Answer:
C) reticular activating system
Explanation:
reticular activating system is involved in performing the regulation of wakefulness and sleep cycles by filtering the unimportant information and keeping in record only the useful stuff.this is the way this system acts and looks for information that is responsible for validation of the beliefs
An interesting observation made by the firefighters was that some parts of the forest seemed to escape the flames. The crown fire would drop down into a ground fire in these areas, and then jump back up into the canopy as the fire burned into adjacent areas. They observed that many of these areas had previously been thinned, which means that some of the trees were cut down and hauled away to be used as timber. In other areas, thinned forests burned with as much severity as the unthinned forest. Your objective is to design an observational study to help answer the question: What was the determining factor for areas that escaped the worst impacts of the fire, compared to areas that were severely burned?
Answer:
According to the previous observational study it is possible to notice that thinning determined in great way the rate of trees that survived the fire.
Explanation:
In general the trees that had been previously cut, were the ones that presented more resistance to the fire, while the trees that had not been thinned were the ones that were severely affected in the spreading conflagration. Reason why in comparison of these two samples, it would be possible to conclude that previously cutting down trees can survive better to the spreading fire.
An observational study can be designed to compare thinned and unthinned areas of the forest to determine the factors contributing to escaping the worst impacts of the fire.
Explanation:An observational study can be designed to help determine the factors that led to some areas of the forest escaping the worst impacts of the fire compared to severely burned areas. The study should focus on comparing areas that were previously thinned and areas that were unthinned. Researchers can collect data on the severity of the fire impacts in each area, measure tree density and species composition, and analyze the fire behavior in these areas. By comparing the two types of forests, the study can help identify whether thinning plays a role in reducing the severity of fire impacts.
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Why is the net production of ATP from palmitate 106 ATP and not 108 ATP?
A. because conversion of palmitate to palmitoyl-CoA consumes the equivalent of 2 ATP
B. because the overall reaction for conversion of palmitoyl-CoA to has 106 ATP on the products side of the reaction
C. because each NADH produces about 2.5 ATP, and each FADH2 produces about 1.5 ATP
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Answer:
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Explanation:Two ATPs were borrowed from the Nets 4 ATPs produced in glycolysis, for the substrate level phosphorylation in the initial stage of glycolysis for pyruvate productions.
Therefore, the total ATPs would have been 108ATPs, produced as net ATPs, during kerb’s cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. But because 2ATPs has been spent in substrate phosphorylation then the ATPs produces is 106ATPs
The physical process that makes gene linkage incomplete is
A. segregation
B. mitosis
C. the lining up of chromosomes in the middle of the cell
D. cyclin reaching a threshold concentration
E. crossing over
Answer:
Option E, Crossing Over
Explanation:
In the process of crossing over, a chromosome is replicated to produce two sister chromatids.
Sister chromatids have genes that are divided and shared with the offspring in equal number. In this way genetic traits are exchanged and the offspring has a new set of genes.
This process takes place at the prophase stage of cell division.
Without crossing over, gene linkage is incomplete.
Hence , option E is correct
Which of the following statements is correct? a. Aldosterone is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. c. Aldosterone helps decrease blood volume. d. Aldosterone increases the concentration of sodium in the urine.
Answer:
b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
Explanation:
Once it is produced by the adrenal gland it stimulates the mineralocorticoid receptors on the distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney's nephrons. This causes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys indirectly affecting water retention.
The statement 'b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys' is correct. Aldosterone helps regulate electrolyte balance, increasing sodium reabsorption and water retention, leading to elevated blood volume and pressure while also excreting potassium.
Explanation:The correct statement among the options given is: b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Aldosterone is a hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, and it plays a vital role in regulating sodium and potassium balance within the body. It is released in response to several conditions, including low blood volume, low blood pressure, or high levels of potassium in the blood. The primary function of aldosterone is to increase the reabsorption of sodium ions in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys. When sodium is reabsorbed, water follows due to osmosis, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Conversely, aldosterone also stimulates the excretion of potassium, thereby reducing its levels in the blood.
In chloroplasts, ATP is synthesized from ADP plus inorganic phosphate (Pi) in a reaction catalyzed by ATP synthase molecules that are embedded in the thylakoid membrane. Which of the following statements provides evidence to support the claim that no ATP will be synthesized in the absence of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?
