Answer:
4. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."
Explanation:
People with coronary artery disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of angina, are usually placed on sublingual nitroglycerin medications. Sublingual nitroglycerin is a small pill that is placed under the tongue, just as the name “sublingual” suggests. When placed under the tongue, it dissolves and is absorbed quickly into the body. The drug usually becomes active within 2 to 5 minutes and lasts between 15 to 30 minutes.
In cases where the patient suffers from frequent chest pain, it is recommended that the patient repeats the dose for a total of 2 to 3 doses 5 minutes apart, and the chest pain doesn’t subside, the patient can immediately call 911 or ED.
The patient in the question above demonstrates a good level of knowledge of the right use of the medication prescribed, except in the 4th Statement. The patient needs to be educated more about the use of the sublingual nitroglycerin. He needs to do a repeated dosage of one tablet every 5 minutes, if he still feels pain after the third tablet, he can then go to the ER or 911.
Drinking at least 6 liters of water daily a. is recommended by the National Academy of Sciences b. is necessary for healthy persons even if they are not thirsty c. can result in water intoxication d. improves athletic performance
Answer:
option C.
Explanation:
The correct answer is option C.
Drinking at least 6 Liters of water can help in the intoxication of the body.
When a person drinks a lot of water it mixes with the blood and dilutes the electrolyte basically sodium present in the water.
And the balance between sodium and water should be maintained.
If the sodium level decrease the water enters into the cell which leads to swelling of the cell.
When this happens it can produce dangerous and life-threatening effects.
During a feedback session, the nursing staff communicates that a recently appointed nurse is using "empowerment theory." Which statement of the nursing team members most supports this position?
a. "He/she can share power with others."
b. "He/she encourages others to provide input into decisions."
c. "He/she provides considerable information about the decision-making process."
Answer:
c. "He/she provides considerable information about the decision-making process."
Explanation:
“Empowerment” is a term used to conceptualizes the act or effect of promoting awareness and empowerment of a person or social group, usually to effect social, political, economic and cultural changes in the context that affects them. Is to give tools to certain oppressed groups for them to have conditions and be able to be autonomous to develop themselves.
The idea of empowerment is to give someone or a group the power of decision instead of overseeing it. The objective is to provide the necessary tools for this group to claim public policies that benefit or mitigate their specific difficulties.
For example, the black feminist movement, works to empower black women by promoting awareness through community education, lectures and content production.
Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions into "commonsense" neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to
Final answer:
Excessive ethanol consumption affects neurotransmitter function and energy metabolism in the brain, leading to poor decision-making. It alters the balance of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, and chronic use can result in alcohol dependence and a complex withdrawal syndrome. These effects underscore the neurological basis for the impaired judgment and decision-making seen in excessive alcohol use.
Explanation:
The question deals with the neurological responses to ethanol consumption and how it may lead to poor decision-making. Ethanol ingestion affects energy metabolism in neurons, resulting in alterations in neurotransmitter function and cellular machinery. This impact includes an influx of negative chloride ions into neurons that are crucial for appropriate behavior and decision-making, often referred to as "commonsense" neurons. Excessive ethanol consumption increases the activity of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors, which play a significant role in ethanol withdrawal symptoms and neurological maladaptations associated with chronic ethanol exposure.
Moreover, ethanol metabolism results in the production of acetaldehyde and subsequently acetic acid, exerting a toxic effect on humans when consumed in high amounts. The unregulated metabolism of ethanol prompts an increase in cellular energy state, influencing neurotransmitters such as dopamine, which gives a sense of well-being, but ultimately suppresses glutamatergic neural activity that signals anxiety and unease. Long-term excessive ethanol intake can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, nerve damage, and a complex withdrawal syndrome upon cessation of alcohol consumption.
When alcohol dependence occurs, disruption of energy metabolism and neurotransmitter homeostasis makes sudden withdrawal dangerous, leading to symptoms such as tremors, seizures, and hyperactivity of the glutamatergic system. Thus, the poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely a result of altered neurotransmitter function and dysregulated energy metabolism within vital brain neurons, culminating in impaired judgment and risky behaviors.
A client who diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is being treated with levodopa/carbidopa. Which disorder will result in the discontinuation of this drug based on a disease-related contraindication?
Answer:
Please read the explanation section.
Explanation:
When any doctor prescribes levodopa, it will be not a matter of the right decision to stop taking it by own without a doctor's permission. Suddenly stopping taking levodopa can develop a severe syndrome such as rigid muscles, fiver, unusual body movement, and confusion in mind.
So, it will be a good decision to stop taking levodopa as per the doctor's suggestion.
