Answer:
Realized niche
Explanation:
Realized niche:
is a set of conditions used by specie after interactions such as competition, predation etc with other species. It can aslo be defined as the actual range of habitats occupied by a species
According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of tuna, one serving of the fish supplies 16 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50g. Estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of the tuna.
Answer:
32%
Explanation:
16x100/50 = 32% Daily Value
To estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of tuna, you divide the protein amount in tuna (16g) by the total daily required protein intake (50g), then multiply by 100 to get it in percentage form. Hence, a serving of tuna supplies about 32% of your daily protein requirement.
Explanation:To estimate the %DV (Daily Value) for protein in a serving of the tuna, you just need to know the amount of protein in one serving of tuna and the total daily value for protein recommended. According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of tuna, one serving of the fish supplies 16 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50g. So, to find the %DV, we divide the amount of protein in tuna by the total DV and then multiply by 100 to get the value in terms of percentage.
Here is the formula: %DV = (Amount in tuna/Total DV) * 100%
Using the numbers provided: %DV = (16g / 50g) * 100% = 32%
So, a serving of tuna supplies approximately 32% of the daily protein requirement.
Besides protein, it's noteworthy that, tuna, along with salmon and trout, are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids which play an important role in brain function, normal growth and development, and may also prevent heart disease and reduce the risk of cancer.
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Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?A) medulla oblongataB) ponsC) mesencephalonD) diencephalonE) cerebellum
Answer:
Diencephalon
Explanation:
Brain stem and cerebrum are connected through diencephalon. It is a part of forebrain and carries sensory information and autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system are also controlled by it. The brain stem is present beneath the cerebrum and cerebellum lies in front of it. It progresses from above the cerebrum and is connected to the spinal cord below. Medulla oblongata, one and midbrain are part of the brain stem
How does biodiversity contribute to the sustainability of a habitat
Answer: The higher the biodiversity of an Habitat, the more
sustainable it is. Also, lower biodiversity equals less sustainability.
Explanation:
The term “biodiversity” is a coined from the phrase “biological diversity”. Biodiversity can be defined as the richness and variety of life of genes, species and ecosystem.
Biodiversity tells us a lot about the health of the biosphere. The greater the variety of species, the healthier the biosphere is. Why is this? This is because; the greater the species, the more links in food chains/webs. Also, the more the genes, the better chances for survival through adaptation.
On the other hand, Sustainability of an ecosystem is the ability of that ecosystem to maintain its structure and function over time in the face of inescapable external stress(e.g deforestation, tornadoes, floods, pollution, etc).
For an ecosystem, sustainability means maintaining ecological processes over long periods of time. These ecological processes includes evolution, food chains and webs, population dynamics, succession. e.t.c
So, if an ecosystem is able to maintain its structure and function over time in the face of external stress, it is said to be sustainable.
FURTHERMORE, The higher biodiversity in an ecosystem means that there is a greater variety of genes and species in that ecosystem. A great variety of genes and species means that the ecosystem is better able to carry out
natural processes. The ecosystem will therefore have more genes and species to help it carry out these processes. For example, there will be more species and more links in food webs, more plants to help with the biogeochemical cycles and more genes available for succession and evolution.
Biodiversity enhances ecosystem sustainability by increasing productivity and resilience, providing essential ecosystem services, and through the restoration and protection of keystone species, as demonstrated by the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone.
Explanation:How Biodiversity Contributes to Habitat SustainabilityBiodiversity plays a crucial role in ecosystem sustainability by enhancing productivity and stability, providing ecosystem services such as nutrient cycling, pest control, and pollination, and allowing ecosystems to be more resilient to environmental changes. For instance, diverse soil organisms enable nitrogen fixation and nutrient recycling, while various pollinators ensure that plants can reproduce. A notable example of the impact of biodiversity on an ecosystem is the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone National Park. As a keystone species, wolves helped to restore balance by controlling elk and coyote populations, leading to the revegetation of riparian areas and an increase in the diversity of other species. Restoration efforts emphasize the importance of biodiversity conservation to maintain the functionality of ecosystems and support human agriculture.
Keystone species are integral in maintaining biodiversity within ecosystems, and their removal can lead to a collapse in ecosystem diversity. The Yellowstone case highlighted the positive effects of reintroducing such species, which included enhancing populations of other species previously suppressed by predators like coyotes. Moreover, maintaining high biodiversity can increase ecosystem productivity, reduce year-to-year variability in productivity, and buffer ecosystems against disturbances. In essence, biodiversity is the life support for ecosystems, playing a role in everything from climate regulation to food production. Therefore, preserving and restoring biodiversity is essential for the health and sustainability of habitats.
