Answer:
The answers are numbers: 1, 2, and 5.
Explanation:
1. "I may continue to use an electric shaver."
2. "I will not blow my nose if I get a cold."
5. "I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid mouth trauma."
What differentiates motor learning (ML) from motor control (MC)?
a. the kinds of studies conducted
b. the kinds of research conducted
c. acquisition versus neuromuscular
d. activity changes in time versus changes in growth
Motor learning (ML) and motor control (MC) both relate to how we move, but they differ in their focus areas. ML relates to acquiring and improving motor skills through practice and experience, whereas MC deals with the real-time neuromuscular regulation of movement and posture by the nervous system.
Explanation:The topics of motor learning (ML) and motor control (MC) fall within the study of Kinesiology and Neurophysiology. While they are interconnected concepts, they have distinct meanings and applications. Motor learning is about the process of acquiring and improving motor skills through practice and experience. It refers to a relatively permanent change in the ability to execute complex motor behavior. On the other hand, motor control is about the regulation of movement and posture by the nervous system in response to an internal or external environment. The key differentiation is essentially 'acquisition versus neuromuscular control.'
In the given choices, the option 'c. acquisition versus neuromuscular' best describes the distinction between ML and MC. ML is about skill acquisition over time, which concerns our ability to learn and fine-tune new motor skills. However, MC is more about the neural, physical, and behavioural aspects of executing the learned movements. It is the real-time control and coordination of muscle contractions to facilitate movement.
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After eating a brownie with nuts at a dorm party, Gino's tongue began to swell and he began to have difficulty breathing. Based on this information alone, which of the following statements is probably true about Gino's condition?
A) Gianni has celiac disease.
B) Gianni has a food allergy.
C) Gianni is a locavore.
D) Gianni has a food intolerance.
Answer: food allergy
Explanation:
Answer:He has a severe allergy to nuts.
Explanation:
You are counseling a pregnant woman who is experiencing "morning sickness." To alleviate this condition you tell her to:
A. sip juice or coffee when nauseated.
B. nibble on soda crackers or dry toast.
C. try drinking beverages between meals only.
D. A and B
E. B and C
The correct answer is D: A and B
Answer:B
Explanation:
Crackers. Foods high in starch — such as saltines, bread, and toast — help absorb gastric acid and settle a queasy stomach. ... It's also a good idea to keep a handful of crackers on your nightstand; eating a few before you get out of bed may help ease nausea in the morning
Mary participates in an exercise program because she experiences an increase in energy and feelings of well-being at the end of each exercise session. The best explanation for Mary’s perseverance in the program is that exercise.
The best explanation for Mary’s perseverance in the program is that exercise increases her level of endorphins.
What is endorphins?Endorphins are chemicals (hormones) that your body produces in response to pain or stress.
They are also released during pleasurable activities like exercise, massage, eating. Endorphins aid in pain relief, stress reduction, and overall well-being.
Despite ongoing research, scientists have discovered that higher endorphin levels can reduce pain and increase pleasure.
High endorphin levels may also aid in the reduction of stress, anxiety, and depression symptoms and raise spirits
Endorphins are commonly referred to as "feel-good" chemicals because they induce feelings of happiness and pleasure.
They also help you feel less pain while running. This can act as a natural pain reliever, allowing you to exercise for longer periods of time.
The best explanation for Mary's persistence in the program is that exercise raises her endorphin levels.
Thus, this can be concluded regarding given scenario.
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Mary likely continues her exercise program due to the increase in energy and feelings of well-being she experiences. The neurotransmitters released during physical exercise enhance mood similarly to antidepressants. Self-efficacy also reinforces her commitment to regular exercise.
Explanation:The best explanation for Mary’s perseverance in her exercise program can be attributed to her experience of increased energy and improved well-being post-exercise. Engaging in physical exercise has been credited with a host of health benefits, both physically and mentally. Studies demonstrate that consistent aerobic exercise can rival the effectiveness of pharmaceutical antidepressants in treating mild-to-moderate depression. This is believed to be due in part to the increase in neurochemicals that act as euphoriants produced during exercise. This euphoric effect, sometimes referred to as a “runner’s high” or “rower’s high,” boosts the mood and is conducive to ongoing motivation for continued physical activity. In addition, exercise promotes cardiovascular health, can decrease stress response, protects against cognitive decline, and results in an overall enhanced quality of life.
