Answer:
Both (a) and (b).
Explanation:
Inflammation is a type of defense mechanism in the body. This is a type of innate immunity present in the organism from birth. The acute or chronic reaction determines the symptoms of inflammation.
The redness and heat occurs in the inflamed area due to the increase blood flow in the affected area. Tissue swelling or edema may occur due to the accumulation of fluid that increases the phagocytic activity of WBCs and other useful chemicals that can reach to the damaged area.
Thus, the answer is option (d).
Answer:
the correct answer d
Explanation:
Describe how the tibial collateral ligament could be damaged if the knee is impacted on the lateral surface.
Answer:
the tibial collateral ligament can be damaged when the knee is impacted on lateral surface -
Sprain is mild stretch or tear , Sprain is partial tear and Sprain is full tear of the ligament .
Explanation:
Tibial Collateral ligament
Tibial Collateral ligament is one of the four important ligaments in knee. It joins femur with tibia or shinbone. The kneecap sits in the middle of this joint. Ligaments are very sensitive to strains. Tibial collateral ligament is most common ligament to get damage, specially for athletes. There could be three form of injury to this ligament.
Grade 1
Sprain is mild stretch or tear,
Grade 2
Sprain is partial tear and
Grade 3
Sprain is full tear of the ligament.
The damage occurs due to sudden force which is extensive for the ligament and it overstretches. Sudden impact on lateral surface will push the knee sideways, giving stress on the ligament, making it overstretch; and if the force is too great ligament will tear.
Describe the mutualistic relationship between the Trichonymphs, termite, and bacteria.
Answer:
Mutualism relationship.
Explanation:
Mutualism may be defined as a type of biological interaction in which the species get mutual benefit from each other. This is a type of positive relationship between the species.
Triconymphs has the enzyme glycoside hydrolase that has the capability of digesting cellulose and helps the termite. The termites provide shelter and food to the termites, thus shows mutualistic relationship. Bacteria present inside Triconymphs helps them in the digestion of lignin and in return Triconymphs provide them food and shelter. Hence, they all show the mutualistic relationships.
With the destruction of the beta cells of Islets of Langerhans of the pancreas,
a) There would be a deficiency of insulin
b) There would be high glucose levels in the blood
c) Treatment would require insulin injections
d) All of the above
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
Islets of Langerhans are the small patches of endocrine which are irregularly shaped. These islets are formed of four types of cell- α, β, γ and δ cells out of which β cells produce an important hormone called 'insulin". Insulin is an important hormone which controls the level of glucose in the body as it prevents glucose production from the liver and control glucose metabolism.
Since insulin is related to the glucose levels in the body, if absent will directly influence the glucose level and metabolism as the liver will produce more glucose than required which will not be used by the body. Therefore the person will have to take insulin to maintain the glucose in the body level.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Cordlike part that attaches a muscle to a bone
Answer:
Tendon
Explanation:
The Cordlike part that attaches to a muscle to a bone is called a Tendon because it's like an elastic cord to a strong fibrous collagen tissue that attaches the muscle to the bone
An elderly woman falls and fractures her hip. What anatomical structures are most likely to be injured with this type of accident?
Answer:
The hip fractures are mostly occur with the older people having age above 60. This is due to the calcium loss as the people ages. So, as the age of people increases as a result their bones become more thinner.
There are certain areas which likely to be injured with this type of accident such as femoral neck fracture and Intertrochanteric hip fracture.
femoral neck fracture is mostly associated with older people. This type of fracture is related to the osteoporosis. Ideally, there is a complication with this type of fracture.
Intertrochanteric hip fracture is comparatively easy to repair.
With a hip fracture, an elderly woman is most likely to suffer from a femoral neck fracture, which may require surgery and long-term care due to complications such as loss of blood supply, leading to tissue necrosis, and increased morbidity and mortality risks.
An elderly woman who falls and fractures her hip is most likely to have an injury involving the femoral neck, which connects the femur or thigh bone to the hip socket. This type of fracture is commonly referred to as a "broken hip." The hip is prone to osteoporosis, a condition where bones become weak and brittle, making them more susceptible to fractures. In older adults, the femoral neck can fracture due to a fall, or conversely, the fracture itself can cause a fall if the bone breaks first when weight is transferred onto the leg.