Which of the following regions of the brain provides the precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for the smooth, coordinated movements and agility that are needed for our daily living?
Answer:
Cerebellum.
Explanation:
Brain acts as the main control and coordination center of the body. Human brain is divided into three main parts - forebrain, midbrain and the hindbrain.
Cerebellum is the main part of hindbarin regulates the motor coordination and movement of the body. The involuntary and some sort of voluntary actions are controlled by the cerebellum. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles is performed by cerebellum.
Thus, the correct answer is cerebellum.
In pea plants, the peas produced may be green or yellow, with yellow being the dominant form of the allele. What would be the phenotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for the alleles?
Answer:
yellow
Explanation:
mendel's law of dominance
What is the main structural difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?
Answer:
The number of neurons needed to transmit signals
Explanation:
Somatic Nervous System: it regulates the voluntary movement of skeletal muscles, its major components are cranial and spinal nervesAutonomic Nervous System: its involuntarily managed, its major components are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and it acts on glans and smooth and cardiac muscles.Their main structural difference between both systems is that the somatic nervous system needs only one efferent neuron to transmit a signal while on the other hand, the autonomic nervous system needs two efferent neurons and ganglia to transmit a signal.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
What organelle of skeletal muscle cells stores calcium used in muscle contaction?
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the organelle in skeletal muscle cells that stores calcium used for muscle contraction. When signaled, it releases the calcium into the cytoplasm, initiating muscle contraction.
Explanation:Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the organelle of skeletal muscle cells that stores calcium used in muscle contraction. This specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum wraps around each myofibril in the muscle cell like a loose sleeve. When the muscle is signaled to contract, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the surrounding cytoplasm, triggering a series of events that lead to muscle contraction.
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In skeletal muscle cells, the sarcoplasmic reticulum stores and releases calcium ions which are crucial for triggering muscle contractions. Post contraction, calcium ions are transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, with some remaining in the sarcoplasm to maintain muscle tone.
Explanation:The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an organelle found in skeletal muscle cells that plays a critical role in muscle contraction. This specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) stores, releases, and retrieves calcium ions (Ca++) which are necessary for triggering muscle contractions.
The process starts when an action potential reaches the muscle cell, prompting the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm (the cytoplasm of a muscle cell). Calcium ions then bind to the contractile proteins actin and myosin, generating a muscle contraction.
Once the contraction is over, ATP-dependent calcium pumps actively transport calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and out of the cell, until the next contraction needs to be initiated. The remaining calcium in the sarcoplasm helps to maintain muscle tone, keeping the muscle slightly contracted.
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D. Species reintrouuLLIUI
7. Which of the following is a main goal of a Species Survival Plan?
A. breeding new species
B. using DNA to recover extinct species
C. reintroducing captive-bred organisms into the wild
D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size
Answer:
D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size
Explanation:
the main goal of Species survival plan is management of population and survival of them. the plan is used for the implementation of the methods and strategies can be used for the survival of endangered species for example cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size
Answer:
D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size
Explanation:
European starlings and Eastern bluebirds both nest in naturally occurring cavities. In areas where both species occur, starlings often evict bluebirds from their nesting holes and raise their own young there. This is an example of:
Answer:
Competition
Explanation:
The organisms living in a particular ecosystem constantly interact with each other and these interactions are of different types:1. Mutualism
2. commensalism
3. predation
4. competition
5. parasitism
In a situation where there are limited resources are available and the species present in the ecosystem want to utilize the similarly limited resources and thus, do not want to compromise this leads to competitive interaction.In the case of competition one of the species tries to eliminate the other species and the fittest wins.In the given case it can be seen that both the starling and the bluebird occupy cavities and hence, compete with each other, however, the bluebirds are evicted by the starlings and hence, this is an example of competition.in addition to revealing chromosome abnormalities, what other information about an individual would a karyotype show?
In addition to revealing chromosomal abnormalities karyotype gives information about the gender of an individual.
Explanation:
A karyotype is the complete information about the chromosomes of an individual, the size, number and type of chromosomes. Analysis of karyotype of an individual gives information about chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders if any, in that individual. It is not the only information karyptype gives.