Furthermore, the notion of self-efficacy plays a significant role in the maintenance of an exercise regimen. As individuals recognize their ability to engage effectively in exercise, they are more likely to plan, initiate, and adhere to a workout program. This has far-reaching implications for personal health management and even extends into areas such as dietary habits and safer sex practices. Thus, understanding the relationship between exercise, psychological well-being, and self-efficacy can provide valuable insights into behaviors like Mary’s dedication to her exercise program.
A 50-kg Golden Retriever has presented with extremely pale mucous membranes and is diagnosed with a hemoabdomen. A blood transfusion has been requested, and the doctor would like a 10ml/kg/hr transfusion rate for 4 hours. How many milliliters of blood will you need?
Answer:
gfhbfgdnjrs
Explanation:
The nurse is complaining about a client that has dementia. The client is mobile and slaps the nurse on the gluteus maximus each time he passes by. The nurse tells the client, "If you don't behave yourself, I am going to throw you out and you won't have anywhere to go." The charge nurse overhears the nurse, and states "Do you realize what your statement could be construed as?" What is the best statement for the nurse to respond?
Answer:
It could be construed as assault.
Explanation:
So according to nursing practice, an assault is basically threatening to do bodily harm to a patient and it is usually not supported by any lawful justification, which can result in the offence being punishable by the state law. Another example to further define assault would be, when walking past someone and intentionally bumping into them. This can be interpreted as assault. I hope this helps.
A client in the emergency department states, "I have always taken a morning walk, but lately my leg cramps and hurts after just a few minutes of walking. The pain goes away after I stop walking, though." Based on this statement, which priority assessment should the nurse complete?
A.Check for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs.
B.Ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold.
C.Attempt to palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
D.Assess for unilateral swelling and tenderness of either leg.
Answer:
A) Check for the presence of tortous veins bilaterally on the legs.
Explanation:
Options B and D can´t be consider as a priority assessment because she says she is used to walking and if she does it with some frequency, the muscles are used to the changes of temperature and the swelling should be bilateral not unilateral.
Considering the fact that she is having leg cramps these are related with a slow blood circulation. This slow blood circulation can be also seeing by tortous veins bilaterally on legs, making it the priority assessment for the nurse to complete.
You visit the doctor because you have a health concern. The doctor asks questions, listens closely to your responses and helps you feel confident about your ability to deal with the concern. This dimension of service quality is refered to as ________________.
Answer:
The dimension of service quality is known as patient satisfaction.
Explanation:
Patient satisfaction is necessary for building the Goodwill of the doctor with its patient. Patient satisfaction gives a soothing environment for the patients. A patient feels better and more confident when a doctor interacts with him and make him feel comfortable with his words. The good care quality service provides the idea of the various aspects of the medicine, level of care and empathy.You are caring for a client who has just been told they have advanced laryngeal cancer and will have to have a total laryngectomy. You are doing preoperative teaching with this client. What do you know is a subject you should cover?
a) Post operative nutrition
b) Alternative methods of communication
c) Pain before surgery
d) Visiting hours
Answer:
The answer is b) Alternative methods of communication
Explanation:
Patience who have had a laryngectomy are very frustrated by their loss of normal speech abilities. So it is important that a nurse should provide extra time, help, and support for the patient in order to make them understand their condition and be able to move forward by choosing an alternative method of speech. Hope this answer helps.
You cannot believe that you seem to have come down with the flu while vacationing at a peaceful resort on a lake. The only downside to the beautiful location is having to constantly apply mosquito repellant to fend off the annoying bugs. The illness you most likely have is ______.
Answer:
West Nile virus.
Explanation:
West Nile virus is transmitted by the bite of an infected mosquito. Usually, the person experiences the same symptoms as in normal flu: fiber, headaches, and muscular pain, but In some cases, the infection can be fatal. There are no vaccines against the West Nile virus, to prevent being infected you should apply mosquito repellant and cover your arms and legs.
Which information should be included in the teaching plan for a client receiving glargine, which is "peakless" basal insulin?
a) Administer the total daily dosage in 2 doses.
b) Draw up the drug first, then add regular insulin.
c) Do not mix with other insulins.
d) Glargine is rapidly absorbed and has a fast onset of action.
Answer:
c. Do not mix with other insulins
Explanation:
When being a diabetic patient it is vital to have knowledge about the medicines that shoud be used, the ones that should be avoided and especially what dangers can be involved when mixing medicines, this is the case with glargine, because in no way it can be mixed with any other kind of insulin, besides it is necesary to be careful as well regarding the name since it is possible to confuse glargine (lantus) with lente.
