Answer: b. cricoid cartilage.
Explanation:
The larynx cavity extends from the triangle shaped inlet that is called as the epiglottis which opens to the circular outlet that is called as circoid cartilage at the lower border. The circoid cartilage forms continuity with that of the lumen of the trachea. The mucous membrane which provides the lining to the larynx forms two pairs of the lateral folds that opens inward inside the cavity.
Part of the tooth covered with enamel.
Answer:
The answer to the question: The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel, would be: the crown of the tooth.
Explanation:
The human teeth are divided into two parts, a hardened one, which is the one we can see protruding from the gum line, and which is the one that we use to bite, pounce food and chew it before swallowing. This portion of the tooth is called the crown, it is the white, hardened, visible part, and it is covered with enamel to protect it from the mechanical and corrosive forces of both food, and saliva, as well as bacteria. The second portion of the tooth is known as the root, and it is the softer part that is protected and covered by the gums. The root anchors the tooth to the bone structures of the mandible and maxilla.
Answer:
The crown is the part of the tooth that is covered by enamel.
Explanation:
In the constitution of the tooth four distinct areas can be visualized: the enamel, the dentine, the cement and the pulp. The tooth has a part that comes out of the gums and another that is inside them. The visible outer part of the tooth that is covered by the enamel is called the crown. If it is broken or deteriorated for any reason, it does not have the possibility of self-reconstruction, so the dentist's intervention becomes essential.
Enamel coats the crown of the tooth and is quite hard, as it is the most mineralized tissue found anywhere in the human body. About 96% of its composition is mineralized material, while the remaining 4% is composed of water and organic materials. The thickness of the enamel, in turn, varies from the tip of the crown to the amelio-cementary junction. In the crown, the thickness is greater and decreases as you approach the gum.
A patient eligible for benefits is one who:
A-) has received services from the physician
B-) is not covered under the insurance plan.
C-) has family members who are covered under the insurance
plan.
D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
E-) none of the above.
Answer: D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
Explanation:
The health insurance plan is the plan which covers the whole or a part of the medical expenses that are required to be used for the purpose of treatment, diagnosis and maintenance of health in every aspect of age.
The person who is under the coverage of the health insurance plan is eligible for benefits in the case of medical emergency.
Stain formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources.
Answer:
The answer to this question: Satins formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources, would be: intrinsic staining.
Explanation:
When talking about tooth appearance and tooth health, people tend to see stains on teeth and wonder if the problem is a lack of hyginie from the person who has them, or if there might be a different reason. While indeed there are stains that are caused on the tooth due to bad nutritional habits, and bad hyginie, there are others, known as intrinsic staining, that happen due to causes that are beyond a person´s control. Intrinsic staining is defined as the stains that appear on the inside structure of a tooth, they are caused by problems in the formation of the tooth, and they cannot be removed by professionals, or by anything. It is almost like they are part of the tooth itself. Exposure to certain elements, such as antibiotics during teeth formation, can result in intrinsic staining.
The funnel-shaped end of the uterine tube is called the ____________.
Answer:
infundibulum
Explanation:
The most distal portion of the uterine tube is the Infundibulum, which can be compared to a funnel whose mouth has a very uneven rim that looks like fringes. These fringes are named tuba fimbriae, one of which stands out for being longer, called ovarian fimbria. The infundibulum opens freely in the peritoneum cavity through a foramen known as the uterine tube abdominal ostium.
Commonly the infundibulum fits over the ovary, and the fimbriae could be roughly compared to the fingers of one hand holding an orange over it.
Boyle's law states that gas volume is
A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) inversely proportional to pressure.
C) inversely proportional to temperature.
D) directly proportional to temperature.
E) both A and B
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'b': inversely proportional to pressure.
Explanation:
According to Boyle's Law we have
For a gas at an constant temperature Pressure of the gas varies inversely with the volume occupied by the gas.
Mathematically we can state that
At constant temperature
[tex]Pressure\alpha \frac{1}{Volume}[/tex]
Thus from the given options, option 'b' is correct
Boyle's Law, a fundamental concept in chemistry, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure assuming constant temperature and gas quantity. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
In the study of gases, Boyle's Law is a fundamental notion that defines the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas. This law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, provided the temperature and quantity of gas remain constant. Hence, option B is the correct choice. It implies that when the pressure of gas goes up, its volume goes down and vice versa. For instance, if you try to compress a gas into a smaller space, you increase its pressure.
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Which of the following is true concerning oxygen in regards to aerobic respiration?
a. It is the only substrate of aerobic respiration.
b. It directly receives electrons and protons from NAD+ and FAD.
c. It is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.
d. It directly transfers electrons and protons to NAD+ and FAD.
e. It transports electrons to the mitochondrion.