It also gives an idea about the sex of the individual. The sex chromosome of females is homozygous and that of males is heterozygous. Sex chromosome of a female can not be homozygous or heterozygous. Rather, a female can be heterozygous or homozygous for a given allele.
Final answer:
A karyotype reveals the number and structure of an individual's chromosomes, identifying conditions like Down Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, DNA deletions/insertions, and translocations related to specific health issues, including cancers.
Explanation:
A karyotype can provide valuable information about an individual's chromosomes and potential genetic conditions. For example, it can reveal if an individual has an abnormal number of chromosomes, such as in Down Syndrome with an extra chromosome 21, or in Turner Syndrome, where a female has only one X chromosome.
Additionally, a karyotype can identify structural abnormalities like large deletions or insertions of DNA segments, as well as translocations, which may be associated with various health conditions, including certain types of cancer like chronic myelogenous leukemia.
Acetylcholine stimulates cells in the pancreas to secrete enzymes that aid in digestion of sugars. It does so by activating GPCRs that stimulate the membrane-bound enzyme phospholipase C (PLC). PLC then triggers which of these downstream events?
Answer:
An elevation of cytosolic Ca2+ concentration, which leads to the activation of protein kinase C (PKC).
Explanation:
Pancreatic enzymes are stored in acinar cells inside zymogen granules and released when necessary. The pancreas secretes a wide range of enzymes, which includes proteases, carbohydrases (pancreatic amylase and, in some cases, chitinase) and pancreatic lipase.
Acetylcholine is a molecule that is produced in neurons and is necessary so that it can transmit the nerve impulse both at the level of the central and peripheral nervous system. It is one of the most important neurotransmitters, being the main neurotransmitter of the so-called cholinergic system.
Acetylcholine, which is released from parasympathetic nerve terminals, stimulates the secretion of insulin, glucagon, somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide.
Phospholipase C is a phosphodiesterase in charge for hydrolysis of a glycerophosphate bond , Phospholipase C is the target enzyme for some GPCRs.
Protein kinase C, is a family of protein kinase enzymes that are involved in controlling the function of other proteins through the phosphorylation of hydroxyl groups of serine and threonine amino acid residues on these proteins, or a member of this family.
You are studying nuclear lamins and use recombinant DNA technology to alter the coding sequence of a nuclear lamin gene. The alteration you make creates a situation such that the gene now codes for a nuclear lamin protein that can no longer be phosphorylated when the nuclear envelope is broken down during mitosis. What do you predict would happen if the cell only had the altered nuclear lamin gene (and not the unaltered version)?
(a)Mitosis should proceed as usual because the dephosphorylation of the lamin is what is important for nuclear lamina assembly during mitosis, so phosphorylation will not be necessary.(b)Disassembly of the nuclear lamins will occur prematurely because the lamins cannot be phosphorylated.
(c)Nuclear lamins will no longer disassemble properly during mitosis.(d)Nuclear lamins will be unable to produce dimers, as coiled-coil formation will be disrupted.
Answer:
(b)Disassembly of the nuclear lamins will occur prematurely because the lamins cannot be phosphorylated.
Explanation:
The alteration made to the nuclear lamin gene would likely disrupt the disassembly of nuclear lamins during mitosis. This disassembly is crucial for successful cell division as it allows the nuclear envelope to break down and makes the chromosomes accessible for segregation. Without phosphorylation, this might not occur properly.
Explanation:The subject matter of this question revolves around nuclear lamins, proteins that hold a crucial role in the structure of a cell's nucleus. They are involved in processes such as DNA replication and cell division. Specifically, the question focuses on the phosphorylation of nuclear lamins during mitosis.
The correct answer would be option (c): Nuclear lamins will no longer disassemble properly during mitosis. Phosphorylation of nuclear lamins is a crucial step in mitosis. It triggers the disassembly of the nuclear lamina, allowing the nuclear envelope to disintegrate and making the chromosomes accessible for segregation to the daughter cells. If the nuclear lamins cannot be phosphorylated, this means they will not disassemble properly when the nuclear envelope breaks down during mitosis, possibly leading to errors in chromosome segregation and thus affecting the overall cell division process.
This is an interpretation based on the known function of nuclear lamins and the well-studied process of mitosis in eukaryotic cells, assuming the modification of the lamin gene does not have any other unintended effects on the cell's function.
