Answer:
5.2%
Explanation:
The computation of growth rate is shown below:-
Retained earning = (Expected dividend for the next year ÷ Current price of the stock) + Growth rate
15% = ($2.5 ÷ $25.5) + Growth rate
0.15 = $0.0980 + Growth rate
Growth rate = 0.15 - $0.0980
= $0.052
or
= 5.2%
So, for computing the growth rate we simply applied the above formula.
Aces Inc., a manufacturer of tennis rackets, began operations this year. The company produced 6,800 rackets and sold 5,700. Each racket was sold at a price of $98. Fixed overhead costs are $93,840 and fixed year selling and administrative costs are $66,000. The company also reports the following per unit costs for the Variable production costs Variable selling and administrative expensesS 280 $25.80 Required: Prepare an income statement under variable costing ACES INC
Answer and Explanation:
The preparation of an income statement under variable costing is shown below:-
Income statement under variable costing
ACES INC
Sales $558,600
(5,700 × $98)
Less:
Cost of goods sold
Variable product cost $147,060
($25.80 × 5,700)
variable selling administrative
expenses ($2.80 × 5,700) $15,950
Less: Total variable cost $163,020
Contribution margin $395,580
Less: Fixed overhead cost $93,840
Less: Fixed and selling
administrative expenses $66,000
Net income $235,740
To prepare a variable costing income statement for ACES INC., calculate the sales revenue, subtract the sum of variable production and selling costs, and then subtract total fixed costs to get the net income, which is $61,300.
Variable Costing Income Statement for ACES INC.
To create an income statement under variable costing for ACES INC., we need to account for all variable costs and exclude fixed manufacturing overhead from the cost of goods sold. Here is how you can calculate it:
Sales Revenue: To calculate sales revenue, we multiply the number of rackets sold by the price per racket: 5,700 rackets × $98 = $558,600.
Variable Costs: The total variable production costs are the per unit cost ($28) times the number of units produced: 6,800 rackets × $28 = $190,400.
The variable selling and administrative expenses are the per unit cost ($25.80) times the number of units sold: 5,700 rackets × $25.80 = $147,060.
Contribution Margin: To calculate the contribution margin, subtract the total variable costs from the sales revenue: $558,600 - ($190,400 + $147,060) = $221,140.
Fixed Costs: The total fixed costs are the sum of fixed overhead costs and fixed selling and administrative costs: $93,840 + $66,000 = $159,840.
Net Income: To calculate the net income, subtract total fixed costs from the contribution margin: $221,140 - $159,840 = $61,300.
When comparing levered versus unlevered capital structures, leverage works to increase EPS for high levels of EBIT because interest payments on the debt: A. vary with EBIT levels. B. stay fixed, leaving less income to be distributed over fewer shares. C. stay fixed, leaving more income to be distributed over fewer shares. D. stay fixed, leaving less income to be distributed over more shares.
Answer:
C. Stay fixed, leaving more income to be distributed over fewer shares.
Explanation:
Levered cash flow is of interest to investors because it indicates how much cash a business has to expand.
These capital structures are said to appear on balance sheet.
The difference between the levered and unlevered free cash flow is also an important indicator. The difference shows how many financial obligations the business has and if the business is overextended or operating with a healthy amount of debt. It is possible for a business to have a negative levered cash flow if its expenses exceed its earnings.
Q 7.27: A large furniture store has several sales clerks who ring up sales for customers and receive cash. At the end of the day, the clerks tally their cash register drawer and take the cash and checks to the cashier. The shift supervisor collects all of the cash register tapes at the end of each shift and sends it to the accounting department. Which cash receipt control is the company implementing?
Answer: Separation of duties.
Explanation:
This question might have options that were not posted along with it however, I shall give the most likely answer.
Separation of duties is an accounting method that aims to prevent unethical accounting practices such as fraud. It is simply done by assigning to different people, various roles in the accounting process.
In the above scenario, sales clerks ring up the sales and receive cash and take it to the cashier, while the shift supervisor takes the cash register tapes to the accounting department.