Which describes the effect of drug synergy?
mixing different drugs to cancel out the effects of both drugs
mixing different drugs to enhance the effect of one drug while canceling out the effect of the other
mixing different drugs to produce effects greater than those of each drug alone
mixing different drugs to create effects different from either of the drugs
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Drug synergy describes the effect when combined drugs produce greater effects than their individual effects added together. This interaction can lead to significant benefits or dangerous consequences, such as an increased risk of overdose, depending on the drugs involved.
Explanation:The effect of drug synergy occurs when mixing different drugs leads to a combined effect that is greater than the sum of their individual effects. An example of this would be if drug A and drug B each increased heart rate by five beats per minute individually, but when taken together, they increase the heart rate by more than 10 beats per minute, indicating a synergistic interaction.
Other types of interactions include additive, where the combined effect equals the sum of the effects of each drug alone, and antagonistic, where one drug reduces the effectiveness of the other. Synergistic effects can sometimes provide benefits in medical treatment but can also lead to serious side effects, including the risk of overdose, when drugs are combined without care.
For instance, simultaneous consumption of alcohol and cocaine can have severe impact on the cardiovascular system, and combining benzodiazepines with opioids like heroin has been a frequent cause of overdose deaths. Such interactions underscore the importance of understanding and avoiding dangerous drug combinations.
What should someone do to prevent regaining lost weight?
a. Avoid weighing himself or herself on a scale more than once a month
b. Monitor daily energy nutrient proportions
c. Avoid weight-loss support programs such as "Weight Watchers"
d. Exercise regularly
e. Adopt a yo-yo diet
Answer:
A person who doesn´t want to regain lost weight should: b. Monitor daily energy nutrient proportionsd, and b. Exercise regularly.
Explanation:
For a person who is willing to maintan his or her lost weigh, and avoid regainging it: it is important to both have a healthy diet and also it is importante to excercise regularly.
Answer:
b. Monitor daily energy nutrient proportions.d. Exercise regularly.Explanation:
Monitor nutrients included in our diets is crucial to weight control, because we would realise if we are getting enough nutrients, and also we would realise if we are eating to many carbs or fats.
Additionally, exercising reguarly we prevent gaining lost weight because it mantains out body fit, it helps to burn the excess of fat we could've eat.
Therefore, exercise regularly and monitor daily nutrientes proportions are ways to prevent gaining lost weight.
APGAR scoring relates to newborn signs after birth:__________
A) heart rate,
B) respiratory effort,
C) muscle tone,
D) response to catheter in nostril and color.
E) Newborns are given a score from 0 - 10.
What does the acronym "APGAR" represent (5 words with a comma between each word):__________
APGAR:
APGAR test is taken in the new born babies immediately after they are born. This checks the muscle tone, heart beat rate and also analyses any symptoms for immediate or emergency health care. This test is taken twice. First its is taken 1 minute after the child is born and gain taken after 5 minutes after birth. It some situation, it can also be taken again depending upon the the child's health condition
Appearance (skin color) Pulse (heart rate) Grimace response (reflexes) Activity (muscle tone) Respiration (breathing rate & effort)Each factor has score range of 0 to 2. The sum of these five factors is used to give the APGAR score. Total Score ranges from 0 to 10 where the highest possible score is 10. Babies scores low when born in critical situation like prematurely or high risk pregnancy.
Answer:APGAR:
APGAR test is taken in the new born babies immediately after they are born. This checks the muscle tone, heart beat rate and also analyses any symptoms for immediate or emergency health care. This test is taken twice. First its is taken 1 minute after the child is born and gain taken after 5 minutes after birth. It some situation, it can also be taken again depending upon the the child's health condition
Appearance (skin color)
Pulse (heart rate)
Grimace response (reflexes)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiration (breathing rate & effort)
Each factor has score range of 0 to 2. The sum of these five factors is used to give the APGAR score. Total Score ranges from 0 to 10 where the highest possible score is 10. Babies scores low when born in critical situation like prematurely or high risk pregnancy.
Explanation: Respiratory
Exhale
Shortness of breath or smoke
Pulmonary embolism or pneumonia(sickness)
Inhale
Respiration
Asthma
Thorax
Oxygen
Relax
Yeast
ANIME
Put in order: Aorta, aortic semilunar valve, left ventricle, left atrium, lung capillaries, mitral valve, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries, right ventricle, superior/inferior vena cava, tissues of the body, tricuspid valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary veins.