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And cabbage butterfly's white color is dominant and yellow color is recessive if a pure white cabbage butterfly meant to the yellow cabbage butterfly all the resulting butterflies are heterozygous white which cross represent the genotypes of the parents generation
Answer:
The genotype of the white parent will be homozygous and dominant and the genotype of the yellow parent will be homozygous and recessive in order to produce offsprings having genotype heterozygous white.
This cross can be shown as
w w
W Ww Ww
W Ww Ww
In the cross, the allele W is considered to be dominant over the allele w. Hnece, the white dominant parent will have the alleles WW. The recessive parent will have the alleles ww.
Final answer:
When a pure white ('WW') cabbage butterfly mates with a pure yellow ('ww') one, all the offspring will be heterozygous white ('Ww') as white is the dominant color.
Explanation:
To understand the cross between a pure white cabbage butterfly and a yellow cabbage butterfly, we need to look at genotypes and dominant and recessive alleles. Since white color is dominant, we will assign it the allele 'W', and since yellow is recessive, we will assign it 'w'. A pure white butterfly has the genotype 'WW', while a pure yellow has 'ww'.
When a 'WW' individual crosses with a 'ww' individual, all their offspring will have one allele for white and one for yellow, thus being heterozygous 'Ww'. This outcome can be predicted using a Punnett square, which is a grid used to determine the possible genotypes of offspring given the genotypes of their parents. Each offspring from this cross will display the white coloration because 'W' is dominant over 'w'.
How would genetic variation be affected if, during meiosis I, maternal chromosomes always lined up together on one side of the metaphase plate and paternal chromosomes always lined up on the other side?
Answer: There will be no genetic variability in the gametes produced.
Explanation:
Meiosis is a type of cell division to form gametes, which are haploid cells and genetically distinct from the cell that gave them their origin.
During the interphases of meiosis I, each chromosome is duplicated. And after that, during prophase I, the phenomenon of crossing over occurs which is the exchange of genetic material between male and female chromosomes.
In metaphase I, the homologous pairs of chromosomes align on the equatorial plate; and during anaphase I the spindle fibers pull them away and toward each pole of the cell. At the end, in telophase I, the chromosomes are enclosed in nuclei and the nuclear membrane is formed.
If the maternal chromosomes are aligned on one side and the paternal ones on the other, without crossing over having occurred, then the new formed gametes will have the same maternal or paternal genetic material according to which chromosomes they receive. This means that there will be no genetic variability in the gametes produced.
Glomerulonephritis, or inflammation of the glomerulus, will result leaky glomerular capillaries and damaged glomeruli, both which will cause the GFR to decrease. If GFR decreases, which mechanisms would be triggered to help maintain the GFR?A. Tubuloglomerular feedback and myogenic mechanism.B. RAAS and atrial natriuretic peptide.C. RAAS and myogenic mechanism.D. RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback.
Answer:
RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback.
Explanation:
Kidney is important organ of the body that performs the process of excretion. The kidney contains the millions of neurons that acts as the filtration unit.
In case of low glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback initiates in the body. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system increases the blood pressure and GFR rate by using the enzymes renin and angiotensin. The reabsorption of sodium chloride decreases and results in the increase of GFR in case of ubuloglomerular feedback mechanism.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Within kingdom Protista, _____ are subdivided into the flagellates, the amoebas, the apicomplexans, and the ciliates.
Within kingdom Protista, Protozoa are subdivided into the flagellates, the amoebas, the apicomplexans, and the ciliates.
Explanation:
The protist is an organism of eukaryotic family but is neither plant and fungus nor animal. It contents are divided in various super groups, like- protozoa, algae, excavate etc. It was first coined by Ernst Haeckel in the year 1886.
The ‘protists’ were divided in various groups depending on the kingdom that is higher. The first group is of Protozoa, a single celled organism that looks like animal. This group is again classified in super groups of – flagella, amoeba, ciliophora etc.
Which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses?
Answer:
Somatic Sensory division
Explanation:
Somatic Sensory division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses.
Somatic Sensory division is part of peripheral nervous system, it runs from sensory organs to Central nervous system. This sensory division collects information from touch, pressure, feel, pain ,vision, teste and crries them to Central nervous System.
The sensory division of the nervous system detects stimuli for both general and special senses. General senses like touch are distributed throughout the body and do not have specialized organs, whereas special senses such as sight and hearing involve specific organs like the eyes and ears.