No ATP is synthesized when channel proteins that allow the free passage of protons are inserted into the thylakoid membrane is the evidence.
The chlorophyll obtains the electrons from water which produces oxygen as a by product. During the process of electron transport, H+ is pumped across the thylakoid membrane, which leads to the production of proton gradient that is responsible for the formation of ATP in the stroma.
If proton gradient is not available or present then no ATP is synthesized so we can conclude that no ATP molecules are formed if no protein gradient is provided to the thylakoid membrane.
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Option C is correct. No ATP is synthesized when channel proteins that allow the free passage of protons are inserted into the thylakoid membrane is the evidence.
During Photosynthesis:
When photon hits the photo system, the electron become exited. Exited electron channeled to the low energy state. The energy of electron is used to pump proton from stroma into lumen of thylakoid.This generate a proton gradient across the membrane.This gradient use to run ATP synthase which generate ATP.So we can conclude that the proton gradient is required to generate ATP.
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5. The blob operon produces enzymes that convert compound A into compound B. The operon is controlled by a regulatory gene S. Normally these enzymes are synthesized only in the absence of compound B. If gene S is mutated, the enzymes are synthesized in the presence of B and in the absence of B. Does gene S produce a repressor or an activator? Is this operon inducible or repressible?
Answer:
Repressor and repressible.
Explanation:
Operon may be defined as the functional unit of the DNA that contains the cluster of genes. These genes are transcribed by the single promoter and works as polycistronic gene.
The blob operon is inactive in the presence of the B. Here, Gene S may acts as a repressor protein and requires the B compound to work as a corepressor. The blob operon acts as the repressible as it is inactive in the presence of B compound and become active only when the B compound is absent.
Thus, the answer is repressor and repressible.
Which statement is true regarding the two beakers and the contents of each? A) The beet core in beaker A is at equilibrium with the surrounding water. B) The beet core in beaker B will lose water to the surrounding environment. C) The beet core in beaker B would be more turgid than the beet core in beaker A. D) The beet cores in both beakers will not change over time. No water will be lost or gained.
Answer:
A) The beet core in beaker A is at equilibrium with the surrounding water
Explanation:
In the picture next to beaker A, there are to 0.4s next to weird symbols, I'm assuming it means the beet core and water are the same solubility.
The human genome comprises just over 3.1 billion base pairs. Assuming average nucleosome spacing throughout the genome, how many molecules of histone H2A are present in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division?
a. 6.2 million
b. 124 million
c. 32 million
d. 3.1 milion
e. 62 million
The number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million.
Explanation:The human genome is composed of 3.1 billion base pairs. The spacing between nucleosomes is on average 146 base pairs. After DNA replication, the number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell can be calculated by dividing the total number of base pairs by the nucleosome spacing. Therefore, the number of histone H2A molecules in one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million, which is not one of the given options.
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The steps of glycolysis between glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate involve all of the following except:A. ATP synthesisB. Utilization of PiC. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+.D. The formation of 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate.E. Catalysis by Phosphoglycerate Mutase.
Option(C)- Oxidation of NADH to NAD+H
Explanation:In glycolysis at the step between formation of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, NAD+H is reduced to form NADH(where NAD stands for nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide) which means a hydrogen atom is added in NAD forming NADH.This enters in elecron transport chain (etc) in mitochondrial membrane which ultimately helps in production of ATP.Hence all other options are true except option C.Result: Therefore option C is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The incorrect step in the sequence of glycolysis from glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate is the oxidation of NADH to NAD+, as this step actually involves the reduction of NAD+ to NADH.
Explanation:
The steps of glycolysis in which glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate include several biochemical reactions. Among them, oxidation where NAD+ is reduced to NADH, the phosphorylation adding a phosphate group (Pi) to form 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate, and the ATP synthesis during substrate-level phosphorylation when the high-energy phosphate group from 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate is transferred to ADP to form ATP. Furthermore, the enzyme Phosphoglycerate Mutase catalyzes the conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate, which is a later step in glycolysis.
The correct option in the context of this question would state an incorrect association within this sequence of reactions. As such, option C, 'Oxidation of NADH to NAD+' is incorrect because during this step of glycolysis, NAD+ is actually reduced to NADH, not oxidized.
