Answer: Integumentary and respiratory is the answer
Final answer:
The epidermal cells in plant stems function like the human integumentary system, while stomata mimic the respiratory system by regulating gas exchange.
Explanation:
The epidermal cells and stomata in the outermost layer of plant stems have functions that are similar to those of two human body systems: the integumentary system and the respiratory system. The epidermal cells in plants prevent water loss and protect against injury, much like the human skin in the integumentary system which provides protection and helps retain body fluids. The stomata function similarly to the respiratory system as they control the exchange of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, just as the lungs do in humans.
This part of the peripheral nervous system controls smooth muscle
Answer: The autonomic nervous system controls smooth muscle of the viscera (internal organs) and glands. This picture shows the general organization of the autonomic nervous system. The preganglionic neuron is located in either the brain or the spinal cord. This preganglionic neuron projects to an autonomic ganglion.
Explanation: I found it on google luv x
what is the limiting factor that depends on the number of individuals in a population
The independent variable in this experiment was and the dependent variable was
Answer:
the independent variable is the experiment was MOLECULE SIZE, and the dependent variable was ABILITY TO DIFFUSE.
Explanation:
What is another common use of the food produced by plants?
Answer:
Food that produced by plants is common to be used for making products.
Final answer:
Plants are used for medicinal purposes, such as quinine for malaria, and for producing alcoholic beverages through fermentation. They also provide raw materials for industries and have cultural significance.
Explanation:
Aside from being a staple in our diet, plants serve a multitude of purposes in human life. One common use of the food produced by plants is for medicinal purposes. For instance, quinine, which is extracted from cinchona trees, has been used to treat conditions like malaria and to reduce fever and alleviate pain. Additionally, fermentation of plant sugars and starches is a traditional method used to create various alcoholic beverages, such as wine and beer. Moreover, plants are also vital for providing raw materials like timber, fibers, and oils for various industries, and for cultural and ceremonial uses in many societies.
You have accepted a part-time tutoring job for first-year medical students. One of your students asks if you would please clarify the details of normal fetal circulation. Which of the following best describes the path of the majority of the blood that enters the right atrium?A. RA > foramen ovale > LA > LV > systemic circulationB. RA > RV > VSD > LV > systemic circulationC. RA > RV > pulmonary circulation > LA > LV > systemic circulationD. RA > RV > ductus arteriosus > LV > systemic circulatioE. RA > RV > ductus arteriosus > systemic circulation
Answer:
A
Explanation:
In the normal fetal circulation, oxygenated blood is flows from the placenta to the liver through the umbilical vein. From the liver it flows through the ductus venosus and portal sinus to the inferior Vena Cava and then into the right atrium.
From the right atrium, majority of the blood pass through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. The foramen ovale is a small opening in the wall between the right atrium and the left atrium. It is a normal anatomical structure in fetuses which allows oxygenated blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation as the fetus is not yet getting oxygenated blood from the lungs. The foramen ovale closes at birth when the lungs become functional.
From the left atrium, the blood flows into the left ventricle and into the aorta for systemic circulation. A small amount goes through the pulmonary vessels to the lungs.
Is the lumen of an artery, capillary or vein, large or small? Why?
Answer:
Arteries have thick walls composed of three distinct layers (tunica) Veins have thin walls but typically have wider lumen (lumen size may vary depending on specific artery or vein) Capillaries are very small and will not be easily detected under the same magnification as arteries and veins.
Explanation:
Final answer:
The size of the lumen varies among arteries, capillaries, and veins, designed according to their roles in the circulatory system. Arteries have smaller lumens to maintain blood pressure, while capillaries' tiny lumens facilitate exchange between blood and tissues, and veins have larger lumens for low-pressure return of blood to the heart.
Explanation:
The size of the lumen varies among arteries, capillaries, and veins based on their structure and function within the circulatory system. Arteries, being closer to the heart and receiving blood at a higher pressure, have thicker walls and consequently smaller lumens compared to veins. This smaller lumen helps maintain the pressure of blood flowing through the system. In contrast, veins have larger lumens and thinner walls, accommodating for the lower pressure of blood returning to the heart. Capillaries, the smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels, have the smallest lumens, with diameters just wide enough to allow single erythrocytes (red blood cells) to pass through. This size facilitates the exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues.
