Answer: C.) "Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation.
Explanation:
Platelet count remains unaffected by the aging process. But, easy bruising can occur due to vascular integrity.
Iron absorption remains unaffected in the old patient, but appropriate nutritional intake of iron may be decreased as the diet get compromised and becomes low with old age due to ineffective digestive machinery.
The total white blood cell count is generally not affected by aging. But, a decrease in humoral antibody response and decrease in T-cell function may occur. Thus the adults may show a slight elevation in the white blood cell count.
Choose the correct statement from the list below:
a. Mechanical digestion of proteins is more important than chemical digestion.
b. Protein digestion begins in the small intestine with the activation of trypsinogen to trypsin
c. The stomach has a high pH which allows for the activation of digestive enzymes.
d. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Answer:d. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Explanation:
Enzymes that are released in the stomach assist in breaking proteins into individual amino acids.
A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information:
Answer:
Further testing will be required to confirm any diagnosis.
Explanation:
Every test performed in a hospital setting needs additional testing for a definitive diagnosis to be deliberate. For this reason, the nursing staff should educate the couple about the duty to perform additional tests for whatever diagnosis the main test provides. The tests are done by humans and machines and are therefore subject to errors, so it is important to have several tests done so that all diagnoses are proven multiple times and there is no doubt about the condition of the couple's baby exposed in the question.
A client taking chlorpromazine is preparing to undergo surgery. Which of the following complications does the surgical team need to prepare to deal with before anesthetics are administered?
a. arteriography
b. hypotension
c. tumor excision
d. cystoscopy
Answer:
The correct option is: B. hypotension
Explanation:
Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is an antipsychotic drug which has the trade names Thorazine, Largactil among others.
Some of the side effects of this drug include dizziness, galactorrhea, drowsiness, amenorrhea, dry mouth and movement problems. It can also cause orthostatic hypotension i.e. low blood pressure in the patient.
What led to the swift population rise over the last two thousand years? Check all that apply.
a.increased food supply
b.improved communication
c.improved public health
d.increased birth rates
e.increased resistance to vaccines
D, C, and A are the correct answers.
Answer:
a. increased food supply
c. improved public health
d. increased birth rates
Explanation:
Throughout the history of mankind various changes have taken place in the number of inhabitants on earth. Thus, it is possible to perceive periods in which the number of inhabitants was modest and others, such as the present, with numbers considered quite high. Population growth means a change in the number of a population in a positive way.
On August 5, 2008, the United Nations (UN) released a report that estimates the number of inhabitants on a planetary scale for the year 2050, which could reach 9.2 billion people.
The report raised possible causes for this growth, increased life expectancy, increased access to disease treatment, and increased food supply; All of this would result in a greater birth rate.
According to the survey, population growth should occur significantly only in developing countries, in the case of developed countries the changes will be modest.
A somewhat controversial treatment method for PTSD requires the client to maintain awareness of one or more of (1) an image of the memory, (2) a negative self-statement or assessment of the trauma, (3) the physical feelings of the anxiety-provoking event. What is this particular treatment method called?
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: What is this particular treatment method called, would be: EMDR, or, Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing therapy.
Explanation:
This mode of therapy is known as style of psychotherapy which has been most successfully used in the treatment of PTSD (Post traumatic stress disorder). Although a bit controversial because it requires a person to be exposed to his/her traumatic memories, or images, while the therapist guides the patient to move his/her eyes and focus on something else, while remembering, and then reflect on the responses of the body, the idea has been successful, especially in treating trauma, depression, anxiety, panic attacks, and other conditions. The expected end result is that desensitization and reprocessing of the stressful situation happens, until it becomes non-harmful.
Which client-made, legally enforceable document contains the instructions of the client regarding his or her refusal to receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation upon admission to a hospital for surgery?
Answer:
The living will is the document where the patient expresses that they do not wish to receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation after admission to a hospital for surgery.