One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to _____. One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to _____. act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA function in the synthesis of proteins transmit genetic information to offspring form the genes of higher organisms make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity
Answer: function in the synthesis of proteins
Explanation:
Ribonucleic acid or RNA is a kind of essential nucleic acid present in the cells of the living beings. The main function of the RNA is to carry the information present in the coded form in amino acid sequence obtain from the genes to produce protein molecules. The amino acid sequence gets assembled on the ribosome brought about by the messenger RNA (mRNA) each amino acid sequence encodes for a typical protein molecule. A single strand of DNA acts as a blueprint for the synthesis of mRNA which is transcribed from the strand of DNA.
One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to function in the synthesis of proteins. One of its primary functions is to serve as an intermediary between DNA and protein synthesis. This process is known as protein synthesis or translation, and it involves the conversion of genetic information stored in DNA into functional proteins.
The first step is the process of transcription, where RNA molecules are synthesized based on the DNA template. The RNA polymerase enzyme binds to a specific region of DNA called the promoter and copies one of the DNA strands, called the template strand, to produce a complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule is known as messenger RNA (mRNA) because it carries the genetic information from DNA to the protein synthesis machinery.
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Identify two structural features of purines and pyrimidines.
Purines
__contain two heterocyclic rings.
__contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain four ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain one heterocyclic ring.
__contain only three ring nitrogen atoms.
Pyrimidines
__contain one heterocyclic ring.
__contain four ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain only three ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain two heterocyclic rings.
__contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
Answer:
Purines and pyrimidines are the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acids and act as the building blocks of the DNA and RNA.
They both show structural differences between them as the-
Purines :
1. contain only four ring nitrogen atoms.
2. contain two heterocyclic rings.
Pyrimidines:
1. contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
2. contain one heterocyclic ring
Purines contain two heterocyclic rings and four nitrogen atoms, whereas pyrimidines have one heterocyclic ring with two nitrogen atoms.
Explanation:Identifying structural features of purines and pyrimidines is crucial in understanding nucleic acids and their components. The two structural features of purines are:
Contain two heterocyclic rings.Contain four ring nitrogen atoms.The purines, such as adenine (A) and guanine (G), consist of a six-membered ring fused to a five-membered ring, and collectively, they contain four nitrogen atoms within these rings. In distinction, the two structural features of pyrimidines are:
Contain one heterocyclic ring.Contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.Pyrimidines, including cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U), are characterized by a single six-membered ring with two nitrogen atoms.
he passage describes some glycolysis reactions. Select the appropriate term for each blank to complete the passage. In the first reaction of glycolysis, glucose is converted to . The phosphate comes from . A is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate of to a substrate. The product of this reaction is then to fructose‑6‑phosphate. Fructose‑6‑phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second reaction, giving .
Answer:
Glucose-6-phosphate,ATP, hexokinase,fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
Explanation:
In the first reaction of glycolysis glucose is converted to glucose is converted to glucose -6-phosphate.The phosphate comes from ATP. Hexokinase is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate to a substrate.The product of this reaction is then converted to fructose-6-phosphate.Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second reaction,giving fructose-1,6 -bisphosphate.
Compare and contrast the reasons cell division is important for unicellular and multicellular organisms. 2. Provide an example of why cell division remains important to an adult organism even after it is fully developed. 3. What is the role of growth factors? 4. Cells divide, differentiate, or die. What is differentiation?
(1)
For unicellular organisms, cell division is important for the reproduction of the population, Unicellular organism mainly use cell division, also called binary fission, for pollution growth. This is because unicellular organisms are only composed of one cell.
Multicellular organisms use cell division for growth and reproduction. Cell division causes increase in the number of cells composing the organism hence its growth in size. Cell division is also used to create gametes that are used in reproduction by fertilization.
(2)
Even in fully developed organisms, cell division is important in tissue repair. In tissue homeostasis, there is a balanced rate of cell division and cell death . An example in muscles. Due to the stress experienced by muscle cells, they usually have a lower life span and therefore the damaged cells are often replaced with new ones by cell division. This prevents tissue wastage.
(3)
Growth factors signal the growth of a cell. They usually bind receptors on the cell surface and indicate how the cell should grow and divide base don environmental stimuli. An example is during regular exercises. Growth factors indicate that the muscle cells should divide regularly and grow bigger to accommodate the higher stress in the muscles from the workout. This is how your muscles grow bigger and stronger with more exercise.