Arterioles, a type of small artery leading into capillaries, are termed resistance vessels due to their small lumen sizes slowing down blood flow, hence playing a critical role in regulating blood pressure. Veins, with their larger lumens, serve as reservoirs that return blood to the heart under lower pressure. Overall, the variation in lumen size across these vessels is crucial for the efficient functioning of the circulatory system, each serving a unique purpose tailored to its role in blood circulation.
How do the levels of thermal energy and speed differ between low- and high-friction surfaces?
Answer:
high friction surfaces have more movement which creates more heat on the surface, which means that there will be more thermal energy on a high-friction surface than on a low-friction surface.
Explanation:
What are the causes that makes the actin and myosin filaments to slide past one another during muscle contraction?
Answer:
When calcium ions bind to troponin, causing conformational changes in troponin that allow tropomyosin to move away from the myosin binding sites on actin. Once the tropomyosin is removed, a cross-bridge can form between actin and myosin, causing contraction.
Explanation:
Muscles contract through the action of two proteins called actin and myosin.There are two other regulatory proteins tropomyosin and troponin. Muscles are composed of two major protein filaments: a thick filament composed of the protein myosin and a thin filament composed of the protein actin.Skeletal muscle is composed of a repeating structure of myosin and actin fibers. Each myosin thick filament is surrounded by actin thin filaments, and each thin filament is surrounded by thick filaments. Muscle contraction occurs when these filaments slide over one another in a series of repetitive events.
When a muscle contracts, the actin is pulled along myosin toward the center of the sarcomere until the actin and myosin filaments are completely overlapped. In other words, for a muscle cell to contract, the sarcomere must shorten. ATP is critical to prepare myosin for binding and to “recharge” the myosin. ATP first binds to myosin, moving it to a high-energy state. The ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) by the enzyme ATPase. The energy released during ATP hydrolysis changes the angle of the myosin head into a “cocked” position, ready to bind to actin if the sites are available. ADP and Pi remain attached; myosin is in its high energy configuration.The muscle contraction cycle is triggered by calcium ions binding to the protein complex troponin, exposing the active-binding sites on the actin. As soon as the actin-binding sites are uncovered, the high-energy myosin head bridges the gap, forming a cross-bridge. Once myosin binds to the actin, the Pi is released, and the myosin undergoes a conformational change to a lower energy state. As myosin expends the energy, it moves through the “power stroke,” pulling the actin filament toward the M-line. When the actin is pulled approximately 10 nm toward the M-line, the sarcomere shortens and the muscle contracts. At the end of the power stroke, the myosin is in a low-energy position.
After the power stroke, ADP is released, but the cross-bridge formed is still in place. ATP then binds to myosin, moving the myosin to its high-energy state, releasing the myosin head from the actin active site. ATP can then attach to myosin, which allows the cross-bridge cycle to start again; further muscle contraction can occur. Therefore, without ATP, muscles would remain in their contracted state, rather than their relaxed state.
This type of organism can be anywhere from the size of my fist to 3 times as large as I am. They can walk or run. They have either 2 or 4 legs and have to hunt for their food. I observed its cells under the microscope. Each of the cells had a very large, darkened circle inside of it as well as other small structures that had lines around them.
Answer:
Belongs to Animalia kingdom
Explanation:
In the given question, the options are not provided but it can be assumed that the examiner is asking about the kingdom of the organism which shows these traits.
The provided characteristics are:
1. size- from a fist to 3 times larger than humans
2. can run or walk- that is they show movement
3. walk with- 2 to 4 legs
4. hunt food- are mostly heterotrophic
5. cell has a dark circle- nucleus
6. small structures around the nucleus- organelles
These characteristics are shown by the organism belonging to the Animalia kingdom.
Thus, the Animalia kingdom is the correct answer.
Eukaryotic chromosomes:______
a. may occur as chromatin.
b. contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space.
c. consist of both DNA and protein.
d. all of the choices are correct.
e. only A and B are correct.
Answer:
I think it is: C
Consist of both DNA and Protein
Explanation:
The reason why i say C is because Eukaryotic chromosomes consist of a DNA-protein complex that is organized in a compact manner which permits the large amount of DNA to be stored in the nucleus of the cell. The subunit designation of the chromosome is chromatin. The fundamental unit of chromatin is the nucleosome.