Minmax Co.'s direct labor information for February is as follows: Direct labor hours worked (AQ) 35,600 Standard direct labor hours for units manufactured (SQ) 38,000 Unfavorable direct labor rate variance $ 17,800 Total payroll for direct labor $ 427,200 The direct labor efficiency variance in February (to the nearest dollar) was:
Answer:
$27,600 unfavorable
Explanation:
In order to calculated labor efficiency variance which is standard cost of actual hours less standard cost, first compute standard rate as shown below:
Unfavorable direct labor rate variance = $17,800
Unfavorable direct labor rate variance = Actual rate - standard rate × Actual hours
Actual rate = Total payroll for direct labor ÷ Direct labor hours (AQ)
= 427,200 ÷ 35,600
= $12 per unit
Substituting the values in the above formula:
17,800 = (12 - SR) × 35,600
SR = $11.5
Now calculate Standard cost of actual hours = Direct labor hours × SR
= 35,600 × 11.5
= $409,400
Standard cost = Standard direct hours × SR
= 38,000 × 11.5
= $437,000
Direct labor efficiency variance = Standard actual of actual hours - Standard cost
= 409,400 - 437,000
= - $27,600 or $27,600 unfavorable
Final answer:
The direct labor efficiency variance for Minmax Co. in February was a $27,600 unfavorable variance, calculated using the actual direct labor rate and standard rates derived from the provided information on total payroll and variance.
Explanation:
To calculate the direct labor efficiency variance, we need the standard cost per hour for direct labor. Given the Total payroll for direct labor ($427,200) and the actual labor hours (AQ) of 35,600, we can find the actual rate per hour by dividing the total payroll by the hours worked:
Actual Rate (AR) = Total Payroll / AQ = $427,200 / 35,600 hours = $12 per hour
Since we have the Unfavorable direct labor rate variance ($17,800) and know it is calculated as (AR - SR) * AQ, we can rearrange this to find the Standard Rate (SR):
SR = AR - (Unfavorable rate variance / AQ)
SR = $12 - ($17,800 / 35,600 hours) = $12 - $0.5 = $11.50 per hour
The standard direct labor hours (SQ) for the units manufactured are given as 38,000 hours. With the SR and SQ, we can calculate the direct labor efficiency variance:
Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = (AQ - SQ) * SR = (35,600 hours - 38,000 hours) * $11.50 per hour = -$27,600
This variance is unfavorable because the AQ is less than the SQ, indicating less efficiency. Therefore, the direct labor efficiency variance in February was a $27,600 unfavorable variance.
A corporate bond is quoted at a price of 103.16 ($1031.60) and carries a 5.20 percent coupon. The bond pays interest semiannually. What is the current yield on one of these bonds
Answer:
6.30 percent
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question. For we to calculate the current yield of one of the bond, we have to use the following procedure
Current yield = ( 0.065×$1,000)/(1.0316 × $ 1,000)
Current yield = 65 / 1,031.6
Current yield = 0.063008918185343× 100%
Current yield = 6.30percent approximately.
Answer:
5.04%
Explanation:
Current yield is the ratio of coupon payment of a bond to its current market price. It is calculated by using coupon payment and the current market value of the bond.
Coupon Payment = $1,000 x 5.2% = $52
Formula for Current yield is as follow
Current Yield = Annual Coupon Payment / Current Market Price
Current Yield = $52 / $1,031.60
Current Yield = 5.04%
Organic Specialties sells organic mixes for soups. The company produces 5,000 packages per day. The total variable cost for making one bag of Organic split pea soup is $3. The average fixed cost per bag is $.90. The company charges $6.50 per bag and earns a 40 percent profit. Calculate the break-even point in units.
Answer:
Break even point in units is 12858 units.
Explanation:
The break even point in units is the number of units that are needed to be sold by the company to earn enough total revenue to cover its total costs. It is a point of no profit and no loss. The break even point is calculated as follows,
Break even point in units = Total fixed costs / Contribution per unit
Where,
Contribution per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit
Total fixed costs per day = 0.9 * 5000 = $45000
Contribution per unit = 6.5 - 3 = $3.5
Break even in units = 45000 / 3.5 = 12857.14 units rounded off to 12858 units
In the United States, one worker can produce 10 tons of steel per day or 20 tons of chemicals per day. In the United Kingdom, one worker can produce 5 tons of steel per day or 15 tons of chemicals per day. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. U.S. wages will be higher than U.K. wages. b. U.K. wages will be higher than U.S. wages. c. Wages in the United States and the United Kingdom will be equal. d. There will be no relationship between U.S. and U.K. wages.
Answer:
a. U.S. wages will be higher than U.K. wages.
Explanation:
Wages, which are the factor price for labor, depend on the marginal productivity of labor.
In other words, workers are paid in proportion to the amount of additional output they produce.
In this case, the marginal productivity of a U.S. worker (10 tons of steel, or 20 tons of chemicals) is higher than the marginal productivity of an U.K. worker (5 tons of steel or 15 tons of chemicals), for this reason, the U.S. worker will be paid more than the U.K. worker.
