Answer:
Lipoproteins (LDL, HDL, VLDL, IDL, Chylomicrons
Explanation:
The lipids transport is difficult because of their hydrophobic attribute, so they cant move easily through the plasma. After being transported those lippoproteins get in the cells thanks to the receptors in cell membrane (B:E, E and scavangers receptors). Only if they are bounded to the proteins they can go out and in through the plasma and different cells in the organism.
How does emulsification benefit digestion?
Answer:
Emulsification formation is part of the fat digestion process; At this stage the fats are broken down into small particles by the detergent action and the mechanical agitation of the stomach. Bile salts also enter this process resulting in mixed micelles, which serve to transport the fats to the next stage of their digestion, all of which result in an adequate and efficient lipid metabolism, benefiting digestion.
Which of the following is true regarding use of a da Vinci robot?
A. decreases range of motion
B. decreases operative time
C. increases healthcare costs
D. increases visualization
Hi !
Which of the following is true regarding use of a da Vinci robot?
D. increases visualization
The use of a da Vinci robot increases healthcare costs and improves the surgeon's visualization with high-definition 3D views, although its effects on operative time and range of motion can vary depending on many factors.
The use of a da Vinci robot in surgery has several impacts on the medical procedures:
A. It increases range of motion due to its articulated wrist-like instruments.B. It could decrease operative time once the surgical team is proficient with the system, but initially may increase time due to the learning curve.C. It increases healthcare costs significantly due to initial investment, maintenance, and operation costs.D. It increases visualization for the surgeon with a three-dimensional, high-definition view.Considering these points, the correct answer to the question is that the use of a da Vinci robot increases healthcare costs (C) and increases visualization (D).
Name and briefly describe the three functions of the small intestine.
Answer:
Functions of the small intestine:
- Digestion process = contributes to end digestion by adding pancreatic and bile juices to the process.
- Absorption process = Aids in the absorption of water, vitamins, proteins, salts, fats necessary for the body.
- Food transit (peritalism) = the chyme formed in the stomach continues its process in the intestine where more digestive enzymes are joined until it is taken to the large intestine with many products already discarded from the digestion.
Why is reflex testing an important diagnostic tool in physical examinations?
Answer:
Reflex test determines the injury of spinal cord and neuromuscular disease.
Explanation:
Reflex test is a type of neurological examination that determines the functioning of both the motor and sensory pathway. This is a simple test that explains the integrity of nervous system.
Reflex test helps in measuring the strength and presence of number of reflexes. This test is helpful to determine the location of spinal cord injury and neuromuscular diseases.
Decreased levels of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin may cause
a. anxiety.
b. phobic behavior.
c. euphoria and excitement.
d. depression.
Answer:
d. depression.
Explanation:
Research in Neuroscience points out that population showing depression lacks neurontrasmitters levels like serotonin and norepinephrine;presenting lower levels and so the imbalance of key hormones is suggesting this contributes to feelings of depression
In the last 50 years biological theraphy tries to remedy this by drug prescriptions that will stimulate hormones reabsrobtion
With low levels of serotonin have been often comes along with poor memory,low mood, difficult to sleep, low self-esteem,
Some recreational drugs function as they increase serotonin. Of course cognitive, medical or other therapies will be recommended
What does peristalsis accomplish in the small intestine?
Answer:
Peristalsis continues in the duodenum with the mobility of the chyme in order to extract the greatest amount of protein and nutrients, while allowing it to come into contact with bile juices for better digestion.
Describe diffusion and osmosis, as well as comparing hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic solutions.
Answer:
Diffusion is the net movement of any substance from a higher concentration region to the lower concentration region. It is conducting by a concentration gradient.
Osmosis is a process in which solvent (molecules) pass through a semipermeable membrane (SPM) from a lower concentration solution region to a higher concentration region so it equalizes the concentrations on each side of the SPM.
A hypotonic solution is a solution that has a higher concentration of solutes inside the cell than outside of the cell. Thus the movement of water is from outside to the inside of the cell.