Explanation:The Sensory Division and Stimuli Detection:
The division that detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses is known as the sensory division. This division of the nervous system is tasked with carrying messages from sense organs, such as the eyes and ears, and internal organs to the central nervous system (CNS). The general senses, which include sensations like touch, temperature, pain, proprioception (body movement), and kinesthesia (body movement), do not have specialized sense organs and are distributed throughout the body. The special senses, which include sight, hearing, balance, taste, and smell, have specific organs associated with them: the eyes for vision, the ears for hearing and balance, the tongue for taste, and the nasal passages for smell.
The eyes are the specialized sense organs for sight, gathering visual information and converting it into nerve impulses that the brain can understand. Likewise, the ears are the sensory organs for hearing, with the inner ear also playing a critical role in maintaining balance. Tactile stimuli related to touch are detected by mechanoreceptors found in the skin and tissues, which provide feedback about our environment.
The main function of the inflammatory response is to
A) initiate the production of antibodies.
B) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
C) initiate T cell-mediated immune responses.
D) initiate the production of killer cells
Answer:
B) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
Explanation:
Schematically we can divide the inflammation into five stages:
1- Release of mediators. They are molecules, most of them, of elementary structure that are released or
synthesized by the mast cell under the action of certain stimuli.
2- Effect of mediators. Once released, these molecules produce vascular alterations and effects
Chemotactics that favor the arrival of molecules and immune cells to the inflammatory focus.
3- Arrival of molecules and immune cells to the inflammatory focus. They come mostly from the blood, but
also from the areas surrounding the focus.
4- Regulation of the inflammatory process. Like most of the immune responses, the inflammatory phenomenon
It also integrates a series of inhibitory mechanisms aimed at finalizing or balancing the process.
5- Repair. Phase consisting of phenomena that will determine the total or partial repair of tissues
damaged by the aggressor or by the inflammatory response itself.
Yesterday you asked your friend Ray for a couple of aspirin tablets to relieve your headache. Ray has been taking a psychology course and informs you that, in behavioral terms, aspirin is a ________ reinforcer.
Answer:
The correct answer is a negative reinforcer.
Explanation:
In psychology there is a type of procedure called reinforcements. This means that there are situations in which certain behavior is established or eliminated, waiting for a response because of doing it.
There are two types of reinforcements: positive reinforcements and negative reinforcements.
The positive reinforcement establishes that by means of a certain type of behavior, a positive response will be expected, therefore the behavior will be repeated again to have that response again.
An example of this would be when you teach your dog to sit, and in return you give him a croquette. The first time he did it, the dog saw that he received a delicious croquette in exchange for his action, so he is likely to do it again in order to win a croquette again.
A negative reinforcement, on the other hand, is one that eliminates a certain type of negative condition, waiting for the response to this to continue. As is the example of taking an aspirin. If a person takes an aspirin to relieve his headache, it is likely that every time his head hurts he will take one too. And this is not a positive or recommended behavior, unless a doctor prescribes it.
A cell contains Select one: a. one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions. b. thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction. c. one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration. d. approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
Answer:
The answer is letter B
Explanation:
A cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
Final answer:
A cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, with each one catalyzing a specific chemical reaction essential for the cell's functionality and life sustainability.
Explanation:
Enzymes are specialized macromolecular biological catalysts that are crucial for facilitating the vast array of chemical reactions that occur in living cells. Each enzyme has a unique three-dimensional structure that allows it to bind specifically to its substrates and catalyze a particular reaction at a site known as the active site. Fundamentally, enzymes are imperative for sustaining life because they are able to accelerate biochemical reactions to rates that support cellular functions and metabolic processes.
Diving deeper, it's evident that there are thousands of different kinds of enzymes in a cell, with each type promoting a specific chemical reaction. This is necessary as cells carry out multifarious reactions that require precise control and regulation. For instance, enzymes are responsible not just for aiding in the digestion of nutrients but also for reading genetic material to synthesize new molecules.
Therefore, when addressing the student's question, the accurate answer is that a cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each specialized to catalyze different chemical reactions.
Sexual dysfunction is a phenomenon that
a. could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction.
b. is rare for partners in long-term relationships.
c. could occur to low sexual desire.
d. does not relate to sexual performance.
Answer:
a. could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Sexual dysfunction is a phenomenon that could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction.
Normally sexual response cycle includes excitation, plateau, satisfaction, and resolution.
sexual dysfunction is more common at the of forty although it can also affect at any age.