Explanation:
Living will is a document, born in the 1960s in the United States of America, in which end-of-life patients express their wishes, explaining which treatments, care and medical procedures they wish to undergo when they are out of therapeutic possibilities. An example of a living will is when a patient draws up a document warning the medical staff that they do not wish to receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation upon admission to a hospital for surgery.
The living will has been tied to the end of life, and its limits are set by the legal system of the country that legalizes it.
Winona purchased a gym membership for herself and her adolescent daughter, vowing that they will exercise every day together. Winona's motivation came from an article she read that detailed research showing that adolescents who exercise improved in all these areas EXCEPT:A) mood.B) diet.C) brain connectivity.D) sleep.
Answer: B. DIET
Explanation: The other factors are benefits of exercise. Diet is the only variable that isnt a benefit.
The correct answer is D) sleep.
The research detailed in the article that Winona read likely showed that adolescents who exercise experience improvements in mood, diet, and brain connectivity. However, the article may have indicated that exercise does not necessarily lead to improvements in sleep for adolescents. This could be due to various factors, such as the timing of exercise, the type of exercise, or other sleep-related behaviors that might not be influenced by exercise alone. It is important to note that while exercise can help regulate sleep patterns in many cases, it is not universally effective for all individuals, and other interventions may be necessary to address sleep issues in adolescents.
Which statement describes the flow of electricity if a small motor is connected to the gap in the wire and the circuit is closed? A) The flow of electricity stops. B) The electricity flows, and the motor turns on. C) The flow of electricity stops, and the motor turns on. D) The flow of electricity changes direction
Answer:
B. The electricity flows and the motor turns on
Explanation:
Think of circuits as a draw bridge. When the draw bridge is up no one can cross over to the other side. When the draw bridge is down everyone can cross over to the other side. Similarly to open and closed circuits, when the circuit is open no electricity can flow. When the circuit is closed electricity can flow.
During the last stage of AIDS, many opportunistic infections proliferate in persons with weakened immune systems. HIV-infected individuals who live near one another in long-term care facilities, drug treatment facilities, and prisons should be carefully screened before admission. Why?
Answer:
Because they are at high risk of getting pulmonary tuberculosis.
Explanation:
An opportunistic infection is an infection caused by microorganisms that take advantage of the weakness of the body's defenses caused by HIV infection to cause damage. Opportunistic infections occur in people with compromised immune systems, allowing such organisms to cause widespread infection. In healthy individuals, microorganisms would not be allowed to proliferate to the point of causing infection because the immune system would keep them at bay.
People living with HIV are 28 times more likely to get pulmonary tuberculosis as an opportunistic disease. For this reason, HIV-infected individuals living close to each other in long-term treatment facilities, drug treatment facilities and prisons should be carefully examined prior to admission.
During a client’s examination and consultation, the physician keeps telling the client,"You have an abdominal neoplasm." Which statements accurately paraphrase the physician’s statement?
Answer:
"You have a new growth of abnormal tissue in your abdomen." "You have an abdominal tumor."Explanation:
Neoplasia, also called a tumor, is a form of abnormal cell growth in a tissue. This growth is not controlled by the organism, with a tendency towards autonomy and perpetuation. An abdominal neoplasm, therefore, is an abnormal growth of tissue in a patient's stomach, generating a tumor. This tumor may be benign or malignant, according to its potential to cause harm to the individual.
A child spends time in the woods and encounters a raccoon. She is bit and is sent to the doctor’s office for rabies vaccinations. What words would be the most appropriate for a medical student to use in describing the situation?
Answer:
she got infected by the rabboons bite
Explanation:
If the recommended daily dose for vitamin C is 60 mg per day and there are 70 mg of vitamin C per 100 g of orange, how many 3 oz oranges are required to meet the weekly requirement? There are approximately 28.35 g in 1 oz. Round numeric answer to the nearest whole number.
Answer : The number 3 oz oranges required is 7.
Explanation :
As we are given:
Recommended daily dose for vitamin C per day = 60 mg
So, recommended daily dose for vitamin C per week = 7 × 60 mg = 420 mg
Now we have to determine the number of 100 g oranges required in a week.