(4)
Differentiation of cells occurs through the silencing of some gene allowing the cell to produce particular proteins (and other biomolecules) that align with its functions in the body. This especially critical in multicellular organisms. An example is that while al the cells in your body have the same DNA, some cells differentiate into liver cells while others into lungs, stomach, heart, and etcetera.
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Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms. It is the primary method of reproduction in unicellular organisms, allowing them to multiply and grow. In multicellular organisms, cell division is necessary for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. Growth factors play a role in regulating cell division, and differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions.
Explanation:Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms, but for different reasons. In unicellular organisms, cell division is the primary method of reproduction. When a single cell divides, it creates two new cells, allowing the organism to multiply and grow.
In multicellular organisms, cell division is important for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. For example, when an organism is injured, cell division allows for the regeneration of damaged tissues. Additionally, cell division is necessary for the production of new blood and skin cells in adults.
Growth factors are proteins that regulate cell division and cell growth. They bind to specific receptors on the surface of cells and initiate signaling pathways that promote cell division. These growth factors ensure that cell division occurs in a controlled and regulated manner.
Differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions. During development, cells undergo differentiation to become different types of cells, such as nerve cells, muscle cells, or skin cells. This specialization allows for the coordinated functioning of different tissues and organs in multicellular organisms.
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Fred Griffith studied two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia,one that causes a lethal infection when injected into mice, and a second that is harmless.He observed that pathogenic bacteria that have been killed by heating can no longer cause an infection. But when these heat-killed bacteria are mixed with live, harmless bacteria, this mixture is capable of infecting and killing a mouse. What did Griffith conclude from this experiment?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- There is some molecule which could have transformed the avirulent bacterial strains to become virulent and called it a transforming principle.
Explanation:
Griffith performed the experiment on two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia in which one strain is avirulent called R strain and another virulent strain called S strain.
When Griffith killed the S bacteria (virulent) by heat and added it in the R strain Petri dishes and then injected the bacteria to mice, the mice killed. This amazed him as to how the avirulent bacteria killed the mice ?
He concluded that there was some principle which transformed the avirulent bacteria to virulent bacteria and thus called the principle as transforming principle.
If a small founder population of 12 people ends up on a small island, and one member of the population had a mutation that creates a new allele, what is the likelihood that the allele will be eliminated from the population? Enter your answer as a percentage (not decimal), omit the percent sign however.
A Proximity of 92 percentage may likely be eliminated from the population.
Explanation:
This is based on the principle of genetic drift which states that the allele frequency in a population changes from generation to generation. Sometimes there in a loss of alleles and otherwise there is a fixation or rise.
If there is a probability of an allele being fixed we have to calculate the initial frequency of the mutation.
Mutation fixing probability = No. mutation alleles / total Number of alleles
= 1/12 = 0.083
Therefore the probability of the allele getting eliminated is
Elimination probability = 1 – mutation fixing probability
= 1 - 0.083 = 0.917 =91.7 % = 92 %
During glycogenolysis, glycogen is broken down and converted to glucose-6-phosphate, which can enter glycolysis or be used by the liver to raise blood glucose levels. Complete the following sentences describing glycogen breakdown. Move the appropriate term to each blank. Some terms will be used more than once, and two terms will not be used at all.
1. The enzyme ________ removes terminal glucose residues from glycogen by cleaving ________ linkages.
2. Enzyme activity stops when the enzyme reaches a point _______ glucose residues from a branch point, which is a(n) ________ linkage.
3. The ________ of the debranching enzymes moves three glucose residues to another branch, connecting them by a(n) ________ linkage.
4. The ________ activity of the debranching enzyme removes the glucose at its ________ linkage.
5. The enzyme ________ continues removing terminal glucose residues
Answers:
Explanation:
1. The enzyme _Glycogen phosphorylase_ removes terminal glucose residues from glycogen by cleaving _α-[1→4 ]-glycosidic bond_linkages.