Eukaryotic chromosomes can occur as chromatin, contain histones for DNA packaging, and consist of both DNA and protein; therefore, all the choices are correct.
Eukaryotic chromosomes fulfill all of the listed characteristics, thus all of the choices are correct. They may occur as chromatin, which is DNA wrapped around histone proteins, creating a structure conducive to both the condensation necessary for cell division and the accessibility required for gene expression. Eukaryotic chromosomes contain histones that are responsible for packaging DNA into a small space, a necessity given the large amount of genetic material within each cell. Additionally, they consist of both DNA and protein, including the histone proteins that are vital for the structural organization of the chromosome.
why do you think the distribution of fur traits changed over time?
Answer
Explanation:
I think its because over the years since more individuals with high fur levels survived more harsh environment , animals have evolve high fur-level trait became more common in Population A over time, and the low fur-level trait became less common. The high fur-level trait was an more adaptive trait.
When The distribution of traits and also changed in these populations because as generations passed in this environment in Population A.
Variation of TraitsThen the variation of traits are decreased as the distribution of traits then they are shifted so that there was only medium level fur traits, and also as Population completely died out.
traits changed When the individuals with high fur levels are survived more harsh environment.
Also animals have evolve high fur-level trait became more common in Population A over time, and also the low fur-level trait became less common.
Thus, The high fur-level trait was an more adaptive trait.
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Mutations are always
a. Good
b. Bad
c. Neutral
d. Natural occurrences
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Mutations can be good, bad, or neutral so the answer must be d, that they occur naturally. In any given environment many mutations can occur, but the mutation's effect on an ecosystem or being can vary. Mutation happen to people, diseases, animals, and even plants.
Mutations can be either good, bad, or neutral, and are always naturally occurring. Good mutations provide an evolutionary advantage, bad ones can cause diseases, and neutral ones have no significant impact on the organism's survival.
Explanation:Mutations are often thought of in negative terms, but they can be good, bad, or neutral. They are also unquestionably natural occurrences. For example, certain mutations may offer an evolutionary advantage, thus fitting into the 'good' category. Other mutations can lead to life-threatening diseases, classifying them as 'bad'. Many mutations are 'neutral', meaning they do not significantly impact the organism's survival. Regardless of their effects, they are natural processes occurring at the genetic level.
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Under most conditions, the supply of energy by catabolic pathways is regulated by the demand for energy by anabolic pathways. Considering the role of ATP formation and hydrolysis in energy coupling of anabolic and catabolic pathways, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
Answer:
High levels of ADP act as an allosteric activator of catabolic pathways
Explanation:
The correct statement is that high levels of ADP act as an allosteric activator of catabolic pathways.
A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law.
If p equals the frequency of the dominant allele and q equals the frequency of the recessive allele, which of the following terms represents the frequency of the individuals who show the dominant phenotype?
a. pxp
b. qxq
c. 2pq
d. pxp +2pq
e. pxp + qxq
Answer:
d. pxp +2pq
Explanation:
The formula for genotype frequency for a population in Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium is as under:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where, p = dominant allele
q = recessive allele
Here,
p² represents frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
2pq represents frequency of heterozygous genotype
q² represents frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
Also, although the genotypes p² & 2pq are different from each other yet phenotypically they both will collectively produce dominant trait i.e. free ear lobes not attached earlobes. So the term "p² + 2pq or pxp + 2pq" represents the frequency of the individuals who show the dominant phenotype in this particular population. Dominant phenotype will comprise 75% of the population.
Explain what is likely to happen if a solution of pond water becomes too acidic or too basic.
Answer:
it kills fishes due to the lack of oxygen
and promotes the growth of algae
Explanation:
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Final answer:
When pond water is too acidic or too basic, it harms aquatic life, disrupts ecosystems, and can cause human discomfort. Acidic environments affect reproductive cycles and dissolve calcium carbonate structures, while basic environments can irritate skin and eyes. pH balance is crucial for healthy aquatic systems.