A hypertonic solution is a solution in which solutes concentration is greater outside the cell and low concentration inside. The movement of water is from inside the cell to outside the cell.
An isotonic solution where two solutions having the same concentration inside and outside of the cell so there is free movement of molecules across a semipermeable membrane.
Which one of the following anti-hypertensive drugs may cause postural hypotension?
a. Propanolol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Losartan
Answer:
The correct option is : b. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:
Postural hypotension, also known as the orthostatic hypotension, is a medical condition in which the blood pressure of a person drops while in a standing or sitting position. This condition is characterized by a drop in the systolic and diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 and 10 mm Hg respectively. This drop in blood pressure can be sudden or gradual.
The hydrochlorothiazide is an anti-hypertensive drug which can cause postural hypotension.
Describe age related disorders of two of the following: olfaction, gustation, vision, equilibrium, hearing.
Answer: There are many problems that is related to age. The normal functioning of the body get disturbed as people reach certain age.
There are many defects that is seen in olfaction, vision, equilibrium, hearing, gustation et cetera.
Say, glucoma is a age related disorder in which rise in fluid pressure takes place in eyes, which leads to vision impairment in older age groups.
Hypogeusia is a problem that is associated with the reduced ability to taste things. This also occurs in the people with older age groups.
Answer:
Explanation:
Glaucoma is an age-related disorder of vision. In this, the optic nerve in the eye gets damaged. This is caused by abnormal high pressure on the eye. It is one of the leading causes of blindness in people over 60 years of age.
Presbycusis is an age-related loss of hearing. It is an irreversible age-related loss of hearing that results from the degeneration of cochlea and associated structures in the inner ear or auditory nerves.
Which psychiatric disorder consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.?
a. anxiety disorder
b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. panic disorder
The correct answer is C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation
Obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is a psychiatric or mental disorder in which people mainly shows compulsion or repetitive behaviors and obsession which become repetitive and automatic as the individual is unable to control these behaviors which leads to issues in the individual's daily life. Because of this, in OCDs behaviors such as counting certain elements compulsively, storing objects in a certain way, repetitive hand washing, doing certain actions a specific number of times and checking if the doors are locked over and over are common. Additionally, this type of disorder is linked to anxiety disorder as irrational anxiety and fears can lead to compulsions and disorders. Considering this, it can be concluded it is Obsessive-compulsive disorder the disorder that consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.
Angina pectoris is an example of a(n) __________ pain.
Answer: Chest Pain
Explanation:
Angina pectoris is a type of ischemic pain associated with inadequate blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain. It is a symptom of coronary heart disease and can be classified as either stable or unstable angina. Treatment focuses on symptom relief and slowing down the progression of cardiovascular disease.
Explanation:Angina pectoris is an example of ischemic pain. Angina is a symptom of coronary heart disease, where chest pain or discomfort occurs because the heart muscle cells do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen (ischemia). This condition is commonly caused by the partial blockage of the coronary arteries due to the buildup of plaque.
There are two types of angina: stable angina and unstable angina. Stable angina is manageable and often triggered by physical exertion, while unstable angina can occur at rest, last longer, and could be an indicator of an imminent heart attack. Treatment for angina aims to provide symptom relief and slow the progression of atherosclerosis.
The symptom of chest pain associated with angina often feels like pressure or squeezing and may spread to other areas such as the arms, neck, jaw, or back. This is an indication that the heart muscle requires more oxygen than it is receiving. Such symptoms warrant timely medical evaluation and management.
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The foldings of the plasma membrane of intestinal epithelial cells that produce the "brush border" are called ____________.
Answer:
The villi present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall has numerous microvilli that form the brush border.
Explanation:
The villi are the finger-like, small projections or foldings, present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall and extends into the lumen of small intestine. The special structure of the villi maximizes the surface area of the intestine, in order to maximize the absorption of nutrients.
The villus has numerous microvilli projecting from enterocytes of the epithelium. These numerous microscopic projections form the striated or brush border.