If the fracture occurs within the capsule of the hip joint, there may be an accompanying disruption of the blood supply to the femoral neck or head, potentially leading to necrosis, or tissue death, of these areas. Hip fractures typically require surgical intervention and may result in a need for long-term mobility assistance, increased health care costs, and higher rates of morbidity and mortality due to complications like pneumonia, bedsores, and thrombophlebitis.
Which of the following is not a response to a decrease in blood pressure?
a. Angiotensin II
b. NE
c. ANP
d. ADH
Answer:
ADH.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also known as vasopressin and released from the posterior pituitary.This is a peptide hormone that regulates the physiological functioning of the body.
ADH hormone increases the blood pressure by constricting the blood arteries increases the insertion of aquaporin in the kidney. Hence, ADH is not a response to decrease in a blood pressure.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
No muscle works independently, with this in mind discuss the roles of agonists, antagonists synergists, and fixators in movement.
Answer and Explanation:
There are four major roles of muscles that provide the movement that are given bellow.
AGONIST : They are also known as prime movers it provides force to complete the movement.
example : flexion of elbow
ANTAGONIST : They oppose the movement which was produced by agonist
example : extension of elbow by triceps
NOTE : They also slows down the movements
SYNERGISTS : Their main role is to stabilize the joint in which moment take place they also help in performing the movement to agonist.
FIXATORS : Their main role is to stabilize the origin of agonists and stabilize the joint
example : Rotator cuff muscles
Final answer:
Agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators all play important roles in movement.
Explanation:
In movement, no muscle works independently, but rather they work together in pairs or groups. These groups include agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators, each with their own specific roles. The agonists are the prime movers that generate the main force for a particular movement, while antagonists oppose or resist the movements of the agonists. Synergists assist the agonists by providing additional force or stability, and fixators stabilize a muscle's origin so that the desired movement can occur.
As a result of cold environmental temperatures. T3/T4 production _______:
a. remains unchanged
b. increases
c. decreases
Which of the following disorders results from a deficiency of factor VIII?
a. Sickle cell disease
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia A
d. Hemophilia B
Answer:
(c). Hemophilia A
Explanation:
Hemophilia A can be defined as a genetic disorder, characterized by severe external or internal bleeding. Hemophilia A is caused by defective or missing factor VIII, due to mutation in gene for factor VIII that leads to formation of a non-function or truncated clotting protein.
Factor VIII is a blood clotting protein, which prevents excessive blood loss during injury. Hence, deficiency of factor VIII can leads to development of hemophilia A.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
What is the drug of choice to treat patients with bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The drugs of choice to treat Bipolar disorder are Anticonvulsant, Antipsychotic, and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI).
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder is a serious mental disorder, characterized by extreme episodes of mood swings from manic highs to depressive lows. Therefore Bipolar disorder is also called manic depression.
The drugs used to treat bipolar disorder are - Anticonvulsant, Antipsychotic, and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI).
Antipsychotic drugs are often taken along with mood stabilizers to help stabilize the symptoms of mania.
What is CHF and pulmonary edema?
Answer:
CHF or Congestive heart failure is defined as a chronic condition in which fluid builds up around the heart and causes it to pump inefficiently. this affects the pumping power of heart muscles. CHF arises when ventricles are unable to pump enough blood volume to body, then blood fills back to lungs, liver, abdomen or other lower body parts.
Most common cause of CHF can be hypertension, valve conditions and coronary artery disease. It can be treated by angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Pulmonary edema is defined as a condition in which fluid collects in the air sacs in lungs that makes breathing difficult due to excess fluid in the lungs. One of the cause of Pulmonary edema can be CHF (Congestive heart failure).
Which treatment is WRONG when there is severe toxicity of digoxin?
A. stop using digoxin
B. give specific digoxin antibody
C. give KCI
D. give furosemide
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. give furosemide.
Explanation:
Digoxin is a drug that uses in the cardiovascular condition. It inhibits the Na-K ATPase enzyme, which functions to maintain the intracellular environment by regulating the entry and exit of sodium and potassium.