Explanation:
If a solution of pond water becomes too acidic or too basic, it can have detrimental effects on the ecosystem. Acidic water, with a pH less than 7, can disrupt the reproduction of aquatic animals and lead to the dissolution of calcium carbonate structures such as those in clams, snails, and corals. Ecosystems suffer from decreased populations of sensitive species and potential food chain disruptions. Moreover, acid deposition from rain can introduce toxins, affecting fish and insect populations. On the other hand, water that is too basic, with a pH greater than 7, can also pose problems for aquatic life and irritate human skin and eyes, as is sometimes noticed after swimming in a pool with improper pH levels.
Additionally, significant shifts in water pH can result in eutrophication and algal blooms, which deplete oxygen in the water and can lead to large fish kills. Overall, maintaining a balanced pH level is crucial for the health of aquatic ecosystems and the organisms living within them. Learning about the impact of pH on water quality underscores the importance of monitoring and managing water resources to protect these environments.
____is the term applied when one gene interferes with the expression of another
Answer:
Epistasis
Explanation:
Sorry it its wrong
The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called __________.
Answer:
Topoisomerase
Explanation:
Topoisomerase is an enzyme that is involved in the unwinding of Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). They are involved in double stranded DNA and they help to relieve the making of supercoils.
Topoisomerase play an important role during DNA replication, as the prevent the the twisting of the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork. In other words, they ensure that the DNA open up for unwinding without being tightly wound.
Answer:
The correct answer is "topoisomerase".
Explanation:
Topoisomerase is an enzyme that is essential to perform DNA replication and transcription. Topoisomerase catalyzes the overwinding or underwinding of DNA, for which they are know as "the magicians of the DNA world" because they relieve the twisting that are formed in the DNA ahead of the fork during replication. Topoisomerase are needed because of the intertwined nature of its double-helical structure
Which fraction represents 25% of the offspring in a genetic cross?
Ο 1/4
Ο 3/4
Ο 1/2
Ο 4/2
Answer:
1/4
Explanation:
1/4 (one fourth) is the same as 25%.
Example:
if you have four quarters, you have one US dollar. If you spend 75 cents, then you have 25 cents left. That 25 cents is 25% of 1 dollar
The fraction representing 25% of the offspring in a genetic cross is ¼. Hence, the first option is the correct option. The genetic crossing takes place between two parents.
What is genetic cross?
A genetic cross takes place between two parents. Each parent produces the gametes. These gametes make up the genes for the offspring. An example is a cross between two heterozygous tall plants.
The tall character is represented by T. The dwarf character is represented by t. T is dominant over small t. A homozygous tall plant is represented by TT. A heterozygous tall plant is represented by Tt. A dwarf plant is represented by tt
After the crossing of heterozygous Tt plants, ¼ TT ,½ Tt ,¼ tt plants are observed. Hence, 50% of plants are heterozygous tall ( Tt) ,25% of plants homozygous tall ( TT) , and 25% plants are homozygous dwarf ( tt) . The genetic cross is explained in the image.
Hence, the correct answer is ¼ represents 25% of the offspring in a genetic cross. First option is the correct answer.
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A segment of dna on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait is called
A gene represents a segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait. Each gene provides the instructions to construct a unique protein that contributes to the body's functioning. Differences in genes contribute to our unique traits.
Explanation:Genes are the fundamental units of heredity and contain the instructions for the synthesis of proteins or functional RNA molecules that ultimately determine various traits and characteristics in an organism. Each gene provides the instructions or codes necessary to construct a specific protein that contributes to the body's functioning. To understand it better, view DNA as a cookbook and genes as the recipes, with each recipe producing a different dish (in this case, protein), each contributing to the health and functioning of the body. Differences in genes are what make us unique, as these small differences influence traits such as eye color, hair color, height, and potential susceptibility to certain diseases.
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Recall the three discoveries Erwin Chargaff made while studying DNA: the total amount of pyrimidines (T+C) equals the total amount of purines (A+G), the amount of T equals the amount of A, and the amount of G equals the amount of C. These three "rules" led to what conclusion(s) about DNA base pairing?
A purine base pairs with a pyrimidine base.
A pairs with T.
G pairs with C.
All of the answer options are correct.
None of the answer options is correct.
Answer:
All of the answer options are correct.