What are the two valves (sphincters) that enclose the small intestine at each end?
Answer:
Pylorus and ileocecal valve
Explanation:
The pylorus is the sphinecter that connects the stomach with the first portion of the small intestine, the pulorus has an antrum and a canal. This valve control the gastruc flow from the stomach to the duedenum.
The ileocecal connect both intestines, this valve that connects the ileum to the cecum has an importan absorption and lymphatic functions.
The small intestine is enclosed by two sphincters called the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine and the ileocecal valve regulates the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine.
Explanation:The two valves, or sphincters, that enclose the small intestine at each end are the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter is located at the stomach end of the small intestine and controls the passage of food material, commonly known as chyme, from the stomach into the duodenum of the small intestine. This sphincter is usually closed, but when food needs to be passed into the small intestine, it opens to allow the passage of the chyme.
On the opposite end of the small intestine, the ileocecal valve controls the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine. Similar to the pyloric sphincter, the ileocecal valve is generally constricted but relaxes to allow the passage of food residue to enter the cecum, the first part of the large intestine, when ileal motility increases. Once the chyme has passed through, backward pressure assists in closing the sphincter, preventing any backflow into the ileum.
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The thyroid hormones increase metabolic rate by increasing all of the following except:
a. oxygen utilization
b. glycogenolysis
c. lipolysis
d. Na+/K+ ATPase activity
e. CO2 production
f. protein synthesis
Answer:
The correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.
Explanation:
Thyroid hormones stimulate an increase in metabolic rate. It increased oxygen consumption and rates of ATP hydrolysis. Increased thyroid hormone levels stimulate lipid mobilization. They also increase the oxidation of fatty acids in several tissues.
Thyroid hormones have an effect on the increase of metabolism of carbohydrates, including increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis to producing free glucose.
CO₂ production is not a factor that increases metabolic rate stimulated by thyroid hormone but an outcome of the metabolic activity.
Thus, the correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.
The scientific name of brewer's yeast, which is an excellent experimental organism used to study eukaryotic cells, is __________.
(a) E. coli
(b) D. melanogaster
(c)S. cerevisiae
(d) C. elegans
Answer: Option C " S. cerevisiae"
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae can be used as a model system for the fundamental cellular process related to eukaryotic organism.
The reason it is being used for the study of eukaryotic cells is as follows:
1- It has high multiplication rate.
2- As per the study, more than 60% of the functional gene is known.
3- 30% of the human genes has the same homology to this yeast
Hence, S. cerevisiae is used as a model organism for studying eukaryotic cells.
The pressure within the alveoli will never reach a pressure equal to that of atmospheric air.
a. False
b. True
Answer:
The correct answer will be option false.
Explanation:
The pressure between alveoli is known as alveolar pressure or intra-pulmonary pressure.
During inspiration, alveolar pressure reaches below the atmospheric pressure due to increase in the thoracic volume which again equals the atmospheric pressure at the end of inspiration and similarly during expiration, the alveolar pressure increase which again attains equilibrium with at the end of expiration.
Therefore, at the end of inspiration and expiration, the intra-pulmonary pressure equals the atmospheric pressure hence, false is the correct option.
Final answer:
The claim that alveolar pressure never equals atmospheric pressure is false. Intra-alveolar pressure does indeed reach a level equal to that of the atmospheric pressure as it equalizes with it during the breathing cycle.
Explanation:
During the breathing cycle, Intra-alveolar pressure (intrapulmonary pressure) changes; it decreases during inhalation when the chest and diaphragm muscles expand the chest and diaphragm moves downward creating negative gauge pressure, and it increases during exhalation when these muscles relax and surface tension in the alveoli creates positive pressure inside the lungs. The intra-alveolar pressure always eventually equalizes with the atmospheric pressure, which is the pressure exerted by gases in the air surrounding us. The difference in pressure between intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressures is called transpulmonary pressure, and it's crucial for the process of breathing, as according to Boyle's Law, air flows from a space of higher pressure to a space of lower pressure, allowing for inhalation and exhalation.