Final answer:
The correct statement is: b. U.K. wages will be higher than U.S. wages. Explanation of why U.K. wages will be higher than U.S. wages based on comparative advantage in production.
Explanation:
To determine this, we can calculate the opportunity cost of producing steel for each country. Since the U.K. has a lower opportunity cost of producing steel compared to the U.S., it implies that the U.K. is more efficient in steel production, leading to higher wages in the U.K. for steel production.
Similarly, the same reasoning can be applied to the production of chemicals, where the U.S. will have lower wages for chemical production due to its higher opportunity cost compared to the U.K.The calculation of future worker productivity levels between Canada and the United Kingdom requires us to apply the concept of compound growth to their respective hourly productivity rates, which start at $30 per hour for Canada and $25 per hour for the UK. With Canada's productivity growing at a rate of 1% per year and the UK's at 3% per year, the formula to calculate the future productivity level of each country after five years is: Future Value = Present Value * (1 + growth rate)^number of periods.
Canfield Technical School allocates administrative costs to its respective departments based on the number of students enrolled, while maintenance and utilities are allocated per square feet of the classrooms. Based on the information below, what is the total amount of administrative cost to the Accounting Department (rounded to the nearest dollar) if administrative costs for the school were $50,000, maintenance fees were $12,000, and utilities were $6,000?Department Students ClassroomsElectrical 120 10,000 sq. ft.Welding 70 12,000 sq. ft.Accounting 50 8,000 sq. ft.Carpentry 40 6,000 sq. ft.Total 280 36,000 sq. ft.$8,929.$17,000.$18,500.$22,667.$11,111.
Answer:
The total amount of administrative cost to the Accounting Department is $ 14,900.
Explanation:
In order to calculate the total amount of administrative cost to the Accounting Department, first we need to calculate the Utilization Ratio of the particulars, using the following formua:
Utilization Ratio=(Total amount particular/Utilised by accounting department)
Hence, the Utilization Ratio of Administration costs =(50/280)
=0.178
the Utilization Ratio of Maintenance fee =(12,000/36,000)=0.33
the Utilization Ratio of Utilities=(12,000/36,000)=0.33
Therefore, the total amount of administrative cost to the Accounting Department=(0.178×$50,000)+(0.33×$12,000)+(0.33×$6,000)
=$8,900+$4,000+$2,000
=$14,900
You own 260 shares of Abco, Inc. stock. The company has stated that it plans on issuing a dividend of $.50 a share at the end of this year and then You own 260 shares of Abco, Inc. stock. The company has stated that it plans on issuing a dividend of $.50 a share at the end of this year and then issuing a final liquidating dividend of $2.10 a share at the end of next year. Your required rate of return on this security is 11 percent. Ignoring taxes, what is the value of one share of this stock today?issuing a final liquidating dividend of $2.10 a share at the end of next year. Your required rate of return on this security is 11 percent. Ignoring taxes, what is the value of one share of this stock today?
Answer:
The answer is $2.15.
Explanation:
The value of one share of this stock today is the sum of present value of future cash flows earned from holding the stock; discounting at required rate of return 11%.
By holding the stock, there are two cash flows earned by shareholders which are:
+ Dividend of $.50 a share at the end of this year whose present value is: 0.5/1.11 = $0.45;
+ Liquidating dividend of $2.10 a share at the end of next year whose present value is: 2.1/1.11^2 = $1.70
=> Value of the stock = 0.45 + 1.70 = $2.15.
So, the answer is $2.15.
Shannon Company segments its income statement into its North and South Divisions. The company’s overall sales, contribution margin ratio, and net operating income are $960,000, 34%, and $19,200, respectively. The North Divisions contribution margin and contribution margin ratio are $121,600 and 38%, respectively. The South Division’s segment margin is $140,800. The company has $211,200 of common fixed expenses that cannot be traced to either division.Required:
Prepare an income statement for Shannon Company that uses the contribution format and is segmented by divisions.
Final answer:
The segmented income statement for Shannon Company shows a total net operating income of $19,200. The North Division has a segment margin of $121,600, while the South Division's segment margin is $140,800, after accounting for sales, variable expenses, and traceable fixed expenses.