Explanation:
Chargaff contributed in understanding the structure and composition of DNA with his discoveries. He discovered that purine and pyrimidine bases are in equal amounts in a DNA molecule. He also discovered that amount of Adenine base (A) is equal to amount of Thymine base (T). It means that A pairs with T. Since A is a purine and T is a pyrimidine it also implies that purine base pairs with a pyrimidine base. This conclusion can also be arrived by taking in consideration the other base pair which is G (purine) and C (pyrimidine).
A model of DNA replication in which the parental DNA molecule is maintained and the daughter DNA molecule contains two newly synthesized strands of DNA is called ____________ replication. Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer:
Semi-Conservative
Explanation:
After DNA replication, the parental DNA molecule contains two original DNA strands while the daughter molecule is composed of two newly synthesized strands. In this model, the two DNA strands in the parental molecule separate from each other and serve as templates for the synthesis of daughter strands.
The correct model of DNA replication where the parental molecule is preserved and the daughter molecule contains two new strands is called conservative replication. However, the scientifically supported model is the semi-conservative replication, where each daughter DNA molecule includes one old and one new DNA strand.
A model of DNA replication where the parental DNA molecule is preserved and the daughter DNA molecule comprises entirely new synthesized strands is called conservative replication. However, the correct model supported by the Meselson-Stahl experiment is semi-conservative replication, in which each new DNA molecule consists of one old (parental) strand and one new strand. The other model mentioned, dispersive replication, proposed that new DNA molecules would have mixed segments of old and new DNA, but this was not supported by experimental evidence.
In semi-conservative replication, the parental DNA helix unwinds, and each strand then serves as a template for a new complementary strand. Once replication is completed, each resulting DNA molecule consists of one parental and one newly synthesized strand. Therefore, the semi-conservative method ensures that each daughter cell receives one old and one new DNA strand.
Transcription:
1. Transcription is the copying of a
(section of DNA).
Transcription is the biological process of copying DNA into RNA, where an enzyme called RNA polymerase synthesizes a complementary RNA strand from a DNA template.
Transcription is a fundamental biological process where genetic information encoded by DNA is transferred to RNA. In this process, known as DNA-dependent RNA synthesis, RNA polymerase creates a complementary RNA sequence from a template strand of DNA. Only one of the two strands of DNA is used during transcription, which is divided into three main stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. The RNA that is synthesized may carry the genetic information out of the nucleus to facilitate protein synthesis during a process called translation.
During transcription, uracil is substituted for thymine when RNA nucleotides pair with the DNA template strand. This is because RNA uses uracil instead of thymine, which is found in DNA. The outcome is a primary transcript of RNA that serves as the coding sequence for protein construction at the ribosome.
Which component of blood allows oxygen from the air to move from the lungs to cells of the body
Answer:
hemoglobin
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Red blood cells, with the help of hemoglobin, transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells, and facilitate the movement of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction. Oxygen binds to hemoglobin within the red blood cells which are then circulated through the body by the cardiovascular system.
The component of blood that allows oxygen to move from the lungs to the cells of the body is the erythrocyte, or red blood cell. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, a protein that can bind oxygen molecules. During external respiration, oxygen enters the alveoli in the lungs, where it is then diffused into the blood which is carried by the pulmonary capillaries. The oxygen molecules are picked up by hemoglobin within the red blood cells. This oxygen-rich blood, now bright red in color, is transported via the pulmonary veins back to the heart and then pumped to the rest of the body through systemic circulation. The systemic circulation provides oxygen and nutrients to body tissues and picks up waste materials such as carbon dioxide, which diffuses from body cells back into the capillaries and is eventually expelled from the lungs.
After resupplying the body cells with oxygen, the now deoxygenated blood, which carries carbon dioxide, returns to the heart and then to the lungs. During exhalation, carbon dioxide is released into the air completing the gas exchange cycle. Thus, red blood cells and hemoglobin are essential for transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.
metalloids are useful as semiconductors in modern electrons, like smartphones. Which feature of a smartphone is made possible by metalloids
Answer:
Small Size
Explanation:
Answer:
small size
Explanation:
edgenuity test
Hello can anyone help on this? Thank you If you can.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
If the rock is on top it will be more resistant to erosion since water and other elements wont be able to reach it
In what way(s) can mRNAs be processed? In what way(s) can mRNAs be processed? By adding caps and tails to the ends of the mRNAs By removing the introns (the noncoding regions) of the mRNAs By splicing the exons (the coding regions) of the mRNAs in different ways All of the above are ways in which mRNAs can be processed
Answer:
All of the above are ways in which mRNA can be processed.Explanation:
DNA is transcribed into pre-mRNA which is further processed into mature mRNA. mRNA be processed by various ways: as at the 5' end of RNA, addition of capping occurs, and at the 3' end, there is addition of large number of adenosine ( approx 200), known as polyadenylation.