Answer:
Explanation:
Superior/Inferior Vena cava-----------Right Atrium ---------Tricuspid valve ------right ventricle -------pulmonary semi-lunar valve------pulmonary trunk-----------pulmonary arteries --------lung capillaries -------- pulmonary veins --------left atrium -------mitral valve --------left ventricle ------- aortic semi-lunar valve -------aorta --------- tissues of body ------------superior and inferior vena cava.
An eating disorder may start out as a slightly irregular pattern of eating.
Answer: True
Explanation:
Your emergency department has just received several victims of smoke inhalation resulting from a fire in an apartment complex. You recall that cyanide poisoning is often a result of smoke inhalation. Why is cyanide so dangerous?
Answer:
Several studies have shown that persons admitted to hospital due to fire accidents may have been carbon monoxide as well as cyanide. In fact the most common source of CN poisoning in humans arise from fire exposures.In fires CN is developed when the temperature reaches 315 degree and is released from the toxic fumes in the gaseous form.HCN is developed from an incomplete combustion of nitrogen containing materials such as silk, plastic etc. HCN is still produced when the fire is producing embers. HCN is easily absorbed from all the routes of exposure. Since CN is a small lipid molecule which is mainly undissociated but penetration in cells could be rapid. CN distribution in the body within seconds and death can occur within minutes.Symptoms include a brief period of hyperpnoea, sensation of dryness & burning in nose & throat.In mild cases the symptoms are headache, nausea, vertigo,anxiety, altered mental status, hypertension.In more severe cases the symptoms are bradycardia, unconsciousness, hypotension, arrhythmia,convulsions,pulmonary oedema,CV collapse & death.
Explanation:
Cyanide is dangerous because CN binding of erythrocytes does not hampers the oxygen transfer.Both CO & CN leads to the influencing of the mitochondria by binding of enzyme cytochrome-c oxidase a,a3(CCO) which is the terminal enzyme complex of the respiratory chain in complex IV.The active (O2) binding site of the CCO is binuclear consists of heme a3 and CuB.CO binds to the reduced form of CCO &CN binds to either the reduced CCO heme (Fe2) or oxidized heme.The primary effect of CN is a blockage of the mitochondrial respiration chain & intracellular adenosine triphosphate(ATP). The consequence is the formation of cytotoxic hypoxia which is caused by the inhibition of CCO by the high affinity of CN to heme a3 of the enzyme. The result is a structural change and a decreased activity of the enzyme & rise in the lactate production which cause metabolic acidosis.
Final answer:
Cyanide disrupts cellular respiration by inhibiting cytochrome c oxidase, causing cells to be unable to use oxygen, leading to histotoxic hypoxia. This makes it particularly dangerous when inhaled during fires as it can quickly result in severe symptoms and requires urgent treatment.
Explanation:
Cyanide is so dangerous because it is a potent inhibitor of the cytochrome c oxidase (COX, or Complex IV), which is an essential component of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration. This competition with oxygen molecules at the cytochrome c oxidase site results in histotoxic hypoxia, a condition where the body's tissues are unable to utilize oxygen effectively. Tissues with high oxygen demands, such as the central nervous system and the heart, are particularly vulnerable. Acute exposure, even in small amounts, can lead to symptoms like headache, dizziness, and vomiting, eventually causing severe effects like seizures and cardiac arrest.
Cyanide ions are released during the combustion of certain materials, such as polyurethanes commonly found in furniture. When inhaled as part of smoke during fires, it can quickly lead to poisoning due to its rapid uptake in the lungs and its distribution throughout the body. Treatment for cyanide poisoning is time-sensitive and requires immediate medical intervention with specific antidotes that can reverse its toxic effects.
Which of the following is a negative effect of extended cortisol release caused by chronic or prolonged stress?
A. They heart is subjected to abnormal pressure.
B. The immune system is weakened.
C. The lungs are placed under stress.
D. The thyroid is damaged.
Answer:
The immune system is weakened.
Explanation:
Cortisol is the steroid hormone released by the adrenal gland of the kidney. This hormone is included in the class of glucocorticoid and released in the stress situation.
The cortisol regulates the blood glucose level and suppress the immune system during the stress condition. The prolonged secretion of cortisol suppress the immune system of the body for long time. This will effect the weaken system and makes its weak permanently.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
People who live in poverty are at increased risk of mental illness compared to their economically stable peers. Their lives are stressful. They are both witness to and victims of more violence and trauma than those who are reasonably well-off, and they are at high risk of poor general health and malnutrition. The converse is also true: When people are mentally ill, they are at increased risk of becoming and/or staying poor. They have higher health costs, difficulty getting and retaining jobs, are less productive at work, and suffer the social stigma and isolation of mental illness.