Which cells are responsible for bone formation? Resorption? Why are both processes important?
Answer:
Osteoblasts are responsible for formation and osteoclasts are responsible for resorption. Both processes are important to keep balance in bone density and matter. Through the different stages of life the balance varies.
-Childhood: Osteogenesis > Resorption
-Adolescence-30 years: Osteoblasts > osteoclasts
-30-50 years: balance between formation and resorption. >30 years, bone loss begins. (1% per year)
->50 years (in menopause and in andropause) there is greater bone resorption, increases that annual 1%, up to 10% per year; This activity is hormone dependent.
A myringotomy knife is used on the:
A. nose
B. eye
C. ear
D. throat
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. ear.
Explanation:
A myringotomy is a surgery in which a very small incision is made in the tympanic membrane or eardrum of the ear by the surgeon to release pressure created by excessive fluid, or to remove pus from the middle ear.
The surgeon uses the myringotomy knife to create an incision in the tympanic membrane. The myringotomy knife is a needle-like a lancet blade which helps in piercing and incision.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. ear.
A myringotomy knife is used in the surgical procedure called myringotomy, which is performed on the ear, not nose, eye or throat. This tool helps to relieve pressure or fluid build-up that is causing chronic ear infections.
Explanation:A myringotomy knife is a surgical tool used in medicine, particularly in the field of otolaryngology, which is the area of medicine concerning the ear, nose, and throat, but this specific tool is primarily designed to be used on the ear. The word 'myringotomy' comes from the Greek 'myringa,' meaning 'drum,' referring to the ear drum, and 'tome,' meaning 'cutting.' Therefore, a myringotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the eardrum, often to relieve pressure or remove fluid in cases of chronic otitis media (ear infections).
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Which cranial nerve carries motor commands to the chewing muscles?
a. facial nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. trigeminal nerve
d. glossopharyngeal nerve
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying motor commands to the muscles involved in chewing. Hence, the answer is option c.
The trigeminal nerve (CN V) nerve controls the muscles involved in mastication, which is necessary for chewing food. Additionally, for testing purposes, stretch reflexes in these muscles can indicate the functionality of the trigeminal nerve. The motor functions of the facial nerve are related to facial expressions rather than mastication and can be tested by observing a patient's ability to perform actions such as raising eyebrows, smiling, and frowning. Hence, the correct answer to the question is option c. trigeminal nerve.
Why most of the microorganisms cannot survive in the stomach?
How do you know if you have rheumatoid arthritis
Answer:
Patients would get Joint stiffness, swollen joints, some will get fatigue, lack of energy, low fever, if there damage to the lungs they'll get shortness of breath.
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the synovial joints of the hands, feet, and cervical spine.
Symptoms: RA causes joints to become swollen, stiff, and painful. It typically affects joints symmetrically, meaning if one side of the body is affected, the other side likely will be too. Commonly affected areas are the hands, feet, and neck.
Autoimmune Disease: RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissue. This attack leads to inflammation of the joint lining, breakdown of cartilage, and eventual pain as bones start to rub against each other.
Risk Factors: RA is more common in women than men, and the typical age of onset is between 40 to 50 years of age. Factors like genetics, environment, and possible hormonal changes can contribute to the development of RA.
Diagnosis: Diagnosing RA involves several steps:
Clinical Evaluation: A rheumatologist will evaluate your symptoms, such as joint inflammation and pain.Medical Imaging: X-rays and MRI scans can help detect joint damage and inflammation.Blood Tests: Specific blood tests look for markers that indicate RA, such as rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies.Advanced Imaging: Sometimes, an arthrogram, which is a type of medical imaging that uses a contrast agent, is performed. This technique visualizes the soft tissue structures within the joints, such as cartilage and tendons, allowing early detection of degenerative changes.