A mother tells the school nurse that her 5-year-old is refusing to go to school and won’t accept a ""school night"" bedtime. The school nurse knows the mother will need more instruction when the mother makes which statement?
Answer:
"I don't know why he is acting like this. He hasn't had anyone to play with but his little brother all summer."
Explanation:
This child got used to playing all day, everyday, during summer with his little brother. He is young and he can't be explained how he must take his obligation seriously and that the summer time is over. He's going through stress and coping with the fact that he won't be able to play anytime he wanted, and he would need adaptation to the new-found obligations.
Which best compares the male and female reproductive system? Select three options. The sperm duct and fallopian tube perform a similar function. The vagina and the penis are the last passageway out of the reproductive system. The glands of the male reproductive system have the same function as the uterus. The testes and ovaries perform a similar function. Testosterone is the dominant hormone in males and females.
The statement that best compares the male and female reproductive systems are as follows:
The sperm duct and fallopian tube perform a similar function.The vagina and the [tex]pen^is[/tex] are the last passageways out of the reproductive system.The testes and ovaries perform a similar function.Thus, the correct options for this question are A, B, and D.
What do you mean by Reproductive system?A reproductive system may be defined as a type of body system that significantly includes a group of organs and parts which function in reproduction consisting of the male and female with respect to their physiology and mechanisms.
The male reproductive system includes the testes which produce sperm, the [tex]pen^is[/tex], epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, and urethra. The female reproductive system consists of the ovaries which produce eggs or oocytes, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, vagina, and vulva.
Therefore, the correct options for this question are A, B, and D.
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Answer: abd
Explanation:
The extent of injury resulting from _____ is typically not immediately visible because the current flows through muscle tissue and organs and not through the skin, except at the entrance and exit points.
Answer:
The answer is Eletrical Shock
Explanation:
The extent of injury resulting from _Eletrical Shock____ is typically not immediately visible because the current flows through muscle tissue and organs and not through the skin, except at the entrance and exit points.
The ACA (Affordable Care Act) was designed to __________.
Final answer:
The Affordable Care Act (ACA), also known as Obamacare, aimed to enhance access to health insurance, protect consumers, and reduce healthcare costs, while mandating individual and employer coverage and offering a standardized Marketplace for plan comparison.
Explanation:
The Purpose of the Affordable Care Act (ACA)
The Affordable Care Act (ACA), commonly known as Obamacare, was enacted with several key objectives. The ACA aimed to increase access to health care coverage, protect consumers from insurance practices that could either deny them necessary care or elevate the cost of that care to unaffordable levels, and reduce overall healthcare costs. A cornerstone feature of the ACA was the individual mandate, which required all Americans to have health insurance or face a penalty. As part of this effort, employers were mandated to provide health care coverage if they had a certain number of employees, while individuals were given the ability to purchase insurance through the Health Insurance Marketplace. This Marketplace offered standardized health insurance coverage plans to make it easier for consumers to compare options. Another significant aspect of the ACA was the expansion of Medicaid, aimed at increasing coverage among low-income individuals.
Through a combination of mandates, subsidies, and insurance reforms, the ACA sought to reduce the number of uninsured Americans, which dropped from 16% pre-ACA to approximately 8.5% after ACA implementation. Moreover, the ACA included provisions to ensure that subscribers could not be denied coverage based on pre-existing conditions and that a substantial portion of premium funds received by insurers went directly toward medical care.
What kind of conditions occurs when the bronchial tubes are inflamed and coughing, often with mucus.
Answer:
The conditions can lead to chronic bronchitis.
Explanation:
The lungs airways like bronchial tube become inflamed and causes symptoms like coughing can lead to a condition called bronchitis. The severe form of the condition can cause acute form to chronic bronchitis. The person suffers from acute bronchitis recovers their health within few days. This can be caused by viral infections. The cough for months is a sign of chronic bronchitis. It takes years to recover. the inflammed linning of passage of lungs releases excess mucus. Smoking is a major cause of chronic bronchitis in men.
A female client aged 54 years has been scheduled for a bunionectomy (removal of bone tissue from the base of the great toe) which will be conducted on an ambulatory basis. Which characteristic applies to this type of surgery:
a. The client must be previously healthy with low surgical risks
b. The client will be admitted the day of surgery and return home the same day
c. The surgery will be conducted using moderate sedation rather than general anesthesia
d. The surgery is classified as urgent rather than elective.
Answer:
The client will be admitted the day of surgery and return home the same day.
Explanation:
The bunionectomy performed on the female patient is described as an ambulatory surgery, this means that the patient will be admitted the day of the surgery and after this is performed and a check up to see if she is recovering well the patient is able to return home on the same day.