Explanation:
Shannon Company Segmented Income Statement
Overall Company:
Total Sales: $960,000
Less: Variable Expenses (66% of Sales): $633,600
Contribution Margin (34% of Sales): $326,400
Less: Common Fixed Expenses: $211,200
Net Operating Income: $19,200
North Division:
Sales (Calculated as Contribution Margin / Contribution Margin Ratio): $320,000
Less: Variable Expenses (62% of North Division Sales): $198,400
Contribution Margin (38% of North Division Sales): $121,600
Less: Traceable Fixed Expenses (Calculated as North Division Contribution Margin - Segment Margin): $0
Segment Margin: $121,600
South Division:
Sales (Calculated as Total Sales - North Division Sales): $640,000
Less: Variable Expenses (Calculated as Total Variable Expenses - North Division Variable Expenses): $435,200
Contribution Margin (Calculated as Total Contribution Margin - North Division Contribution Margin): $204,800
Less: Traceable Fixed Expenses (Calculated as South Division Contribution Margin - Segment Margin): $64,000
Segment Margin: $140,800
On January 1, Grouper Corp. had 61,600 shares of no-par common stock issued and outstanding. The stock has a stated value of $4 per share. During the year, the following transactions occurred. Apr. 1 Issued 12,150 additional shares of common stock for $13 per share. June 15 Declared a cash dividend of $1.65 per share to stockholders of record on June 30. July 10 Paid the $1.65 cash dividend. Dec. 1 Issued 5,400 additional shares of common stock for $13 per share. Dec. 15 Declared a cash dividend on outstanding shares of $1.75 per share to stockholders of record on December 31. (a) Prepare the entries, if any, on each of the three dates that involved dividends.
Answer:
June 15
Dr Cash dividend 121,690
Cr Dividend payable 121,690
July 10
Dr Dividend payable 121,690
Cr Cash 121,690
Dec.15
Dr Cash dividend 138,513
Cr Dividend payable 138,513
Explanation:
Grouper Corp Journal entries
Date Accounts titles and Explanation Debit ($) Credit ($)
June 15
Dr Cash dividend 121,690
Cr Dividend payable 121,690
[($61,600+$12,150)*$1.65]
July 10
Dr Dividend payable 121,690
Cr Cash 121,690
Dec.15
Dr Cash dividend 138,513
Cr Dividend payable 138,513
[(61,600+12,150+5,400)*1.75]
As the only store to design and sell curtains in the suburb of Oakland, the merchandise sold by Plush Parade is overpriced. Noticing this, Diana's Draperies sets up a showroom in the same suburb, reasoning that with lower prices, they would be able to attract more customers. Diana's Draperies is Plush Parade's _____.
A. partner
B. distributor
C. competitor
D. processor
E. franchiser
Answer: (C) Competitor
Explanation:
According to the given question, Diana's Draperies is basically plush parade's competitors as Diana's Draperies noticing the business of Plush Parade that they designing and then selling the curtains to the customers.
So, they started the same business of Curtains designing and by using the business strategy they start selling the same product at lower price for the purpose of attracting the customers or users in the market.
The competitors is the rival of each other in the business and they usually offering the same products in the market for attracting the consumers in low price for establishing their business.
Therefore, Option (C) is correct answer.
Why might a commercial real estate investor borrow to help finance an investment even if she could afford to pay 100 percent cash? (which is most correct) Group of answer choices Keep leverage low thus reduce risk. increase the rate of return investors earn on their invested equity. Mattress feels better with cash inside Want to keep my money for a rainy day
Answer:
The answer is B. Increase the rate of return investors earn on their invested equity
Explanation:
The correct answer is Option B. Increase the rate of return investors earn on their invested equity
Borrowing refers to the use of financial leverage. If the overall return on the commercial real estate exceeds the cost of debt, the use of borrowed fund can increase the rate of return investors earn.
Portfolio diversification is also one of the benefits to be derived from this.
Suppose that the exchange rate between the dollar and the euro was euro0.879 per dollar in December 2018 and euro0.900 per dollar in December 2019. From December 2018 to December 2019, the euro:
A. appreciated against the dollar because more euros are needed to purchase one dollar.
B. appreciated against the dollar because fewer euros are needed to purchase one dollar.
C. depreciated against the dollar because more euros are needed to purchase one dollar.
D. depreciated against the dollar because fewer euros are needed to purchase one dollar.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Suppose that the exchange rate between the dollar and the euro was euro0.879 per dollar in December 2018 and euro0.900 per dollar in December 2019. From December 2018 to December 2019, the euro: depreciated against the dollar because more euros are needed to purchase one dollar.