Describe the nucleus position for each of these muscle types
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position _________
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position _________
Answer:
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position- Periphery of the cell
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position- At the center of the cell
Explanation:
The skeletal muscles are elongated and are tubular in shape. 40% of our body mass is made up of skeletal muscles. They are attached to the bones and help in movement. They consists of multiple nuclei and the nuclei are located at the periphery of the cell.
The smooth muscles are spindle shaped. They are wide in the middle and narrow at the end points. They are responsible for involuntary movements in the internal organs. These types of muscles have a single centrally located nucleus.
Thus,
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position- Periphery of the cell
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position- At the center of the cell
Correct spelling of nontender
It can be spelled as either non tender or non-tender
Both are correct
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is associated with a deficiency of
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is associated with a deficiency of thiamine deficiency.
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is ________?
Answer: Synovial Fluid.
Explanation:
Synovial fluid is also known as synovia, which is a viscous extracellular fluid which is non Newtonian fluid found in the cavities of the sinovial joints.
This fluid has a consistency of egg white and is non reactive. The main role of this fluid is to provide flexibility and reduce friction during the various types of body movements, between the articular cartilage of the joints.
So, the correct answer is Synovial fluid.
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is called synovial fluid.
Synovial fluid is a clear, viscous fluid that is found within the joint cavities of synovial joints. It serves as a lubricant to minimize friction and abrasion between the articulating surfaces of the bones within the joint.
The synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint capsule. It is composed of a mixture of water, proteins, electrolytes, and other substances. The primary function of synovial fluid is to reduce friction and wear between the cartilage-covered surfaces of the joint. As the joint moves, the synovial fluid spreads and forms a thin film between the articulating surfaces, allowing them to glide smoothly over each other.Thus, the complete sentence is "The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is synovial fluid".
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Complete the sentence.
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is ________?
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to
a. the end-systolic volume.
b. the end-diastolic volume.
c. the afterload.
d. the heart rate.
e. contractility.
Answer:
The end-diastolic volume.
Explanation:
The Frank-Starling law is also named as the Starling's law. This law explains the relationship between the end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
This law propose that the stroke volume increases with the increase in the end-diastolic volume of the heart, all other factors remain same. Hence, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart is proportional to the end-diastolic volume. It means that the more the heart is filled during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the more it ejects during systolic contraction (stroke volume). This law is pivotal in maintaining the balance of blood volume in the heart.
Explanation:The Frank-Starling law of the heart is a physiological phenomenon which states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.
In other words, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume (Option B). The larger the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the larger the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (stroke volume), which is an essential mechanism for maintaining the balance of input and output blood volume in the heart.
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A client’s transdermal fentanyl was discontinued 2hr ago due to adverse effects. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to document?
a. Heart rate
b. Respiratory rate
c. Bowel sounds
d. Activity level
Answer:
The answer is A Heart Rate
Explanation:
Fentanyl is an analgesic medication that is used for chronic pain that acts on different presynaptic and postsynaptic receptors of the organism. it can produce bradycardia, due to its effect on the sinus node conduction.
You are working with a family who is opposed to vaccinations for their new infant. What is your nursing responsibility in this situation?
Answer:
Your nursing responsibility is to provide adequate information of the pros and cons of vaccinating or not vaccinating.
Explanation:
Proteins are polymers made of the following monomer molecules?
(a) sugars
(b) fatty acids
(c) nucleotides
(d) amino acids
Answer:D amino Acids
Explanation: School Dawg
Which of the functions below is least associated with hepatic function?
A. Lipid emulsification
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. glycogen storage
D. iron storage
E. digestive enzyme secretion
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Liver is a large reddish brown organ that is responsible for various types of function. It deals with many functions.
Some of them includes: Lipid emulsification, iron storage, Gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage.
It does not helps in the secretion of digestive enzymes secretion. Liver produces bilivirdin and bilirubin(yellowish fluid)which helps in the emulsification of fat droplets but bilivirdin and bilirubin are not digestive enzymes.
Hence, the correct answer is" option E".