Answer:
Correct answer is c. It is the final electron acceptor in the aerobic respiration.
Explanation:
Oxygen is a substrate of the aerobic respiration, but it is not the only one. Glucose is also a substrate.
Oxygen is used in the cells to be the final electron acceptor, this means that receives the electrons from NADH and FADH2. That is why, when there is no oxygen available for aerobic respiration, the NADH and FADH2 cannot be oxidized and therefore remain in their reduced form. As a consequence, they cannot be re-utilized during different cellular processes that are NAD+ and FAD dependant, such as glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and cellular respiration. This means that the ATP synthesis stops.
Oxygen itself does not transport any electrones, this are transported by the cytochrome complex in the mitochondrial membrane. But oxygen is key in receiving those electrones, therefore a very important piece of the electron transport across the mitochondria.
Which o the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa?
a. The cilia can "taste" bitter toxins in the air.
b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin.
c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Cilia are tiny hair-like projections or appendages on the surface of the outside of the cells, in respiratory tract cells not move on which cilia are present, however, these projections are helpful in moving debris like microorganisms like bacteria, dust, and toxins out of the lungs.
Cilia can sense bitter toxins or substances in the air and remove or expel it, these present on the epithelial cells in the human airway that taste bitter compounds remove it. Cilia moving more rapid in turn of toxin response. The exposure time has no effective role in expelling the toxin by cilia.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Answer:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Explanation:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
a. Their origin is the hyoid bone.
b. They move the larynx as a whole.
c. They serve in voice production.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Answer:
The correct option is: c. They serve in voice production
Explanation:
Larynx is the organ responsible for protecting the trachea, sound production, manipulating the volume and the pitch, and is also involved in breathing.
The two types of muscles present in the larynx are the intrinsic muscles and extrinsic muscles.
The intrinsic muscles are further divided into: Phonatory muscles and Respiratory muscles. The respiratory muscles assist in breathing by moving apart the vocal cords and the phonatory muscles are responsible for producing sound by moving the vocal cords together.
The intrinsic muscles of the larynx serve in voice production by controlling the tension and position of the vocal cords, thereby not primarily moving the larynx as a whole or originating from the hyoid bone.
Explanation:The intrinsic muscles of the larynx are vital for various functions of the larynx, which includes swallowing, breathing, and most importantly voice production. Option c is the correct answer as the main function of intrinsic muscles is to control the tension and position of the vocal cords, playing a crucial role in voice production. Therefore, they do not primarily move the larynx as a whole or originate from the hyoid bone.
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What impact would low blood pressure have on kidneys? What symptoms might you expect with a decrease in kidney functions?
Answer:
Continuous low pressure can affect the kidneys and other vital parts of the body. It can cause kidney failure and other diseases related to the kidney.
Strokes are one of the most common factor for the low blood pressure. This is so because there is an inadequate blood supply to the organs of the body.
This is because the flow rate is not enough to reach the organs. The decrease in the kidney failure is related to difficulty in urination, swelling in the feet and legs.
These are some common symptoms of kidney dysfunction.
During glycolysis
A) four molecules of ATP are produced.
B) two molecules of ATP are consumed.
C) a molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'E': Options A,B,C all are correct.
Explanation:
The reaction of glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that involves the breakdown of glucose molecule into pyruvate ion and releasing energy is termed as glycolysis.
Glycolysis involves breakdown of 1 molecule of glucose in presence of 2 molecules of ATP into 2 molecules of pyruvate and 4 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of water.
The skeleton of the heart
a. helps to support the coronary arteries
b. anchors cardiac msucle fibers
c. contains osseous tissue
d. prevents the backflow of blood in the heart
e. stimulates the myocardium
Answer: b. anchors cardiac muscle fibers
Explanation:
The skeleton of the heart functions to anchor the cardiac muscle fibers of the heart, which anchors the valves of the heart and four chambers of heart. It forms a high density single unit of the connective tissue. It anchors the valves and four chambers to control and maintain the blood pressure of the free flowing blood through the heart.
What is the expected response of diastolic blood pressure (DBP) as workloads increase during a graded exercise test?
a. It will remain the same or decrease.
b. It will most likely increase.
Answer:
The expected response of diastolic blood pressure as workload increases during a graded exercise test b. it will most likely increase
Explanation:
The heart is a bomb which is encharged of pumping blood to every part in the body. When the body makes an extra effort like is seen in a graded exercise test, the heart needs to increase the pumping of blood and all of these is because there are many means of compensation to maintain an adequate and physiological requirements. Those means of compensation are increases of cardiac frequency and an increase in blood pressure. The increase of blood pressure is majorly seen in systolic pressure but also is seen a little increase in diastolic blood pressure.