If you needed 0.879 euro in December 2018 in December 2019 you need 0.900 euro which means you need more euro to buy the dollar
It announces that it plans to pay dividends of $1 per share exactly three years from now and $2 per share exactly four years from now. From year 5 onwards, dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 10% per year. The company pays no dividends in years one and two. The risk-free rate is 5%, the company's beta is 1.5 and the expected return on the market is 11%. Calculate the price of this stock at time period 4, P4
The Question is incomplete.
The complete question is as follows:
It announces that it plans to pay dividends of $1 per share exactly three years from now and $2 per share exactly four years from now. From year 5 onwards, dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 10% per year. The company pays no dividends in years one and two. The risk-free rate is 5%, the company's beta is 1.5 and the expected return on the market is 11%. Calculate the price of this stock today
Answer:
Price of stock = $34.42
Explanation:
The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return.
Required rate of return
Using the CAPM , the rate of return on equity can be determined as follows:
E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)
E(r) =? , Rf- 5%, Rm- 11%, β- 1.5
Ke = 5% + 1.5× (11-5)%
= 14%
Present value of Dividends(PV)
Year PV
3 $1.00, × (1.14^(-3) = 0.6749
4 $2.00× 1.14^(-4) = 1.18416
5 and beyond
This will be done in two (2) steps as follows:
PV in year 4 = (2 × 1.10) /(0.14-0.1) = 55
PV in year 0 = 55× 1.14^(-4) = 32.56
Price of stock
= 0.6749 + 1.18416 + 32.56
= $34.423
what is code of conduct in hospitality?
Swift Delivery is a small company that transports business packages between New York and Chicago. It operates a fleet of small vans that moves packages to and from a central depot within each city and uses a common carrier to deliver the packages between the depots in the two cities. Swift Delivery recently acquired approximately $4 million of cash capital from its owners, and its president, George Hay, is trying to identify the most profitable way to invest these funds. Todd Payne, the company’s operations manager, believes that the money should be used to expand the fleet of city vans at a cost of $900,000. He argues that more vans would enable the company to expand its services into new markets, thereby increasing the revenue base. More specifically, he expects cash inflows to increase by $325,000 per year. The additional vans are expected to have an average useful life of four years and a combined salvage value of $100,000. Operating the vans will require additional working capital of $50,000, which will be recovered at the end of the fourth year. In contrast, Oscar Vance, the company’s chief accountant, believes that the funds should be used to purchase large trucks to deliver the packages between the depots in the two cities. The conversion process would produce continuing improvement in operating savings and reduce cash outflows as follows: Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 $ 175,000 $ 375,000 $ 450,000 $ 500,000 The large trucks are expected to cost $1,000,000 and to have a four-year useful life and a $81,250 salvage value. In addition to the purchase price of the trucks, up-front training costs are expected to amount to $20,000. Swift Delivery’s management has established a 10 percent desired rate of return. (PV of $1 and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Required a.&b. Determine the net present value and present value index for each investment alternative. (Enter answers in whole dollar, not in million. Round your intermediate calculations and final answers to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Net Present Value (NPV): It the distinction among the initial cash outflow and the present value of cash inflows. It assists in making project investment conclusion. A positive NPV means that the project should be accepted and if it is on negative swing then it should be rejected. Projects with upper NPV should be accepted in case of two mutually exclusive projects having positive net present value.
Use spreadsheet for the required computations. Enter values and formulas in the spreadsheet as shown in the image below.
Swift Delivery must calculate the net present value and present value index for both the option of investing in more vans and the option of purchasing trucks for inter-city deliveries. These calculations will enable them to determine which option is the more profitable one.
Explanation:To determine which investment would be more profitable for Swift Delivery, we need to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) for both options. NPV is the present value of future cash inflows minus the present value of cash outflows, all calculated at a desired rate of return.
Investment in Vans
To calculate the NPV for Todd Payne's proposal, we take the present value of new cash inflows, the present value of the salvage value of the vans, and subtract the cost of the vans and the working capital needed.
Investment in Trucks
For Oscar Vance's plan, we calculate the present value of the operational savings, add the present value of the salvage value of the trucks, then subtract the cost of the trucks and the upfront training costs.
The investment with the higher NPV is the more profitable one. The Present Value Index (PVI) is calculated by dividing the present value of future net cash inflows by the initial investment. The investment with the higher PVI is the one that gives more return per unit of currency invested.
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Elmdale Company has a machine that affixes labels to bottles. The machine has a book value of $80,000 and a remaining useful life of 3 years and no salvage value. A new, more efficient machine is available at a cost of $300,000 that will have a 5-year useful life with no salvage value. The new machine will lower annual variable production costs from $520,000 to $410,000. Prepare an analysis showing whether the old machine should be retained or replaced.