– “Poverty and Mental Health: Can the 2-Way Connection Be Broken?”
Esther Entin
Which statement best summarizes this passage?
~Poverty increases the risk for mental illness.
~Poverty and mental illness are not interconnected.
~Poverty and mental illness lead to malnutrition.
~Poverty increases exposure to violence and trauma.
Answer:
Option A would be more likely. Poverty increases the risk for mental illness.
Explanation:
Option B is obviously contradicted in the passage. Malnutrition and violence and trauma seems to be additional examples brought in to substantiate the point of the prevalence of poverty in its correlation with mental illness.
Answer:
The right answer is A
Explanation:
It's right on edg2020! :D
Which of the following receptors are stimulated when a stiff breeze blows across the skin of your arm and moves some of the hairs?
A) Root hair plexuses
B) Golgi tendon organs
C) Lamellated corpuscles
D) Ruffini corpuscles
Final answer:
Hair receptors are stimulated when a stiff breeze blows across the skin of your arm and moves some of the hairs. They are wrapped around the hair follicles and detect the movement of hair on the surface of the skin.
Explanation:
The receptors that are stimulated when a stiff breeze blows across the skin of your arm and moves some of the hairs are hair receptors. Hair receptors are wrapped around the hair follicles and detect the movement of hair on the surface of the skin. They play a role in detecting insects walking on the skin. In this scenario, Meissner's corpuscles are not involved as they are responsible for light touch, Ruffini corpuscles detect skin stretch and deformations, and Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles detect deep pressure and vibration.
Jorge is unable to attend office because of poor health conditions. Therefore, Jorge's employer gives him the option to work from home, provided he is connected to the company's internal portal during working hours and he achieves his daily targets before 5:00 p.m. In the context of employee benefits, this scenario exemplifies _____.
Answer:
telecommuting
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that In the context of employee benefits, this scenario exemplifies telecommuting. This term refers to the ability that an employer gives to the employee allowing him to work from home in order to complete the task instead of having to travel to the work building/offices. Which is exactly what Jorge is allowed to do.
The reaction of being startled with an increase in blood pressure and other physiological responses is commonly called:__________
Answer:
the fight-or-flight response.
Explanation:
LSD and other powerful hallucinogens are chemically similar to, and therefore block the actions of, a subtype of the neurotransmitter serotonin. At the synapse, these drugs act as a(n) ____
Answer:
phycotic drug
Explanation:
LSD and other powerful hallucinogens are chemically similar to, and therefore block the actions of, a subtype of the neurotransmitter serotonin. At the synapse, these drugs act as an antagonist.
What are antagonists?
An agonist is a sort of receptor ligand or chemical that activates a receptor in order to produce a biological response. An antagonist, on the other hand, binds to a receptor in order to prevent that receptor from producing the desired response.
It would appear that LSD has an excitatory effect on the neurological system because it heightens sensation, as well as the heart rate and blood pressure. An increase in brain activity would occur as a consequence of antagonising serotonin because serotonin is a neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect.
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An 82 year old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. BPH
b. Parkinson's disease
c. Prostate CA
d. all of the above.
Answer: d. all of the above.
Explanation:
The common cause of the hesitancy of urination in older men is the enlarged prostate gland. The older men are found to have trouble in dribbling, starting urination and weak urine stream. The following problems may be diagnosed for such symptoms:
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), is a condition in which the size of the prostate gland increases. The symptoms of the condition include frequent urination, inability in urination, loss of control over the bladder, weak stream and trouble in urinating.
In Parkinson's disease, the person may experience problems due to bladder. The frequency of urination increases even if the bladder is not full.
In prostate cancer, the prostate gland creates pressure over the urethra. This leads to problem for getting started with urination or urinary hesitancy, weak urine stream and incomplete emptying of the bladder.
The female client diagnosed with bladder cancer who has a cutaneous urinary diversion states, "Will I still be able to have children now after my treatment for cancer?" Which statement is the nurse's BEST RESPONSE?1. "Cancer does not make you sterile, but sometimes the therapy can."
2. "Are you concerned you can't have children?"
3. "You will be able to have as many children as you want."
4. "Let me have the chaplain come to talk with you about this."