Dialysis in which blood is circulated through a machine and replaced is called ___________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Hemodialysis
Explanation:
Hemodialysis is a technique or a process used for the purification of blood, in case of a kidney failure. In this technique, a hemodialysis machine and special filter, called the dialyzer, is used for blood purification. The dialyzer is also known as the artificial kidney.
The process of hemodialysis involves the diffusion of solute particles across the semipermeable membrane.
Organization, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, development, growth and reproduction all together are called __________ of a human body.
This i weird to me because I know of these things to be summarized to be called the definitive of human life, not as a single word but that wouldn't fit in your sentence there so I don't know what it could possibly be? Comment if you could give me a little bit more of information about this. Hope u figure it out ^^.
ANSWER:
Organization, responsiveness, metabolism, movement, reproduction development and growth all together are called life processes of a human body.
EXPLANATION:
These life processes are the basic functions that the human body needs to carry out to survive. All these functions are interdependent and unique. Metabolism for instance is a process that provides energy to the body to do its work. Movement for instance can refer to the 'movement of substances' in the body; blood movement in the body is essential to provide oxygen to all parts of the body.The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the:
a. trachea.
b. nose.
c. nasopharynx.
d. oropharynx.
Answer:
The eustachian tube is a canal that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal with the air pressure
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Its function is crucial for normal hearing as it equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Therefore, the correct answer would be C
Explanation:The eustachian tube is a structure within the human body which plays a key role in the auditory system. It connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx, which is an area of the pharynx, located behind the nose and above the rear part of the throat. Option c, 'nasopharynx', is the correct answer to this question. This tube is used to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, which is essential for normal hearing.
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Describe the function of both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins. Are these vessels components of pulmonary criculation or systemic circulation?
Answer:
The respiratory and circulatory systems have always worked as a team to maintain the human body alive. In fact, life would not be possible if the two of them did not work in unison. As such, when the heart pumps blood from the right ventricle, it pushes this de-oxygenated blood towards the lungs for oxygenation and then the vessels that pass through the lungs return the newly oxygenated blood to the left atria, and then left ventricle, to be pumped into the system. In order to achieve this, the circulatory system counts with a pulmonary circulatory system and a systemic circulation. The first is formed by the pulmonary veins and arterties, while the second is formed by the aorta.
So given this explanation, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are the pulmonary arteries, whose role is to lead de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle towards the two lungs for gas exchange, and the two pulmonary veins, who return from the lungs with the newly oxygenated blood to enter the left atria, from which blood passes to the left ventricle. From the ventricle blood is then pumped into the circulatory system.
2. Both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation, while the aorta and vena cavas are the main vessels responsible for systemic circulation starting from the heart.
Olfactory epithelium is found:
a. lining the nasopharynx.
b. covering the superior turbinate.
c. lining the paranasal sinuses
d. in all of the above.
Answer:
The correct option is: b. covering the superior turbinate.
Explanation:
The olfactory epithelium is a part of olfactory system that is responsible for the detection of odors. It is an epithellial tissue which is present in on the surface of the superior turbinate or superior conchae, and septum inside the nasal cavity.
This epithellial tissue consists of the following cells: supporting cells, basal cells, brush cells, and the olfactory sensory neurons.
______________ in the urine is an early sign of nephropathy.
Answer:
protein
Explanation:
Bile salts from the liver and gall bladder aid in the digestion of ________ by inducing _________.
a) starch, glycogenolysis
b) proteins, denaturation
c) carbohydrates, glycogenolysis
d) lipids, emulsification
Answer: Lipids; emulsification
Explanation:
The lipids(fats) digestion begins in the stomach with the help of gastric lipase and lingual lipase. The bile salts from the liver and gall bladder are poured in the small intestine where the lipid digestion takes place.
This is done by the help od the process known as Emulsification. It is a process in which large lipid globules are broken into several small lipids.
These small lipids are distributed in chyme. This is important for the digestion of lipids as lipase work on the small lipid molecules aggregated in chyme.
Answer:
The correct answer is option is 'd': lipids,emulsification
Explanation:
Bile salts are substances that are release from the liver and are stored in the gal bladder and they help in digestion by breaking down lipids and fats into simpler molecules for their easier digestion by a process known as emulsification. The bile salts are dark green to yellowish in color. The bile salts acts as surfactants that help in emulsifying the fats, thus helping in their digestion.
Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
Explanation:
The SA node is a natural pacemaker. It consists of a cluster of cells that are situated to the walls of the right atrium of the heart. The electrical impulses produce at that place. It is also called as sinus node. The cells of the pacemaker posses their own intrinsic rhythm, so as to maintain the continuous pumping of the heart. In the rest, the SA node causes the heart to beat at a rate of 50-100 beats per minute. During activity the heart rate rises over 100 beats per minute.
Oral communications class
The difference between a thesis statement and the general
purpose of the speech is....
A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech
where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve
with the speech.
B. The general purpose statement offers your opinion of the
speech, the thesis statement provides the facts.
C. The thesis statement is longer and more detailed than the
general purpose statement.
D. The thesis statement and the general purpose statement are
the same thing.
Answer: A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve with the speech.
Explanation:
The general purpose of the speed includes the statement(s) which is a declarative sentence. It gives the introduction of the topic of the interest. It gives a brief understanding about the topic to the audience. The thesis statement is the main notion and objective of the topic and it is basically the entire conclusion of the topic.
Final answer:
The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech, stating the topic, angle, and aspects covered, while the general purpose statement outlines the overall objective of the speech, such as to inform or persuade the audience. So the correct option is A.
Explanation:
The difference between a thesis statement and the general purpose of a speech lies in the objectives within a presentation. Option A is the accurate answer. The thesis statement identifies the main idea or the central claim of the speech, often summarizing the speaker's position and the key points that will be addressed throughout. It typically appears at the end of the introduction and precisely states the topic, angle, and the aspects of the topic that will be covered. Conversely, the general purpose statement delineates the speaker's overall objective with the speech, such as to inform, persuade, entertain, or inspire the audience. This statement helps to guide the speaker in keeping the audience at the center of the presentation, establishing a central theme, and setting a realistic goal for the speech's intent, but it is not usually shared verbatim with the audience.
It’s important to note that while the thesis statement provides a clear focus for the speech, the general purpose statement is more about the speaker's intention and the effect they hope to have on the audience. Therefore, although both are crucial for planning and delivering an effective speech, they serve different functions in the preparation and execution of the presentation.
Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from
a. aerobic respiration in the mitochondria
b. anaerobic respiration in the cytosol
c. glycoludid in the cytosol
d. ATP that is stored while the heart is not contracting
e. creatinine phosphate
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from:___, would be, A: aerobic respiration in the mitochondria.
Explanation:
In order for the heart muscles (myocardium) to contract, there are a series of elements that need to be present. One of them, and most vital, is calcium, which will activate the connection of myosin and actin, the filaments in cardiomyocytes, the very units of muscular tissues in the heart. However, even if calcium were present, without ATP, the molecule of energy that will allow the process to happen, then contractions would not be possible. There simply would not be energy to allow the chemical reactions. The one organelle within the cell that is responsible to ensure there is ATP available, is the mitochondria. This production of ATP by mitochondria, happens through the process of aerobic respiration. This is why the answer is A.
Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because immunizations are actually more effective because of the small body size. their blood circulation is too slow. their immune systems are compromised. their body tissues are growing too slowly.
Answer:
Immune systems of malnourished children are compromised.
Explanation:
Immunizations in malnourished kids are less powerful on the grounds that their immune system is frail and can not react ordinarily to the procedure of inoculation.
Administrating immunizations to such kids can't enact their immune systems on the grounds that frail response are acquired and are not ready to deliver sufficient antibodies against pathogens or antigens.
Malnourished children have less effective immunizations due to weakened immune systems caused by malnutrition, influencing the immune response to vaccines.
Explanation:Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because their immune systems are compromised. Malnutrition, particularly inadequate protein intake, can lead to decreased activity of the complement system, malfunction of phagocytes, and reduced production of antibodies and cytokines. Conditions like undernutrition weaken children's immune responses, making them more prone to infections and reducing the effectiveness of immunizations.
Parietal cells secrete
A) enteropeptidase.
B) gastrin.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) mucus.
E) pepsinogen.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Parietal cells secrete:___, would be, C: Hydrocloric acid (HCI).
Explanation:
Parietal cells are epithelial cells that can be found in the gastric glands both at the linings of both the fundus and cardia portions of the stomach. These cells are responsible in the process of digestion and absorption of nutrients, for the production of two chemical substances: intrinsic factor, necessary for the correct absorption of vitamin B12 later on in the ileum and also HCI, or hydrocloric acid. This acid will lower the pH of the stomach´s contents to enable correct and proper enzymatic work on proteins, most importantly. Its presence also stimulates the singaling by neurons to other organs of the GI tract to produce the necessary enzymes for proper digestion and absorption of the different nutrients.