Digoxin toxicity may occur due to the low level of potassium (inside the cell)due to the inhibitaion of the sodium-potassium pump. Furosemide is a diuretic drug that decreases salt concentration (such as ions) in the body by increasing urine output. and causes a low level of potassium in the body
Thus, furosemide increases digoxin toxicity as during low levels of potassium, digoxin can easily bind with the sodium-potassium pump and shows severe effects.
Vertical transmission of HSV-2, typically occurs during?
a) Fetal development
b) Birthing (Passage through birth canal)
c) Breast Feeding
d) Vertical Transmission is not possible
Answer:
The correct response to the question: Vertical transmission of HSV-2, typically occurs during, would be: B: Birthing (passage through the birth canal).
Explanation:
HSV, be it type 1, or 2, are both of the herpesviridae family. This virus, also called herpes simplex, usually causes lesions of the skin in areas where the nerves where they reside, are present. As such, the herpes virus resides in latent form inside certain nerve clusters, like the trigeminal ganglia, or the lumbosacral ganglia, and becomes activated given the right conditions, to form lessions that are visible in the skin. During pregnancy, the possibility of a fetus acquiring the infection is present, but not as common, and can only happen during the first 20 weeks of gestation. Most commonly, however, is the vertical passage of the herpes infection from mother to child during birth, and some times post-partum, when the baby comes into contact with lessions. But the most common form, is during the birthing process, when the baby comes into contact with vaginal skin lessions.
This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding.
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. LH
d. insulin
e. aldosterone
f. ACTH
Answer:
This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding: oxytocin - a.
Write a short journal on the benefits of stress to nursing student.
Nursing students are prone to stress due to the transitional nature of college life. High levels of stress are believed to affect student's health and academic functions.
Blood in the urine can be a sign of kidney damage. Why is blood not usually found in the urine of a healthy person?
Explanation:
The reason for the fact that the blood is usually not found in the urine of a healthy person is:
Kidneys are located in back just below the lowest rib. Each kidney is about 4.5 inches long and weighs about 5 ounces. Each kidney contains about a million functional units called nephrons.
Every nephron consists of glomerulus and tubule. Each glomerulus unit functions as tiny filter. Blood in the body passes through these glomerulus, that retains the blood cells and large biomolecules like proteins in circulation while allowing fluid and some small molecules to pass through to tubule.
As the fluid flows through tubules, much of the volume of the liquid is absorbed back in bloodstream. The tubules then join to form collecting system of each kidney. By this point, the concentrated fluid has all characteristics of the urine.
If blood occur in the urine, that means the nephrons cannot function properly which can lead to kidney damage.
What is the name of the fluid found in tissue spaces?
a. transcellular fluid
b. intracellular fluid
c. interstitial fluid
d. lymph
Answer: Option C. " Interstitial fluid"
Explanation:
Interstitial fluid is also called tissue fluid which is found in interstitial spaces (tissue spaces) that is a solution surrounding the cells of multicellular animals.
Interstitial fluid provide nutrients and oxygen to the cells and removes waste from the cells of body. when new interstitial fluid form, it replace the older fluid, which pours towards lymph vessels. After entering the lymph vessels, it is known as lymph.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
The mucus-secreting cells prevalent in simple columnar epithelium are known as:
a) goblet cells
b) cup cells
c) chalice cells
d mucocells
Answer: a) goblet cells
Explanation:
Goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands that are found along simple cylindrical epithelial and cylindrical pseudostratified epithelia. These goblet cells synthesize and secrete mucus, and have a basal nucleus. They are mainly located in the lining of the respiratory tract (trachea) and the digestive tract. Goblet cells produce glycoproteins, that originate mucus which lubricates the small intestine. Goblet cells are found in large numbers in the large intestine, and the mucus contributes to the fecal bolus compacting and facilitates the sliding of the epithelial surface.
During what stage of spermatogenesis do the developing sperm lose most of their organelles and cytoplasm?
a. capacitation
b. spermiation
c meiotic division
d. spermiogenesis
e. mitotic division
Answer: d. spermiogenesis
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis is a process that occurs in the testicles, the male gonads. The cells of the testicles are organized around the seminiferous tubules, in which the sperm are produced. Testosterone is secreted by interstitial cells. Surrounding the seminiferous tubules are the Sertoli cells responsible for nutrition and support of the germline cells, that is, those that will generate the sperm. Spermatogenesis is divided into four phases, but we will be looking only at one stage to answer this question:
Spermiogenesis: It is the process that converts spermatids in sperm, losing almost the entire cytoplasm. The vesicles of the Golgi complex fuse together, forming the acrosome, located at the anterior end of sperm. The acrosome contains enzymes that pierce the membranes of the egg, in fertilization. Centrioles migrate to the region immediately after the nucleus of the spermatid and participate in flagella formation, the structure responsible for the movement of sperm.