Sexual dysfunction commonly is divided into four kinds:
Desire disorders — occur due to a reduction in sexual desire.Arousal disorders —in this case, a person does not get excited while doing sex.Orgasm disorders —is the inability of the woman to reach an orgasm. Pain disorders — while doing the intercourse pain occur.sexual dysfunction causes because of the following reason
heart diseaseif blood pressure is highdue to obesityDiabetesneurological disordersA horticulturist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed bye the allele R and the trait of the white flowers is governed bye the allied r
The horticulturist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation look at the punter square to see this cross what ration of red to white flowering plants would you expect to see in the phenotypes of the F2 generation
Answer:
Ration of red to white flowering plants in the phenotypes of the F2 generation is 3:1
Explanation:
Let us suppose that in the F1 generation, true breeding species were crossed with each other.
True breeding red flower geraniums will have genotype "RR"
And true breeding white flower geraniums will have genotype "rr"
Also, let us say that "R" is dominant over "r"
Then the offspring produced in F1 generation are -
RR * rr
Rr, Rr, Rr, Rr
All offspring are heterozygous red
F2 generation cross
Rr * Rr
RR, Rr, Rr, rr
Out of four , 3 offspring are red in color and one is white in color.
Thus, ration of red to white flowering plants is 3:1
Answer:
3 red : 1 white
Explanation:
An agouti mouse that is heterozygous at the agouti and albino loci (AaCc) is mated to an albino mouse that is heterozygous at the agouti locus (Aacc). Allele definitions: A_ = Agouti if non-albino aa = black if non-albino C_ = non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype cc = albino independent of A/a gene genotype.
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be albino?
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be agouti?
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be black?
Answer:
Percentage of progeny that are albino are 50.00%
Percentage of progeny that are agouti are 37.50%
Percentage of progeny that are black are 12.5%
Explanation:
This question is a classic example of the genetic phenomena known as "epistasis", “Epistasis” is a word composed of Greek roots that mean “standing upon.” The alleles that are being masked or silenced are said to be hypostatic to the epistatic alleles that are doing the masking.
The agouti mouse (AA), is dominant over the black (aa). However, a separate gene (C) is necessary for pigment production. A mouse with a recessive 'c' allele at this locus is unable to produce pigment and is albino regardless of the allele present at locus A.
Hence, A cross between heterozygotes for both genes (AaCc x Aacc)
is show in the pdf below and would generate offspring with a phenotypic ratio of:
albino : 8/16 (i.e 50.00%)
agouti: 6/16 (i.e 37.50%)
black: 2/16 (i.e 12.5%)
This is so FOR albino, Since cc_ = albino independent of A/a gene genotype. Therefore, all traits carrying albino independent is 8/16. i.e ( AAcc, Aacc, AAcc, Aacc, Aacc, aacc, Aacc, aacc)
= 50.00%
FOR agouti: Since C_ = non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype & A_ = Agouti if non-albino. Therefore, any progeny carrying heterozygous agouti (i.e A) and albino (i.e C) is Agouti.
Hence, agouti = (those that are all heterozygous (AACc, AaCc, AACc, AaCc, AaCc, AaCc) )
=6/16 (i.e 37.50%)
FOR Black: Since aa = black if non-albino & C_ ( non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype ). Black will be homozygous recessive agouti and heterozygous albino (aaCc and aaCc).
=2/16
= 12.5%
I HOPE THIS REALLY HELPS A LOT!.
Answer:
Percentage albino = 37.5%
Percentage agouti = 37.5%
Percentage black = 25%
Explanation:
The cross is between AaCc and Aacc.
The presence of C_ makes A_ to be agouti.
The presence of C_ makes aa to be black.
The absence of C makes A_ and aa to be albino
AaCc x Aacc
Offspring:
2 AACc Agouti
2 AAcc Albino
4 AaCc Agouti
4 Aacc Albino
2 aaCc Black
2 aaCC Black
Percentage albino = 6/16 x 100% = 37.5%
Percentage agouti = 6/16 x 100% = 37.5%
percentage black = 4/16 x 100% = 25%
See the attached image for the Punnet square analysis
Although testosterone and related anabolic steroids clearly increase muscle mass during puberty, it has been more difficult to determine scientifically whether adult men with normal testosterone can get much stronger from extra steroids, partly because:
Answer & Explanation
The use of extra anabolic steroids has been termed ''unethical''. Therefore, the research would be unethical to subject participants to extra doses of different steroids.