Number of 100 g oranges required in a week = [tex]\frac{\text{Vitamin C required}}{\text{Vitamin C in one 100g of orange}}[/tex]
Number of 100 g oranges required in a week = [tex]\frac{420mg}{70mg}=6[/tex]
Total mass of oranges = 6 × 100 g = 600 g
Now we have to determine the mass of one 3 oz orange in grams.
As, 1 oz = 28.35 g
So, 3 oz = 3 × 28.35 = 85.05 g
Now we have to determine the number 3 oz oranges required.
Number 3 oz oranges required = [tex]\frac{\text{Mass of orange required in grams}}{\text{Mass of one 3 oz orange in grams}}[/tex]
Number 3 oz oranges required = [tex]\frac{600g}{85.05g}=7.054\approx 7[/tex]
Therefore, the number 3 oz oranges required is 7.
Pedro is a 4-year-old who is having lunch with his mother and sister. When his mother pours the milk that is left in the carton into the children’s glasses, she finds that there is not enough to fill both glasses; so she carefully pours half of the milk in the shorter, fatter glass in front of Pedro and half into a thin, taller glass in front of Pedro's sister. Immediately, Pedro complains that his sister got more milk than he did, and even when his mother tries to explain that they both got the same amount, Pedro insists he is right. In this example, Pedro is demonstrating a lack of development in the area of
Answer:
conservation
Explanation:
Conservation is a factor in child development, where the child is aware of the differences in fluid quantities, objects, and other things. This factor is usually developed between the ages of 8 and 12, so it is normal for Peter, who is only 4 years old, to be deficient in the concept of "conservation" and unable to understand that the amounts of milk in his cup in your sister's cup are the same.
The preservation is inserted in the development phase called the concrete operative. This phase is marked by the beginning of concrete logical thinking, children going through this stage begin to mentally manipulate the representations of the things they internalized during the past stages. The problem is that this manipulation can only occur with concrete things arranged in the real world. Abstract concepts are not yet understandable. In this phase, the child understands that both glasses have the same amount of juice, that is, they have the notion of conservation.
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class regarding infant safety. After the class several of the students are heard discussing what they have learned. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when one of the future parents makes which statement?
Answer:
"My mother can't believe that babies are supposed to sleep on their backs, not their stomachs."
Explanation:
Studies show that simply putting the baby in the right sleeping position can reduce the risk of sudden death by up to 70%. Laying the baby on its back, on its back is the correct way to lay the baby up to 1 year of age to reduce the risk of sudden death, according to researchers from the Center for Epidemiological Research at the Federal University of Pelotas - Brazil (UFPel) and recent campaigns in the United States and England.
Although some parents do not believe it, the risks of letting their baby sleep from their tummies are similar to sleeping on their side. These are unstable positions, many babies roll over and end up face down. If a child is lying on his back and drowning, his tendency, on instinct, is to cough and thereby draw the attention of his parents. In the case of sudden death, this reaction does not happen and the death occurs "silently".
This statement shows that the parent has absorbed essential safety guidelines for infant care, including safe sleep practices, proper car seat use, and avoiding situations that could lead to accidents or injuries.
The nurse can determine the teaching's effectiveness when one of the future parents makes a statement that reflects an understanding of the key principles of infant safety discussed in the prenatal class.
An effective statement might include:
"I learned that it's important to always place the baby on their back to sleep and remove any loose bedding from the crib to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
I also understand the importance of using a rear-facing car seat and never leaving the baby unattended on an elevated surface.
This class has given us the knowledge and confidence to create a safe environment for our baby."
This statement shows that the parent has absorbed essential safety guidelines for infant care, including safe sleep practices, proper car seat use, and avoiding situations that could lead to accidents or injuries.
It demonstrates that the teaching has been effective in conveying crucial information to promote the safety and well-being of the newborn.
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Which of the following is true of brain activities found in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) sufferers? The medial prefrontal cortex tends to be unregulated. The medial prefrontal cortex is more active in the case of severe symptoms of PTSD. The hippocampus may shrink due to overexposure to neurotransmitters and hormones. The amygdala appears to be less responsive to emotional stimuli.