Answer: b. spermiation
Explanation:
Spermiogenesis is one of the processes of spermatogenesis. In this stage the maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa takes place. The mature spermatozoa are released from the Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule, this process is known as spermiation. The spermiation removes the unnecessary cytoplasm and organelles. The mature spermatozoa are mature but it lacks the motility.
On the 1 AM rounds, the nurse finds a patient awake and frustrated that she cannot go to sleep. The nurse administers an ordered hypnotic to help the patient sleep. Two hours later, the nurse finds the patient out of bed, full of energy, cleaning her room, and singing. Which of the following describes what is happening?
a. An allergic reaction
b. An idiosyncratic response
c. A teratogenic effect
d. A synergistic effect
Answer:
B. An idiosyncratic response.
Explanation:
It is also known as Type B response and is unusual or abnormal responses to a drug by an individual. This response cannot be reproduced in a substantial number of subjects in the population.
Normally they occur when the patient is first exposed to a new drug that had not been fully tested about its possible side-effects.
I hope this answer helps you.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion for labor augmentation. The nurse notes six contractions in a 10 min period with a non-reassuring FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
b. Turn the client to her left side.
c. Administer terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously.
d. Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask.
Answer:
The answer is A discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Explanation:
Oxytocin is a medicine used to help labor when it is dysfunctional, it is necessary to keep in mind with the use of this medicine, the baby's respiratory rate and the number of uterine contractions in a minute to decide whether or not to continue with this medicine.
Final answer:
The first action a nurse should take if a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation shows signs of fetal distress is to discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion to reduce the risk of fetal distress by decreasing uterine contractions. The correct answer is a. Discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion for labor augmentation and is observed to have six contractions in a 10-minute period with a non-reassuring Fetal Heart Rate (FHR), the first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, reducing oxygenated blood flow to the fetus, possibly leading to fetal distress. Immediate cessation of oxytocin can decrease the frequency of contractions and decrease the risk of further distress to the fetus. Following this, the nurse should reposition the client, administer medications as ordered, or apply oxygen as needed to optimize fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
The lesser tubercle of the humerus is the insertion site for the __________ muscle.
Answer:
Subescapularis muscle.
Explanation:
The subescapularis muscle originates in the subescapular fossa and inserts in the lesser tubercule of the humerus. The function of the subescapular muscle is to medially rotate the shoulder and adduce it. It also helps maintain the humerus inside the glenoid cavity.
What are five common symptoms caused by lesions of the cerebellum?
Answer:
1.Poor coordination.
2.Unsteady walk
3.Difficulty with fine motor tasks,
4.back-and-forth eye movements
5.Difficulty swallowing.
Explanation:
Ataxia or lesion of the cerebellum shows a lack of muscle control, such as walking or picking up objects, coordination of voluntary movement. It can affect movements, eye movement, creating difficulties with speech, and swallowing.
persistent lesion of the cerebellum usually causes damage to the part of your brain cerebellum that controls movement and coordination.
Thus, the mentioned symptoms are given above.
Lesions of the cerebellum can cause symptoms such as ataxia, sensory deficits, gait and station problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty maintaining balance.
Explanation:The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, so lesions in this area can cause various symptoms. Some common symptoms caused by lesions of the cerebellum include:
Ataxia: Loss of coordination in voluntary movementsSensory deficits: Problems with balance and proprioceptionGait and station problems: Difficulty with walking and maintaining a stable postureMuscle weakness: Difficulty moving and performing tasks that require muscle strengthDifficulty maintaining balance: Trouble staying upright and steadyLearn more about Symptoms of lesions in the cerebellum here:https://brainly.com/question/12993500
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Which hormone is secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas?
a. glucose
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
d. glycogen
Answer:
glucose
Explanation:
glucose is the answer
What are some ways to minimize vitamin losses when cooking and storing food?