2. Enzyme activity stops when the enzyme reaches a point _Four_ glucose residues from a branch point, which is a(n) _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
3. The _glucosyltransferase_ of the debranching enzymes moves three glucose residues to another branch, connecting them by a(n) _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
4. The _glucosidase_ activity of the debranching enzyme removes the glucose at its _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
5. The enzyme _glucosidase_ continues removing terminal glucose residues.
People with beriberi, a disease caused by thiamine deficiency, have elevated levels of blood pyruvate and a -ketoglutarate, especially after consuming a meal rich in glucose. How are these effects related to a deficiency of thiamine?
Answer:
Explanation:
Thiamine pyrophosphate is a thiamine derivative and acts a coenzyme for various enzymes including pyruvate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. These are involved in catabolism of pyruvate and α-ketoglutarate, respectively.
During the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, we would expect what compound(s) to be produced? A) glucose B) ATP and NADPH C) water and NADPH D) glucose and oxygen
Answer:D
Explanation:After water combined with CO2, it give glucose n oxygen
Answer:
D
Explanation:
If you started with a cell with four chromosomes, what would happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n)?
(In other words, how many chromosomes would the cells have after four generations without meiosis?).
Answer:
it will be 64 chromosomes after four generations.
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction follows meiosis cell division . this is two step process in which one round of replication occurs and two round of cell division occurs. by which chromosomes are converted to haploid state(n) instead of diploid(2n) state.
when two haploid cells are sexually matted, one diploid(2n) zygote cells are produced.
hare no haploid cells are produced rather diploid cells are matted. So, the chromosome no. of zygote will be doubled after each generation.
so, after 4 generation their will be 64 chromosome.
If sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n), the number of chromosomes would double with each generation.
Explanation:If sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n), the number of chromosomes would double with each generation. In the first generation, each parent's diploid cell with four chromosomes would combine, resulting in 8 chromosomes in the offspring.
In the second generation, the offspring's diploid cells with 8 chromosomes would combine, resulting in 16 chromosomes in the next generation. This doubling would continue for each subsequent generation, resulting in 32 chromosomes in the third generation and 64 chromosomes in the fourth generation.
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Populations evolve for many reasons. Suppose there is a population of plants that have either purple flowers or white flowers, and the allele for purple flowers is dominant. This means that plants with two purple alleles have purple flowers. Plants with one purple allele and one white allele also have purple flowers. Only plants with two white alleles have white flowers.For each event or condition described below, answer the following questions.a. Which mechanism of evolution is at work?b. How does this event affect the population's gene pool? c. Do the frequencies of the two alleles change, and if so, how?
Answer:
n/l
Explanation:
Natural selection through directional selection was the driving force behind evolution. The parents of the purple flowers were capable of withstanding the selective pressure.
What is natural selection?Natural selection is the process by which living organism populations adapt and change. Individuals in a population are basically the naturally variable, which implies they differ in some ways.
The driving force behind evolution was natural selection via directional selection. The purple flowers' parents were able to withstand the selective pressure.
Because of dominance in expression with each successive generation in both homozygote and heterozygote states, and thus higher frequency of expression compared to white flowers, the gene pool of purple flowers will be large.
The frequency of an allele is determined by the allele's rate of expression in the population.
Thus, dominant purple flowers have a higher frequency of expression than recessive white flowers, which can only express themselves in the homozygote recessive state.
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You would like to examine the product of a PCR reaction using gel electrophoresis. You have about 50 µL of PCR product, but the well can only hold 10 µL of sample. You have a 5X stock solution of loading dye which must be mixed with the PCR product to a final concentration of 1X. What is the volume of loading dye and PCR product that you will need in order to make 10 µL of the final mix? Round each to the nearest microliter.
Answer:
You need to mix 2 µL of the 5x loading dye and 8 µL of the PCR product.
Explanation:
To get a final concentration of 1X of the loading dye, you make the next calculations:
(V1)(C1)=(V2)(C2) (Volume1)(Concentration1)=(Volume2)(Concentration2)
where:
(V1)(5x)=(10 µL)(1x)
V1=[(10 µL)(1x)]/5x
V1= 2 µL
List and briefly describe four components of innate immunity (include one barrier defense and three internal defenses)
Final answer:
Innate immunity consists of barrier defenses like the skin, and internal defenses such as the inflammatory response, natural killer cells, and phagocytes. These components work together to provide immediate defense against pathogens.