Answer: The hippocampus may shrink due to over exposure to neurotransmitter and hormones.
Explanation:
The posttraumatic stress disorder( PTSD) can be defined as the mental condition which is triggered by the terrifying events either by experiencing it or witnessing it.
Symptoms includes: nightmares, flashbacks and some uncontrollable thoughts about the events.
This is caused because of release of excessive hormone and neurotransmitter which tends to shrink the hippo campus of brain.
DeWayne has decided to seek psychotherapy for some personal difficulties he has been having. While on the telephone with one possible clinician, he asks her to describe the kind of treatment approach that she uses with clients. "I don’t limit myself to a single theory or approach," the therapist answers. "Instead I operate in a(n) _________ fashion, integrating various treatment approaches based on the specific needs of each client."
Answer:
eclectic
Explanation:
According to my research on the different types of psychological approaches, I can say that based on the information provided within the question Dewayne seems to be operating in an eclectic fashion. Eclecticism is an approach (like mentioned in the question) that instead of staying on a strict treatment or set of assumptions, it integrates different treatment approaches based on many theories, styles, and ideas in order to gain a better understanding of something and find the best possible solution.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Which source is most likely to contribute reliable and reputable information about finding alcohol education programs? A. school friends B. general Internet searches C. the police department D. late-night television Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
The answer is C.) Police department
Hope this helps.
Answer: C
Explanation: cops are knowing what to do when in this situation because cops done with all of it
Knee extension occurring from femoral condyles rotating forward on tibia as a person stands from a squatting position is an example of the accessory motion called _____.
Answer:
Arthrokinematics
Explanation:
According to my research on various studies conducted by medical professionals, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of the accessory motion called Arthrokinematics. This is when a a specific point on one articulating surface comes in contact with a series of points on another surface. Like seen in the picture below.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Mary is in the delivery room giving birth to her first child. Her cervix is sufficiently dilated and the baby's head has started to move through the cervix into the vaginal canal. Which of the following stages of childbirth is Mary in?
Answer:
In the second stage
Explanation:
The stages of birth are three. The first one involves the first contractions, that is, the true labor, and it finishes when the cervix is open, dilated, at 10 cm. This can be the longest stage in birth, can be from 2 until 48 hours.
The second stage starts when the baby starts to get out from the mother, begging with the head, the body, until the legs and the umbilical cord. This is very quickly stage, it will take just 10 - 20 minutes.
The third stage is when the mom ejects the placenta, after the baby birth, the placenta and the umbilical cord are not necessary to the mother, actually is dangerous that some part of the placenta remains inside the mother. This stage is also very quickly, like 10 minutes.
Final answer:
Mary is in the second stage of childbirth, which sees the fully dilated cervix allowing the baby to be pushed down and out, concluding with the baby's delivery.
Explanation:
Mary is currently in the second stage of childbirth, which involves full dilation of the cervix and the expulsion of the newborn. The first stage is characterized by the cervix dilating and effacing, and contractions become more frequent and intense, dilating the cervical canal to about 10 cm. At the start of the second stage, the baby's head moves through the fully dilated cervical canal into the vaginal canal, and the mother actively pushes to help the baby descend. This step is vital for the baby's face to face the mother’s posterior as it exits the vagina and for delivering the shoulders, which help in the final birth of the baby. The second stage ends with the complete delivery of the newborn followed by the third stage, which is the delivery of the placenta and associated fetal membranes.
True or false tasks are required activities that need to take place in order to complete a goal
Answer: true
Explanation: Tasks are required activities that need to take place in order to complete a goal.
All the participants in the study are given information regarding the benefits of a healthy diet. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, which hypothetical finding is most likely?A) Obese participants will change their unhealthy eating behaviors.B) Non-obese participants will change their unhealthy eating behaviors.C) Obese participants will question the validity of the information provided.D) Non-obese participants will overemphasize the importance of the information provided.
Answer: C) Obese participants will question the validity of the information provided.