To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option A. True
Explanation:
Arterial bleeding is a blood flow in an artery in which blood exits the wound in spurts with the heartbeat.
To stop arterial bleeding, direct pressure is applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
Placing the pressure on the wound helps in narrowing the blood vessels manually that results to stem blood flow and stops arterial bleeding.
There are several primary tools used for direct pressure including pressure bandages, commercial tourniquets, and hemostatic dressings.
Hence, the given statement is true.
The correct answer is True.
Explanation
In the case of arterial bleeding, it is important to provide first aid to prevent the person from bleeding to death.
The procedure that we can perform while the help arrives is to forcefully exert pressure on the wound and try to raise it above the height of the heart (if it is an upper limb). However, when we see that this procedure does not have any effect and the blood continues to flow, we must put pressure in the middle area between the artery or wound and the heart, in this way bleeding should stop due to the force applied to the artery. So, the correct answer is True.
The tricuspid valve is between the left atrium and ventricle and is under the most pressure to block backflow of flood during ventricular systole.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The previous sentence is false.
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. Also,The valve which is under the most pressure to block blacflow of blood during ventricular systole is the mitral valve. Mitral valve is the one which is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
The heart works with two processes: diastole and systole. Systole occurs when the heart contract himself to expulse blood to the vessels, and when the heart relaxes while it fulfills of blood is called diastole. During the systole process the tricuspid valve needs to be closed to allow the increase of pressures inside the heart cameras and then allow the expulse of blood. But, during diastole, tricuspid valve needs to be open to allow the correct filling of right side of the heart.
Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a maximal GXT?
a. DBP measurement of 120 mmHg
b. HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum
c. SBP measurement of 270 mmHg
d. subject requests to stop
Answer:
The correct answer is B:
HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum is NOT a reason to stop maximal GXT.
Explanation:
Maximal graded exercise test allows physicians to evaluate patients ability to perform cardiovascular exercise (functional capacity), an also detect if there are any zones of ischemia in the muscle heart due to arteriosclerosis.
To do so, the patient would be asked to walk on a treadmill and speed and slope of the treadmill will be increased gradually during the test. EKG, heart rate, and blood pressure will be recorded and compared afterwards.
The heart rate target to make a proper evaluation is 85% of the maximal predicted heart rate.
The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer choice for the question: The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
The popliteal pulse is the passage point of the brachial artery and it is in fact always found on the anterior surface of the elbow, medial to the tendons of the biceps. This major artery, the brachial artery, is the main vessel for the upper arms and it comes out of the axillary artery. As it tranverses down the upper arms, it reaches the cubital fossa of the elbow, where it divides into the radial and the ulnar arteries. When measuring blood pressure, it is usually this artery that is sought out and its sounds can be heard with a sthetoscope, and when using a sphygmomanometer, or blood presure cuff.
In a healthy heart, electrical activity begin in the
a. bundle of His
b. ventricles
c. right atrium
d. the pacemaker
Answer:
D. The pacemaker.
Explanation:
The electrical signal starts in the sinoatrial (SA) node.
The SA node is also known as the heart’s natural pacemaker. It's located in the right atrium at the entrance of the superior vena cava.
The impulse starts in the sinus node (SA) then the electrical activity propagate and stimulate the myocardium, causing its contraction, this forces blood into the ventricles.
Place the component sof the pharynx in the order air flows through them during inspirations. ___________, ____________, _______________
Answer:
The pharynx is a very important anatomical part of the human body because it is the common roadway for both food and fluids, and also for air. Because of this, and the importance that air and food do not go to the same place, mainly the lungs, the pharynx has a structure of skeletal and smooth muscle, as well as accessory anatomical features that will enable it to work as it should. Also, another anatomical structure derives from the pharynx, with the intention of becoming the tube for air passage; the larynx.
Putting the passage of food aside, and bearing in mind that the pharynx is the first airway, or upper airway, passage, continued lower down by the laryn, the answer to the question above would be thus:
Place the components of the pharynx in the order in which air flows through them during inspirations:
1. Nasopharinx: This structure is the one that is attached to the nasal cavity and it is separated from the mouth, or oral cavity by the soft palate. It is here that air passage begins as it descends towards the lungs.
2. Oropharinx: this is the part of the pharynx where both air and foodstuffs can mix. However, it is also important for air passage and it is the next step towards the lungs.
3. Laringopharynx: this is the structure where the pharynx gives rise to the laringeal tract, which will be the one that connects pharynx with trachea. the Laringopharynx has structures that will close whenever food is passing, so that nothing, except air, can enter the airways. And it will remain open for air passage to the larynx.