Jeremy was born with serious heart, face and finger deformities. He is also showing signs of delayed motor development and lowered intelligence. Jeremy is most likely suffering from____.
a) Fetal alcohol syndrome
b) Premature birth
c) Prenatal exposure to nicotine
d) DNA syndrome
Answer: a) Fetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition which can be seen in a child. This syndrome develops in a child due to exposure to alcohol in prenatal development. It causes damage to the brain and poses a problem in growth. It delays motor development and lowers the cognitive development responsible for lowering the intelligence level. These children will have thin upper lips, small eyes, and deformities of the fingers and face. This child will be born with a defective heart.
In addition to the macronutrients it provides, the energy bar makes a significant contribution to meeting the Daily Value for several vitamins and minerals. What is a potential concern when consuming highly-fortified food products?
The correct answer would be, consuming multiple servings could lead to exceeding the Daily Value for some nutrients.
Explanation:
Energy bars are basically the food supplements that contain high energy foods to provide quick energy to people who do not have time for making and then eating meals.
Such energy bars give instant boost to the people consuming it. But consuming too many energy bars in a day may lead to an excess of the daily value for some nutrients. Everybody needs a specific amount of nutrients in a day. Exceeding these nutrients may cause disturbance in the body. For example, consuming too much fats may lead to obesity gradually. So even energy bars have to take in moderation.
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A recent study found that children with a high body mass index and waist circumference are at risk for _____ syndrome, a constellation of factors, including obesity, high blood pressure, and type II diabetes.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing the differences between the various diuretic agents. Which would the instructor cite as a difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?
Answer:
A difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide is that with the first one the amount of potassium that is lost through urine is smaller than with hydrochlorothiazide.
Explanation:
Spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide are two different types of diuretics, the main difference between these two is that the spironolactone is a diuretic that prevents the absorption of high quantities of salt and also keeps the potassium levels low while hydrochlorothiazide only prevents the absorption of too much salt avoiding fluid retention.
A 49-year-old male was climbing on a truck at a construction site when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound to the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled and the skull can be seen through the wound. How should you document this injury on the prehospital care report?
Answer:
Laceration.
Explanation:
The wound may occur due to damage in the body tissue part.The climbing on the construction site might cause damage or accident that might be harmful for the individual. The wounds or bleeding is common during such accident. Platelets plays an important role in the blood coagulation.
The individual gets affected and has wound on his top head. The pre hospital care report can be made on the basis of laceration. Laceration is the open wound that might occur due to the damage in the soft tissue and deep tissues are injured.
Thus, the answer is laceration.
Stephanie experiences paralysis to the left side of her body as a result of a horrible four-wheel accident. According to Stephanie, she is able to move both her left arm and leg. Stephanie experienced damage to her ____.
Answer:
Stephanie experiences paralysis to the left side of her body as a result of a horrible four-wheel accident. According to Stephanie, she is able to move both her left arm and leg. Stephanie experienced damage to her __right hemisphere__.
Explanation:
The right hemisphere basically controls and coordinates the activities associated with the left part of the body. Activities such as art and creativity.
A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?a. Related to visual field deficitsb. Related to difficulty swallowingc. Related to impaired balanced. Related to psychomotor seizures
Answer:c
Explanation:
It affects balance
The appropriate "related-to" phrase to complete the nursing diagnosis statement is Related to visual field deficits. The correct option is a. The nursing diagnosis would be Risk for injury related to visual field deficits.
Visual field deficits can occur with a cerebellar brain tumor and can lead to an increased risk of injury due to difficulties with spatial awareness .by identifying the risk for injury related to visual field deficits, the nurse can implement appropriate interventions to promote safety and prevent accidents during the client's hospitalization.
The nursing diagnosis "Risk for injury related to visual field deficits" means that the client's condition, characterized by impaired visual fields due to the cerebellar brain tumor, poses a risk for accidents or injuries. The nurse's role is to closely monitor the client, implement safety measures, and provide appropriate interventions to minimize the risk and ensure the client's safety during their stay in the acute care facility. These interventions might include using assistive devices, providing adequate lighting, ensuring clear pathways, and educating the client and their caregivers about safety precautions to prevent falls or other injuries.
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Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of personal values. When a group of people shares many of the same values, it may be possible to refer for guidance to philosophical principles of utilitarianism. Which statement describes utilitarianism?
a. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
b. People's values are determined by religious leaders.
c. The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the patient has led so far.
d. The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician or health care provider.