Explanation:
Innate immunity includes both barrier and internal defenses against pathogens. The following are four components of the innate immune system:
Barrier defenses: The skin and mucous membranes act as the body's first line of defense, providing a physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens.Inflammatory response: When a pathogen penetrates barrier defenses, mast cells and basophils release histamines, which increases blood flow and immune cell access to the affected area, creating inflammation.Natural killer cells: These cells are a type of lymphocyte that detects and destroys cells infected by viruses and tumor cells without the need for prior activation by specific antigens.Phagocytes: Cells like macrophages engulf and digest pathogens and debris. They are an essential component of the innate immune response.These components work together to provide immediate, nonspecific responses to various pathogens and prepare the body for more specific adaptive immune responses.
Two nutrient solutions are maintained at the same pH. Actively respiring mitochondria are isolated and placed into each of the two solutions. Oxygen gas is bubbled into one solution. The other solution is depleted of available oxygen. Which of the following best explains why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen than in the tube without oxygen?
A. The rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen. B. Electron transport is reduced in the absence of a plasma membrane. C. In the absence of oxygen, oxidative phosphorylation produces more ATP than does fermentation. D. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis produces more ATP than in the absence of oxygen.
Was told the answer is A. but i need help justifying that and why it is not D
Answer:
Explanation:
A is correct because energy from electrons from oxygen are used to pump the H+ (as well as electrons from NADH) It's not D because glycolysis happens both in absence and presence of oxygen and never uses O2 so glycolysis is the same in both processes, its what happens after glycolysis that is dependent on the availability of oxygen (oxidative phosphorylation or fermentation)
Final answer:
The rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen, explaining why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen. Glycolysis does not produce more ATP in the presence of oxygen.
Explanation:
The best explanation for why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen than in the tube without oxygen is that the rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen. In oxidative phosphorylation, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor and combines with protons to form water. Without oxygen, the electrons cannot be removed from the system, causing the electron transport chain to back up and ATP production to decrease. Therefore, the presence of oxygen is essential for efficient ATP production.
In contrast, choice D, glycolysis refers to the breakdown of glucose without oxygen and occurs in the cytoplasm, not the mitochondria. Glycolysis produces a small amount of ATP directly, regardless of the presence of oxygen. However, the majority of ATP production occurs through oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria, which requires the presence of oxygen.
14) You are studying the rose-spotted numbat, which lives for one year. In this species there are two types of helpers. Type I helpers repel predators, bring food to the young and defend the territory. Having one of these helpers increases the reproductive output of the breeders by 0.5 offspring. Type I helpers are related to the young of the breeding pair by r-0.4, on average. Additionally, the Type I helpers can occasionally breed and produce, on average, 0.5 offspring per year. Type II helpers do not breed, however, they are much more effective in providing help to the breeders. Their help, which is also given exclusively to the breeders (to whose young they are also related by r 0.4) results in an increase of 1.5 offspring. Which of the following statements is true? a) Type II helpers have greater direct fitness than Type I helpers b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers c) Breeders with Type I helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type II helpers d) Type I helpers have greater indirect fitness than Type II helpers e) Type I helpers do not increase the fitness of the breeders they help
Answer:
b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers
Explanation:
Type II helpers have a greater direct fitness and inclusive fitness than Type I helpers. Breeders with Type II helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type I helpers.
Explanation:Type II helpers have greater direct fitness than Type I helpers. Direct fitness refers to the number of offspring an individual produces, so Type II helpers, despite not being able to breed, increase the reproductive output of the breeders by 1.5 offspring. On the other hand, Type I helpers increase the reproductive output by 0.5 offspring. Therefore, Type II helpers have a greater direct fitness than Type I helpers.
Type II helpers also have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers. Inclusive fitness includes both an individual's direct fitness and the fitness gained through relatives that share genes with it. Since Type II helpers are closely related to the breeders' young by a coefficient of relatedness of 0.4, their help indirectly increases their own inclusive fitness.
Breeders with Type II helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type I helpers. This is because Type II helpers provide more effective help, resulting in a higher increase in the number of offspring. Therefore, statement b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers is true.
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The carbon to produce carbohydrates in the second stage of photosynthesis comes from
Answer:
Front the atmosphere that's from environment
Which statement about Sanger sequencing is false?
(A) Because a dideoxynucleotide lacks the 3'-hydroxyl group, the next nucleotide cannot be added, and therefore DNA synthesis is blocked at the point of addition.