In sports, the use of anabolic steroids in order to boost personal performance is regarded as doping and anabolic steroids are listed as banned substances.
Answer is it will be unethical to expose participants to high doses of multiple steroids
The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter
Answer:
a) Myelinated nerve fibres
b) The white matter
c) gray matter
Explanation:
The three main parts of cerebral hemispheres are
a) Myelinated nerve fibers
b) The white matter
c) Gray matter
The nerve fibers of the white matter are responsible for connecting the functional parts of cerebral cortex while the gray matter is further divided into four surface folds/lobes with each lobe associated with a specific activity. Such as frontal lobe take cares of motor activity and speech, parietal lobe is responsible for touch and position sensation, occipital lobe for vision and temporal lobe for hearing.
Antidiuretic hormone causes the kidneys to
a. produce a larger volume of very dilute urine.
b. increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water.
c. release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid.
d. is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood.
e. is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone causes the kidneys to increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water .
Explanation:
The anti-diuretic hormones stimulates the process of water re-absorption by enhancing the water channels or aquaporins in the membranes of the kidney tubules. The solute free water are transferred through the channels in the tubular cells and back in the blood which then leads to decrease in the osmolarity of plasma with the increase in osmolarity of urine. The hormone is prepared in the hypothalamus of brain and stored in the pituitary glands. It reminds the kidney about the absorption of water, through which it maintains the balance of water in blood.
Which of the following is NOT a goal of biomechanics?
a) to understand how the basic laws of physics affect human motion and the structure and function of the human body
b) to understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices
c) to improve performance and well-being to solve particular problems with the motion and structure of the human body
d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements
Answer: b) to understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices
Explanation:
To understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices is NOT a goal of biomechanics.
Biomechanics by definition in dictionaries is the branch of biophysics that deals with the mechanics of the human or animal body; especially concerned with muscles and the skeleton.To study the mechanics of a living body it is necessary to understand the forces exerted by muscles and gravity on the skeletal structure, as well as the mechanics of a part or function of a living body, for example the heart or of locomotion.
The answer is d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements.
Explanation:The correct answer is d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements. The field of biomechanics aims to understand the mechanical principles behind human movement and the structure and function of the human body. It involves analyzing the physics of motion, the interaction between humans and equipment, and identifying solutions to improve performance and well-being. However, it does not focus solely on the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements.
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What kind of bonding occurs between carbon atoms, allowing carbon to form stable molecules?
A. Single, double, and triple covalent bonds
B. Single, double, and triple ionic bonds
C. Single, double, and triple hydrogen bonds
D. Single, double, and triple metallic bonds
Answer:
The real correct answer would be a.
Explanation:
Covalent bonding occurs between Carbon atoms allowing Carbon to form stable molecules.
Single, double, and triple covalent bonding occurs between carbon atom, allowing carbon to form stable molecules. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Covalent bonding?A covalent bond is the bond which consists of the mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between two atoms of same element or different element. These electrons are simultaneously attracted by the two atomic nuclei. A covalent bond forms between two atoms when the difference between the electronegativities of two atoms is too small for an electron transfer to take place to form ions.
Carbon can form up to four covalent bonds. Covalent bonds are the chemical bonds that form between nonmetal atoms. In a covalent bond, two atoms share a pair of electrons between them. By forming four covalent bonds, carbon shares four pairs of electrons with other atoms, thus filling its outer energy level and achieving stability.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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You are caring for a client with shock. You are concerned about hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis with your client. What finding should you analyze for evidence of hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis in a client with shock?
Answer:
ABG - Arterial blood gas findings
Explanation:
The ABG test measures the pH and the oxugen and CO2 levels in the blood that goes through the arteries.
If the extracellular fluid has an excess of sodium ions, a. sodium ions move into cells b. intracellular fluid moves to the outside of cells c. phosphate and calcium ions are eliminated in feces d. blood levels of arsenic and oxalate increase
Answer:
b. intracellular fluid moves to the outside of cells
Explanation:
The presence of an excess of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid would make it hypertonic with respect to the intracellular fluid. The concentration gradient would drive the intracellular fluid towards the outside of the cell to balance the concentration of the fluids on either side. The passive movement of fluids occurs across the cells and is driven by the concentration gradient only. The biological membranes are permeable for fluid movement such as the movement of water across it.