Answer:
"Cancer does not make you sterile, but sometimes the therapy can."
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the patient that the possibilities of getting pregnant are lower after having cancer and undergo treatment. Cancer therapies such as chemotherapy and radiotherapy are too harsh for the body, which results in permanent modifications that can affect a woman's fertility.
A nurse is interacting with a child during a home visit. The nurse learns that the child is depressed because he scored low on an exam. By the nurse's response, the child felt that the nurse is unable to understand the feeling. Which nontherapeutic response might the nurse have used?
Answer:
I may have not been where you are in life but i can promise you that i will try my best to understand what you are going though.
Explanation:
A client with severe and chronic liver disease is showing manifestations related to inadequate vitamin intake and metabolism. He reports difficulty driving at night because he cannot see well. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient for this client?
a) vitamin A
b) vitamin B
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin D
Answer:
its A
Explanation:
Sheryl is seeing a therapist about her obsessive-compulsive disorder. After describing how her obsessions make her feel, her therapist responds by saying, "What I think I hear you saying is that you feel very anxious when you do not satisfy your compulsions." Sheryl is MOST likely seeing a _____ therapist.
Answer:
I think she is seeing a cognitive behavioral therapist.
Explanation:
CT therapy helps people with OCD to understand what it is, what it entails, and how to help control it in a way that doesn't bring harm or frustration to the person.
Sheryl is most likely seeing a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) therapist, as the method focuses on present thoughts and behaviors related to her obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT aims to change maladaptive thoughts and behaviors to manage the disorder.
Sheryl is MOST likely seeing a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) therapist. The therapist's focus on her current experiences, specifically the anxiety she feels when not satisfying compulsions, and not on past experiences or broader self-realization goals, is indicative of CBT's approach. Cognitive-behavioral therapy aims to alleviate psychological symptoms by changing underlying cognitions and behaviors. The therapy technique revolves around the understanding that maladaptive thoughts lead to maladaptive emotions, which in turn lead to maladaptive behaviors.
For instance, in the case of OCD, CBT therapists work with patients to challenge and change dysfunctional thoughts, reduce anxiety by facing fears through exposure, and subsequently alter the compulsion patterns. This practical, present-focused approach aligns with the treatment goals of someone with OCD who is seeking to manage obsessions and compulsions more effectively in daily life, rather than exploring deep-seated issues from their past.
, who has recently lost her mother to cancer, has been crying for days and is in a disturbed state of mind. She has refused to eat, and it is taking a toll on her health. Sharon's state of mind indicates that she is most likely to be ________.
Answer:
Depressed
Explanation:
Depression is a chronic psychiatric illness that generates profound sadness, loss of interest, lack of mood and mood swings. It is often confused with anxiety and can lead to suicidal thoughts. Therefore, it is essential to diagnose the disease and start medical follow-up. It causes feelings of sadness and / or loss of interest in activities that previously brought pleasure. It can lead to a variety of emotional and physical problems and can decrease a person's ability to carry on their normal activities at work and at home.
An adult woman is admitted to an isolation unit in the hospital after tuberculosis was detected during a pre-employment physical.
Although frightened about her diagnosis, she is anxious to cooperate with the therapeutic regimen.The teaching plan includes information regarding the most common means of transmitting the tubercle bacillus from one individual to another. Which contamination is usually responsible? a. Hands. b. Droplet nuclei. c. Milk products. d. Eating utensils.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Hands are the primary method of transmission of the common cold. The most frequent means of transmission of the tubercle bacillus is by droplet nuclei. The bacillus is present in the air as a result of coughing, sneezing, and expectoration of sputum by an infected person. The tubercle bacillus is not transmitted by means of contaminated food. Contact with contaminated food or water could cause outbreaks of salmonella, infectious hepatitis, typhoid, or cholera. The tubercle bacillus is not transmitted by eating utensils. Some exogenous microbes can be transmitted via reservoirs such as linens or eating utensils.
Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through droplet nuclei, released into the air when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. Masks and special ventilation in treatment areas are crucial to prevent the spread of TB. Option B is correct.
The most common means of transmitting the tubercle bacillus from one individual to another is through droplet nuclei, which occurs when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks, releasing the Mycobacterium tuberculosis into the air. These droplets can remain suspended in the air for several hours, making airborne transmission a primary concern in spreading tuberculosis (TB).
This method of transmission emphasizes the importance of using masks and maintaining special ventilation in areas where TB patients are being treated to prevent the spread of this disease.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Droplet nuclei.