Explanation:
According to the theory of the cognitive dissonance, when the attitudes of the individuals are incongruent to the behavior, this leads to the cognitive dissonance. To remove the cognitive dissonance, the person can either change the attitude or the behavior or the person can adjust the attitude in accordance with the behavior.
Thus obese participants are likely to question about the validity of the information regarding the healthy diet. This is because of the fact that their attitude is against their behavior of eating hence, they may not obtain the benefits of the healthy diet.
An elderly client with Parkinson's disease and his wife, who appears to be much younger than he, are being interviewed by the nurse to update the client's health history. The nurse also has the client's electronic health record on her tablet computer. Earlier in the day, the nurse had spoken with the client's primary care physician, who had relayed some concerns to the nurse regarding the progression of the client's disease. Which source of biographic information should the nurse view as primary
Answer:
The client
Explanation:
The client is the primary primary source in any situation involving the use of biographical data in a medical setting. Biographical data is basic information about the patient such as name, address, marital status, gender and age, for example. All this data is taken from the client himself and for this reason, the client is a source of biographical information that the nurse should consider as the main one. Biographical data are important because they serve as a basis for defining treatment and hospitalization patterns if necessary.
Mr. Martin is a 72-year-old smoker who comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit for hypertension. With deep palpation a pulsatile mass about 4 cm in diameter is palpable. What should the examiner do next?a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.b) Reassess by examination in 6 months.c) Refer to a vascular surgeon.d) Reassess by examination in 3 months.
Answer: a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.
Explanation:
In this patient pulsatile mass is required to be followed up with the abdominal ultrasound immediately. The risk of rupture of the aorta is around 15 times greater if the diameter of the aorta measures to be 4 centimeters.
Abdominal ultrasound is a kind of imaging test. It is used to observe the organs of the abdomenal system, including the liver, spleen, pancreas, gallbladder and kidneys. The blood vessels that lead associated with these organs, such as the aorta and the vena cava, can also be observed through the ultrasound.
Thus the abdominal ultrasound can be an appropriate approach for this.
You are responding to a call where an 8-year-old has been stung by a wasp. His skin is pale with patches of raised red spots on his hands, arms, and face. These spots are most likely what?- Angioedema- Acne- Urticaria- A fungal infection
Answer: Urticaria
Explanation: Urticaria, also known as hives, is an outbreak of swollen, pale red bumps or plaques (wheals) on the skin that appear suddenly -- either as a result of the body's reaction to certain allergens, or for unknown reasons. Hives usually cause itching, but may also burn or sting.
8-year-old has been stung by a wasp. His skin is pale with patches of raised red spots on his hands, arms, and face.
Which of these is an example of negative feedback?
1. As a blood clot begins to form, the process of its formation gets faster and faster.
2. After you eat, glucagon stimulates an increase in blood sugar levels.
3. After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels.
4. The digestive enzyme pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid; pepsin itself can then convert pepsinogen into pepsin.
5. Once labor begins, contractions increase in frequency and intensity
Answer:3. After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels
Explanation:When someone is eating ,blood sugar level increases that is an original stimulus however insulin release to the body reduces or lowers the blood sugar levels hence it comes as a secondary stimulus that reduces the effect of the first stimulus that is negative feedback.
Whereas positive feedback the opposite happens in which the first or original stimulus is further enhanced by the release of the second stimulus for example when someone is in labor they have contractions during this process a hormone known as oxytocin is released which enhances contractions and that is a positive feedback .
The example of negative feedback given in the options is the third one: 'After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels'. This is because insulin helps to restore the blood glucose levels back to normal after eating when these levels rise, which is the concept of negative feedback.
Explanation:In biology, negative feedback is a control mechanism in which a change in a certain variable triggers a response that helps to restore the variable to its 'normal' or 'set' value. In this case, option 3: 'After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels' is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.
After you eat, your body's blood glucose levels rise. In response, the pancreas releases the hormone insulin, which facilitates the uptake of glucose into cells, thus lowering the blood's glucose levels back towards the normal range. This stabilizing effect of insulin is a classic example of negative feedback. After eating, if blood sugar was allowed to remain high, it would be harmful, so it's vital for our bodies to have a mechanism that helps return levels to normal.
