be attributed to genetic drift following the random death of light brown birds.

Genetic drift is an example of how allele frequencies in a small population can change drastically due to random events, which in this case is the death of the light brown birds before they could produce offspring. Because the light brown allele is lost due to chance, the remaining dark brown allele becomes fixed in the subsequent generation.

Genetic drift is particularly potent in small populations, where random events can have a large effect on the genetic makeup of future generations. This differs from directional selection, which occurs when environmental changes favor one phenotype over another, leading to a shift in allele frequencies based on those selective pressures, as was seen in the peppered moth example due to industrial pollution.

What is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air?

Answers

Answer:

Normal quiet expirarion of air is known as Tidal volume which is equal to 500 mL .

Explanation:

Normal quiet expiration or Tidal volume is a expiration of air with each normal breath . This is about 500 mL . It is composed of about 350 mL of alveolar volume and about 150 mL of dead space volume . The alveolar volume consist of the air that reaches the respiratory surface of alveoli and involve in gaseous exchange . The dead space volume consist of air that does not reach the respiratory surfaces . The lowest value is of Tidal volume . There is an extra amount of air that can be expired forcibly after a normal expiration i.e., known as expiratory reserve volume which is equal 1000 mL of air .


Match each leaf modification to its corresponding purpose.

Answers

Answer:

here is the answer

Explanation:

Other Questions
Reducing the growth of spending, cutting marginal tax rates, providing relief from overregulation, and following a noninflationary and predictable monetary policy are interwoven measures which will ensure that we have addressed each of the severe dislocations which threaten our economic future. These policies will make our economy stronger, and the stronger economy will balance the budget which we're committed to do by 1984.President Ronald ReaganApril 28, 1981Which idea is President Reagan trying to persuade the audience to support?His policies will increase spending and cut taxes.His policies will cut taxes and increase inflation.His policies will strengthen the economy and balance the budget.His policies will strengthen the economy and increase taxes.ED.GENUITY ANSWER IS C. His policies will strengthen the economy and balance the budget. Read lines 15-21 and describe the contrast that Swanson draws between Abraham Lincoln and Jefferson Davis "In about 100 words, describe the idea behind software as a service (SaaS). In your answer, include at least three examples of electronic commerce software packages or components that are offered as an SaaS." How to solve the 30 60 and 90 of a right triangle The motor in a toy car is powered by four batteries in series, which produce a total emf of 6.3 V. The motor draws 3.1 A and develops a 2.1 V back emf at normal speed. Each battery has a 0.18 internal resistance.what is the resistance of the motor? You are looking at the number of multi-million dollar companies in each state. Based on data from last year, you have found a mean of 37 and a standard deviation of 8. Use this information to answer the following question. What is the probability of a randomly selected state having between 21 and 53 multi-million dollars Which set of numbers may represent the lengths of the sides of a triangle?A.5, 7, 9 C.8, 5, 3 B.1, 3, 4 D.4, 4, 9 Flu vaccinations cost $19 per shot. If the industry decided to sell them for $20 a shot what do you think would happen to the elasticity of demand? Karen and Mike currently insure their cars with separate companies, paying $400 and $600 a year. If they insured both cars with the same company, they would save 15 percent on the annual premiums. What would be the future value of the annual savings over 10 years based on an annual interest rate of 3 percent Jake said that a well should be drilled in aquifer X because it is less porous. Alex said that a well should be drilled in aquifer Y because it is more permeable.Who made the most appropriate decision for the placement of the well?Jake is correct. The well should be drilled in aquifer X because it is less porous.Alex is correct. The well should be drilled in aquifer X because it is more permeable.Alex is correct. The well should be drilled in aquifer Y because it is more permeable.Jake is correct. The well should be drilled in aquifer Y because it is less porous. 5. Which choice below could match the following ratio: 4 to 5 Look atanswer choiced first and simplify to see which one leaves you 4 to 5. *OA A teacher has 12 girls and 15 boys in her class.OB A restaurant sells 3 salads for every 2 steaks.OCA garden has 3 pepper plants for every 5 tomato plants.ODA car dealership sells 30 cars for every 5 trucks. 1. In April, Alexander spent $690.00 on rent, $135.00 on food, $192.00 on clothing, and$248.00 on entertainment and miscellaneous. If Alexander's budget is $1,564.00 thenhow much was Alexander able to save? Which of the following would cause only a chemical change with a sugar cube This is for google classroom Identify which type of sampling is used. The name of each contestant is written on a separate card, the cards are placed in a bag, and three names are picked from the bag. A) Stratified B) Systematic C) Convenience D) Cluster E) Simple Random which equations are equivalent to -1/4(x)+3/4=12 select all that apply1.(-4x/1)+3/4=122.-1(x/4)+3/4=123.-x+3/4=124.1/4(x+3)=12 5.(-x/4)+3/4=12 Step 1 Do some research that can enable you to develop a perceptual map based on High/Low Quality and High/Low Price including the 13 candy bars just identified. How could this information be helpful for Hershey? Which companys products do you prefer? Why? Step 2 Do some research that can enable you to develop a perceptual map based on High/Low Calories and High/Low Nutrition including the 13 candy bars just identified. How could this information be helpful for Hershey? Martinez, Inc. acquired a patent on January 1, 2017 for $41,800 cash. The patent was estimated to have a useful life of 10 years with no residual value. On December 31, 2018, before any adjustments were recorded for the year, management determined that the remaining useful life was 6 years (with that new estimate being effective as of January 1, 2018). On June 30, 2019, the patent was sold for $26,800. Tracy offers Liam a job as a store manager at a liquor store, which she plans to open in a small property owned by her husband. The property is located near a school. Before Liam accepts the offer, the state passes a rule that liquor stores cannot be located within a five-mile radius of a school. In this scenario, the employment offer terminates due to:_____________ The roles of money Darnell is heading out to lunch. He goes to the bank and withdraws $30 from his savings account. He heads to a local deli that sells half sub sandwiches for $4.99 and whole subs for $7.99. Darnell decides that he's pretty hungry and goes for the whole. He pays with a $10 bill and tells the cashier to keep the change. Identify what role money plays in each of the following parts of the story. Hint: Select each role only once. Role of Money Medium of Exchange Unit of Account Store of Value Darnell buys his lunch with a $10 bill. Darnell can easily determine that the whole sandwich, while twice as long as the half, is priced at less than twice as much. Darnell accumulates money in his savings account for future purchases. Grade It Now Save