Answer:
the value of something is determined by its usefulness to society
Explanation:
Smoking food as a method of preservation, using food additives so food no longer requires time and temperature control, curing food, and custom animal processing all require a HACCP plan and
Answer:
These activities of food processing require a HACCP plan and variance from the regulatory authority.
Explanation:
A variance is the simple documents involving the permission for the food processing. HACCP is referred as "food safety monitoring system" which is useful in identifying and controlling chemical, biology and physical hazards within the transportation, storage, preparation, use and the sale of perishable items.A HACCP plan is required for the method that "carries a higher risk" of causing a "food borne illness".A series of transient ischemic attacks have caused an older adult to become dysphagic. The client is opposed to eating minced and pureed foods and wishes to eat a regular diet. How should the care team respond to this request?A)Insert a feeding tube to provide nutrition while eliminating the risk of aspiration.B)Continue providing a minced and pureed diet to the client in order to ensure safety.C)Defer responsibility for feeding to the client's friends and family.D)Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks
Answer:
D. Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks.
Explanation:
https://quizlet.com/159043701/older-adult-practice-test-6-chapters-9-and-10-flash-cards/
The care team should discuss the potential risks of a regular diet with the dysphagic client, and, if the client insists after being informed, consider supervised trial periods of the desired diet. Interventions should respect the client's autonomy, balancing safety and dignity. Hence, option D is correct.
When an older adult with dysphagia, resulting from transient ischemic attacks, expresses opposition to eating minced and pureed foods, the care team should respond respectfully to the client's request. It’s crucial that the client understands the risks associated with eating a regular diet, which includes the potential for aspiration and the development of pneumonia. If, after being informed, the client still wishes to eat a regular diet, the care team—in collaboration with speech therapists, physicians, and dietitians—may consider trial periods of the desired diet with close supervision and appropriate safeguards in place.
One of the greatest baseball players of all time was banned from the game for life after he and seven other players accepted bribes to throw a game in what year?
Answer and Explanation:
In the 1919 world series, the black Sox scandal occurred. Several white Sox players were accused of accepting bribe to lose the game which led go the appointment of the first commissioner of baseball Kenesaw Mountain Landis who presided over the case and banned all eight player including "Shoeless Joe" Jackson (who is regarded as the the greatest baseball player of all time) in the 1920 season from the MLB. the banned also prevented him from being inducted into the baseball hall of fame.
To help Charlie overcome his phobia of heights, his therapist trains him to relax and then has him imagine climbing a ladder. After Charlie visualizes climbing a ladder without anxiety, he attempts to imagine standing at the top of a tall building without feeling anxious. Charlie's therapist is using a technique known as __________.
Answer:
Charlie's therapist is using a technique known as CBT Cognitive Behavioral Therapy.
Explanation:
Cognitive Behavioral tecnique is often used to treat phobias, among other emotional or psychological afections. This tecnique is based on how negative emotionds and thoughts can be shaped into possitive ones, and so this can help deal with phobias or ansiety.
What Charlie's therapyst is doing is helping him relate his fear of hights with something nice and relaxing, that is how according to this tecnique people can overcome his fears by changing the idea of hights as a bad thing.
This tecnique works under the premise that behvior can be shifted with cognitive influence, this theory helps change thoughts that influence fear.
Antidiuretic hormone promotes the retention of water by stimulating
Answer:
The activation of the adenylate cyclase and therefore aquaporines
Explanation:
The anti diuretic hormone, also known as vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus where it’s released into the bloodstream throughly the axons and to the pituitary gland.
The main function of this hormone is to control blood pressure acting on kidneys and blood vessels, reducing the volume of water in urine by letting it go back into the body.
The anti diuretic hormone binds to the V receptor coupled to G in the principle cells located in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts. This ligation leads to the activation of the adenylate cyclase and finally the activation of aquaporines yo absorbe water into the cell.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
The antidiuretic hormone promotes the retention of water by stimulating the permeability of the collecting duct to water.
What is the antidiuretic hormone?The antidiuretic hormone can be considered as a chemical messenger used by the body to control the amount of water.
The antidiuretic hormone controls the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys' ducts during filtration.The antidiuretic hormone is abbreviated as ADH and is also known as arginine vasopressin.In conclusion, the antidiuretic hormone promotes the retention of water by stimulating the permeability of the collecting duct to water.
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Consider the following family history: Bob has a genetic condition that affects his skin. Bob’s wife, Eleanor, has normal skin. No one in Eleanor’s family has ever had the skin condition. Bob and Eleanor have a large family. Of their eleven children, all six of their sons have normal skin, but all five of their daughters have the same skin condition as Bob.