Answer:
Vitamins are the organic molecules essential for the proper metabolism of the body. These nutrients are required in adequate amount by the body.
The following ways can be used to minimize the vitamin losses when cooking and storing food:
Try not to remove the skin from the vegetables.Do not reheat the food continuously. Minimum amount of liquid is used in cooking.Always try to cook the food by steam not by boiling the food.A pressure cooker should be used when possible. Baking soda should not be used frequently to retain the color for the food.What is an antigen?
a) a molecule keyed to a particular pathogen that helps target it for destruction
b) a substance that triggers an allergic reaction
c) a substance that triggers an immune response
d) immune cells that ingest and digest pathogens
e) immune cells that insert a fragment of a pathogen into a surface protein
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Antigen is defined as a protein or polysaccharide that arises an immune response in lymphocytes. Antigen is a substance that binds to a specific antibody.
For human body, an antigen can be any substance that evokes immune response, Example: dust particle,pollen grain, any food particle. The interaction between antibody and antigen is defined from lock-and-key binding model.
Antigen receptor, are located on B cells and T cells, that binds to antigens and initiates potential immune responses.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
What is the equilibrium potential for Na?
a. 60 mv
b. +60 mv
c. -90 mv
d. 90 mv
Answer:
B. +60 mv
Explanation:
Equilibrium potential of ions is the difference of electric potential in the cell membrane that equilibrates the concentration gradient of an ion.
Final answer:
The equilibrium potential for sodium (Na) is (option b) +60 mV, representing the electrical potential at which the movement of Na+ ions across the cell membrane is balanced, with no net flux of Na+ ions into or out of the cell.
Explanation:
The equilibrium potential is a crucial concept in understanding how ions move across cell membranes, affecting the cell's electrical charge and contributing to processes such as nerve impulses and muscle contractions. Sodium ions (Na+) have a higher concentration outside the cell than inside. When sodium channels open, Na+ ions flow into the cell, moving down their concentration gradient. This influx of Na+ makes the inside of the cell more positive. The movement of sodium ions continues until the electrical potential inside the cell becomes positive enough to prevent further Na+ entry, reaching an equilibrium. According to provided information, the equilibrium potential for Na+ is around +60 mV. This potential is crucial for generating action potentials in neurons and muscle cells, where the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through voltage-gated sodium channels leads to the depolarization phase of the action potential.
The muscle used to elevate the hyoid bone during swallowing is the ___________.
Answer:
The muscle used to elevate the hyoid bone during swallowing is the Suprahyoid muscles.
Explanation:
Suprahyoid muscles consists of digastric, stylohyoid, geniohyoid, and mylohyoid muscles. These four muscles are located above hyoid bone in neck.
The digastric muscles pull upward on hyoid bone on contracting. The mylohyoid elevates hyoid bone and tenses the mouth's floor. The Geniohyoid pulls hyoid bone anterosuperiorly results in the shortening floor of the mouth and widening pharynx during swallowing. The Stylohyoid elevates and retracts hyoid bone, elongating the mouth's floor.
The functions of all these muscles are different. In general, they assist in elevating the hyoid bone and widening the esophagus while swallowing.
The microscopic exocrine units of the pancreas are called _____________: the endocrine structures are known as the ______________.
Answer:
1st blank: "acini", 2nd blank: "pancreatic islets or islets of Langerhorns."
Explanation:
Hope my answer has helped you and if not i'm sorry.
Microscopic exocrine units of pancreas are called Acinar and duct tissues and endocrine structures are called as islets of Langerhans.
Explanation:
Pancreas is the small organ which is located exactly between the place below the stomach and above the abdomen. It has two regions based upon the function which are called as endocrine part and exocrine part.
The “microscopic exocrine units of pancreas” are called acinar and duct tissues and are involved in digestion and the endocrine structures are known as the islets of Langerhans and they are involved in secretion of blood sugars.
Neuroglia (glial cells) play a major role in support and nutrition of the brain, and they are involved in sending information.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer is A true
Explanation:
The glial cells are responsible for conducting the information that comes out of the neurons, they also play the main role of support and nutrition of the neurons.