RNA splicing is the process of removal of introns and of addition of exons, through which only coding sequences (exons) remain in the mature mRNA and non coding regions(intron) are removed.
Alternative splicing may produced various type of mRNA from a single type of pre- mRNA.
All of the steps mentioned—capping, removal of introns, and alternative splicing—are essential processes involved in mRNA processing. These modifications prepare the mRNA for stability, translation, and efficient functioning. Thus, the correct response is all of the above.
mRNAs undergo a series of important modifications before they are ready for translation. These post-transcriptional modifications ensure the mRNA is stable, correctly formatted, and capable of being effectively translated into proteins. The main processing steps include:
Addition of a 5' cap: A 5' methylguanosine cap is added to the beginning (5' end) of the mRNA. This cap protects the mRNA from degradation and is vital for the ribosome binding required for translation. Splicing: This involves removing introns, which are non-coding regions of the mRNA. Exons, the coding regions, are then joined together. This process is executed by spliceosome complexes.Addition of a poly-A tail: A sequence of adenine nucleotides is added to the 3' end of the mRNA. This poly-A tail aids in the export of the mRNA from the nucleus and enhances stability and translation efficiency.In summary, all these steps—capping, splicing, and polyadenylation—are crucial for processing mRNA before it can be used in protein synthesis.
Plants that have a single cotyledon in their seed are classified as what?
dicots
monocots
angiosperms
gymnosperms
Answer:
Monocots
Explanation:
Species with one cotyledon are called monocotyledonous (or, "monocots") and placed in the Class Liliopsida.
A series of studies on mutants of Neurospora identified three classes of mutants that needed arginine added to minimal media in order to grow. The production of arginine includes the following steps: precursor → ornithine → citrulline → arginine. What nutrient(s) have to be supplied to the mutants that had a defective enzyme for the ornithine → citrulline step in order to grow?
a. the precursor
b. citrulline
c. the precursor, ornithine, and citrulline
d. either ornithine or citrulline
e. ornithine
Answer: Citrulline, Option B
Explanation:
The sequence of the formation of arginine is as follows. Precursor → ornithine → citrulline → arginine.
If there is a defective enzyme for ornithine then there will no production of citrulline or lesser production of citrulline which ultimately will affect arginine production.
So, the compound citrulline should be provided so that the production process can continue. Ornithine if not present then citrulline can alone produce arginine.
So, the correct answer is option B
The initial laboratory results for a primigravida indicate a hemoglobin of 12 grams/dL, hematocrit of 36%, and a blood group and type of A, Rh-negative. What would be the priority nursing action to promote a healthy pregnancy for this client and her fetus? A. Suggest an iron supplement in addition to prenatal vitamins B. Plan to determine the blood type of the infant after delivery C. Provide information on weight gain during pregnancy D. Encourage the client to eat more dark-green leafy vegetables
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The normal hemoglobin and hematocrit level of a pregnant women is 12–16 g/dL and 36–46%.
Hence, as the given pregnant women has hemoglobin and hematocrit level under the normal range without any other deficiency, the nursing action will be to determine the blood type of the infant after delivery.
All the other given options are provided under some deficiencies.
Hence, the correct option is B.
An example of the role of cultural practices shaping natural selection on genes that affect human health concerns
a. sufferer's nerves
b. lactose intolerance
c. sucrose intolerance
d. none of the above
Answer:
The correct answer here is D) None of the above
Explanation:
Lactose intolerance and sucrose intolerance in themselves are not practices but side effects of practices that affect health concerns.
For instance, research shows that cultures with a long history of dairy farming and milk drinking or at least a history of drinking milk have a much higher likelihood to be lactose tolerant than those who don't. And when they can tolerate lactose their bodies take note of this and records the same in their genetic databank.
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