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Education keeps students off the street and out of the full-time job market for a number of years, keeping levels of unemployment within reasonable bounds. This is an example of a latent function of education the text terms __________.
Answer:
restricting some activities
Explanation:
A hospital nurse is discussing with an older adult the possibility transfer to a nursing home for skilled care after pneumonia. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this possible transfer?A) Old people who go to the nursing home don't get out.B) They will take my home if I go to the nursing home.C) I don't qualify for skilled care, I only had pneumonia.D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Answer: D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Explanation:
Medicare and other programs for the insurance of the health covers 100 days of care. This insurance cover can include the diagnosis and treatment associated with the skilled care, fractured hip, rehabilitation after acute illness, heart failure and others. This is associated with the provision of the nursing and day care facilities.
If the older adult has already used the 45 medicare days after the care of pneumonia the client may experience the fact that he should shift to other location for the same care.
Which DRI would inform Marni about the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects?
Adequate Intake (AI)
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Upper Limit (UL)
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Answer:
Upper Limit (UL)
Explanation:
Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is a group of four nutrient based values i.e. Adequate Intake (AI), Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). RDA is the average daily dietary intake sufficient to meet level of nutrients required by an individual. RDA depends on EAR. If EAR cant be estimated for some reasons, RDA cant be calculated and instead AI is used to estimate sufficient dietary intake. AI is derived on experimental basis by observing average nutrient intake by group of healthy individuals.
UL is the highest level of nutrient intake possible on a daily basis without causing harm to the individual. Intake above UL increases the risk of adverse effects. UL is higher than RDA or AI. Hence, Marni could be informed by UL the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects.
How do antibiotics work to fight bacterial infections? What methods do bacteria use to share antibiotic resistant genes? What actions are humans taking that are contributing to bacteria becoming resistant to commonly used antibiotics?
Answer:
1) Interrupting vital processes.
2) Horizontal or lateral gene transfer.
3) Misuse and overuse of antibiotics.
Explanation:
1) Antibiotics have different mechanisms of action, but they usually target bacteria vital processes such as protein or cell wall sysnthesis.
For example, tetracycline binds to the 30s and 50s subunits of the ribosome blocking the introduction of new amino acids to the peptide chain being synthetised. Without protein synthesis cells cannot divide, helping the immune system to kill them.
Penicillin inhibits the enzyme involved in the final step of cell wall biosynthesis interrupting bacteria cell division.
2) Bacteria have developed different strategies for the movement of material genetic other than the vertical transmission in mitosis.
Different mechanism of Horizontal Gene Transfer include transformation, conjugation and transduction. They use vectors like plasmids or bacteriophages (temperate virus) for the resistance genes transmission.
3) Individuals are taking antibiotics without prescription from certified health professionals; this leads to misuse of antibiotics.
Also health workers over-prescribe these medicines to treat mild diseases or viral infections. The overuse of antibiotics accelerates the spread of resistance.
We are not preventing infection from happening by not vaccinating, hand washing, assuring good food hygiene or practising safer sex.
All of this contribute to bacteria becoming resistant to commonly used antibiotics.
The nurse is caring for a motor vehicle accident client who is unresponsive on arrival to the emergency department. The client has numerous fractures, internal abdominal injuries, and large lacerations on the head and torso. The family arrives and seeks update on the client’s condition. A family member asks, "What causes the body to go into shock?"
Answer:
"The client is in shock because the blood volume has decreased in the system."
Explanation:
Shock is characterized by insufficient oxygenation of vital organs, which occurs due to acute circulatory failure, which may be caused by factors such as trauma, organ perforation, emotions, extreme cold or heat, surgery, among others. In other words, a body goes into shock when the volume of blood has decreased in the system.
If left untreated, shock can lead to death, so be aware of symptoms such as paleness, weak pulse, low blood pressure or dilated pupils, for example, especially if the person has had an accident.