(B) Four different arrays of labeled DNA chains increasing in length by one base are produced.
(C) If the tag is a fluorescent dye and a different fluorescent color emitter is used for each of the four ddNTP reactions, then the four reactions can take place in the same test tube and the four sets of nested DNA chains can undergo electrophoresis together.
(D) To read the DNA sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5'-to-3' direction, the gel is read from top to bottom.
The false statement in Sanger sequencing is that the gel is read from top to bottom.
Explanation:The false statement about Sanger sequencing is (D) To read the DNA sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5'-to-3' direction, the gel is read from top to bottom.
In Sanger sequencing, the gel is actually read from bottom to top. The fragments of DNA are separated by size using electrophoresis, with shorter fragments traveling farther from the starting point. The smallest, labeled fragment is located near the bottom of the gel, while the longest, unlabeled fragment is located near the top of the gel. By reading the sequence from the bottom to the top, the DNA sequence can be determined.
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In a predator-prey system, the two species are related by: Choose all that apply.
coevolution.
character displacement.
the population cycle.
exploitation.
Explanation:
A preditor-prey system, the 2 species are related by; co-evolution(because preditors eat prey that is available and plentiful, for example a rodent species.
also, the population cycle because rodents live for a short period of time in the wild, but reproduce quickly. example; spring and summer seasons is when food is most plentiful for all species of wildlife,
Answer:
In a predator-prey system, the two species are related by the population cycle.
Explanation:
A recent study was published in NATURE which demonstrated that predator prey system is related with each other through population cycle.
As the population of organisms keep on changing with time. For example mouse and rats produce 7-10 off springs in a month while snake that hunt mouse breed only seasonally once or twice a year.
Here is the full study that will help you under stand better.
Citation: Stevens, A. (2010) Dynamics of Predation. Nature Education Knowledge 3(10):46
______ are chromosome sequences in which multiple genes contribute to a quantitative trait.
Answer:
QTL or Quantitative Trait locus
Explanation:
QTL or Quantitative Trait locus are chromosome sequences in which multiple genes contribute to a quantitative trait.
QLT is a locus that correlates with variation of quantitative trait in the phenotype of the population of an organism. It is an statistical method that links two type of information phenotypic and genotypic data in an attempt to explain the genetic variation in complex trait.
Genomic mammalian DNA cannot be expressed directly using bacterial expression vectors because mammalian genomic DNA contains introns, which the bacterial cell cannot excise. Complementary DNA, or cDNA, enables scientists to express mammalian DNA from a bacterial plasmid. Place the sentences into the correct order to describe the formation of double‑stranded cDNA. You will only use five of the seven sentences.
Answer:
DNA to be cloned mature mammalian mRNA is isolated reverse transcriptase, provided with a primer, synthesizes a strand of cDNA without introns the mRNA is hydrolyzed by raising the pH a primer site is created on the ssDNA a complementary DNA strand is synthesized, forming a ds cDNA molecule. dsDNAExplanation:
cDNA is the acronym for complementary DNA. This DNA is a single or double stranded moolecule that is synthesized from a messenger RNA molecule. This molecule is used in studies that aim to clone eukaryotic genes in prokaryotic individuals. The result of this is the expression of a protein from a eukaryotic individual in prokaryotic individuals.
To form a double-stranded cDNA molecule, the following steps would be required:
DNA to be cloned mature mammalian mRNA is isolated reverse transcriptase, provided with a primer, synthesizes a strand of cDNA without introns the mRNA is hydrolyzed by raising the pH a primer site is created on the ssDNA a complementary DNA strand is synthesized, forming a ds cDNA molecule. dsDNAIn a flock of birds one individual first gives a call when a predator appears. This call is quickly repeated by all members of the flock and soon the entire flock is calling at this predator. This activity seems to deter the predator. When this barrage of calls is given the predator always flies away. This is a possible example of ______
Answer:
The correct answer will be- flock defense
Explanation:
A flock is a group of same species of animals usually observed in the birds during migration.
The flock increases their fitness of survival by avoiding predators in which the one individual of the group gives a call in response to the predator.
The same predator call is repeated by every member of the flock which threatens the predator and the predator goes away. This flock response is considered as the defense response to predator and thus the mechanism is known as flock defense.
Thus, flock defense is the correct answer.