Answer:
X chromosome is dominant.
Explanation:
Bob has X chromosome ( along with the genes ) and he passes them further to his female children, while the Y chromosomes are passed to his sons. As genes act in pairs, each female child gets each gene from both of their parents. That's why female children get genes from their fathers and sons get their genes from their mothers. In this case, Bob's X chromosome was more dominant and since it's a chromosome for formation of a female child, he passed it on to his female children, not male.
The client with substance use disorder was found unconscious after overdosing on heroin 2 days prior. Because of prolonged pressure on the muscles the client has developed myoglobinuria, causing which complication?
Answer:
Obstruction of the renal tubules with myoglobin and damage tubular cells
Explanation:
Myoglobinuria is usually the result of the muscle destruction. Any process which can result in the interference of the muscle activity can lead to myoglobnuria.
It is usually associtaed with the increased level of the creatine kinase, lactate dehydrogenase and many other enzymes.
When it is passes from the renal tubules causes obstruction and acute kidney injury.
A 6-month-old child developed kernicterus immediately after birth. Which of the following tests should be done to determine whether or not this child has developed any sequelae to the illness?
A. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine.
B. Alkaline phosphotase and bilirubin.
C. Hearing and vision assessments.
D. Peak expiratory flow and blood gas assessments.
Answer:
C. Hearing and vision assessments.
Explanation:
(Because the CNS may have been damaged by the high bilirubin levels, testing of the senses as well as motor and cognitive assessments are appropriate. Kernicterus is the syndrome that develops when a neonate is exposed to high levels of bilirubin over time. The bilirubin crosses the blood brain barrier, often leading to toxic changes in the CNS. The term sequelae refers to the disorders that result after an individual has experienced a disease or injury).
A client is administered methotrexate for the treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis. Administration of this drug should be performed with particular care because of the associated high risk of a. Intracapsular b. bleeding C. infarctiond. Myocardial
Answer:
hepatotoxicity
Explanation:
Even in the low doses used in rheumatoid arthritis , methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity. It is recommended by many clinicians serial liver biopsies for patients on long-term, low-dose methotrexate.
Hepatotoxicity means chemical-driven liver damage. Drug-induced liver injury is a cause of acute and chronic liver disease. The liver plays a central role in transforming and clearing chemicals and is susceptible to the toxicity from these agents.
A company that manufactures drugs used to treat heart disease wants to determine if a new drug and exercise can affect cholesterol levels. What are the independent variable (IV) and the dependent variable (DV) in this proposed study?
Answer:
The dependent variable - the cholesterol level
Independent variables are the exercise and the drug.
Explanation:
A variable is a factor that can be modified or change. It is the factor that can be measured, altered, controlled in research or the experiment. It can be dependent or independent of their effect.
The independent variable is the factor of the experiment that controlled or manipulated by the researcher and it is considered to have a direct effect on the dependent variable whereas the dependent variable is being checked or tested.
So, in this experiment, the variable that is being tested is the cholesterol level that means it is a dependent variable. The independent variable here is exercise and drug as they manipulate and have an effect on the direct variable.
Thus, the correct answer is -
The dependent variable -the cholesterol level and
independent variables - exercise and the drug.
Lance works in a fast-paced, noisy environment without air conditioning. His workspace is cramped, group leaders and other employees are constantly shouting, tools are humming and buzzing. Lance is likely to face stress caused by ____________.
Lance is likely to face stress caused by the specific stressors associated with his occupation, such as difficult working conditions, lack of positive feedback, work overload, and lack of support.
Explanation:Lance is likely to face stress caused by the specific stressors associated with his occupation. These stressors can include challenging and unpleasant events such as difficult working conditions, lack of positive feedback, work overload, and lack of support. In Lance's case, his fast-paced and noisy environment, cramped workspace, constant shouting, and humming and buzzing tools contribute to his occupational stress.
Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by which cell-mediated immune response?
Answer:
The answer is cytotoxic T cells
Explanation:
Cytoxic T cells are cell-mediated immune response which are able to induce apoptosis in body cells in order to display epitopes or foreign antigen on their surface such as cells with intracellular bacteria, virus infected cells and cancer cells displaying tumor antigens.
Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). They recognize viral proteins on the cell surface and subsequently kill these infected cells to prevent further viral multiplication.
Explanation:Virus-infected cells are primarily detected and destroyed by the Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). These are a type of T cell which play an important role in the cell-mediated immune response. Cytotoxic T cells are especially effective against virus-infected or cancer cells. They are trained to recognize viral proteins on the surface of infected cells. Once identified, they kill the infected cells to prevent the virus from proliferating.
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