Answer and Explanation:
The preparation of the analysis showing whether the old machine should be retained or replaced is presented below:
Particulars Retained equipment Replace equipment Change in the net income
Variable cost $1,560,000 $1,230,000 $330,000
($520,000 × 3 years) ($410,000 × 3 years)
Cost of the new
machine $300,000 -$300,000
Net change $30,000
As we can see the amount comes in positive which reflects that the machine should be replaced
A brand of shoes costs $29.00 to manufacture in Omaha, Nebraska. The shoes are then shipped to shoe stores across the country. When you see them on the shelves, the price is $69.99. How do you think the price you pay for the sneakers is determined? Use percent to describe the markup. Explain your reasoning.
Answer:
90.00
Explanation:
The management of Blue Spruce Corp. asks your help in determining the comparative effects of the FIFO and LIFO inventory cost flow methods. For 2022, the accounting records show these data. Inventory, January 1 (10,000 units) $ 30,000 Cost of 123,000 units purchased 419,000 Selling price of 100,000 units sold 765,000 Operating expenses 121,000 Units purchased consisted of 38,000 units at $3.20 on May 10; 57,000 units at $3.40 on August 15; and 28,000 units at $3.70 on November 20. Income taxes are 28%. (a) Prepare comparative condensed income statements for 2022 under FIFO and LIFO.
Answer:
Comparative condensed income statements for 2022
LIFO FIFO
Sales 765,000 765,000
Less Cost of Sales (345,400) (327,400)
Gross Profit 419,600 437,600
Less Expenses:
Operating expenses 121,000 121,000
Operating Income before tax 298,600 316,600
Less Income tax (28,608) (88,648)
Operating Income after tax 269,992 227,952
Explanation:
Calculation of Cost of Sales - LIFO
Cost of Sales : 28,000 units×$3.70 = 103,600
57,000 units×$3.40 = 193,800
15,000 units×$3.20 = 48,000
Total =345,400
Calculation of Cost of Sales - FIFO
Cost of Sales : 10,000 units×$3.00 = 30,000
38,000 units×$3.20 = 121,600
52,000 units×$3.40 = 175,800
Total = 327,400
Flyaway Travel Company reported net income for 2021 in the amount of $101,000. During 2021, Flyaway declared and paid $3,225 in cash dividends on its nonconvertible preferred stock. Flyaway also paid $21,000 cash dividends on its common stock. Flyaway had 51,000 common shares outstanding from January 1 until 21,000 new shares were sold for cash on April 1, 2021. What is 2021 basic earnings per share
Answer:
The basic EPS for Flyaway in 2021 is $1.4648 per share
Explanation:
The basic earnings per share or basic EPS is the amount of earnings that are allocable to the common stockholders expressed in terms of per share earnings. The basic EPS is calculated by dividing the Net Income after adjusting for preferred stock dividends by the amount of weighted average number of common share outstanding during the Year. Thus, the formula for Basic EPS is,
Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred stock dividends) / Weighted average number of common shares outstanding
Weighted average number of common share outstanding during the year for Flyaway is = 51000 + 21000 * 9/12 = 66750 shares
Basic EPS = (101000 - 3225) / 66750
Basic EPS = $1.4647 per share
M Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing. The following data pertain to its Assembly Department for September. Percent Complete Units Materials Conversion Work in process, September 1 1,900 55 % 10 % Units started into production during September 9,300 Units completed during September and transferred to the next department 8,400 Work in process, September 30 2,800 75 % 25 % Required: Compute the equivalent units of production for both materials and conversion costs for the Assembly Department for September using the weighted-average method.
Answer:
For material = 10,500 units
For conversion = 9,100 units
Explanation:
The computation of the equivalent units of production for both materials and conversion costs is shown below:-
For material = Units completed and transferred to the next department + (Work in process × Material work in progress percentage
= 8,400 + (2,800 × 75%)
= 8,400 + 2,100
= 10,500 units
For conversion = Units completed and transferred to the next department + (Work in process × Conversion work in progress percentage
= 8,400 + (2,800 × 25%)
= 8,400 + 700
= 9,100 units
Therefore we have computed the equivalent units of production for both materials and conversion costs by applying the above formula.
When a firm initiates or increases a cash discount, the net effect on the accounts receivable investment is difficult to determine because the nondiscount takers paying earlier will reduce the accounts receivable investment, while the new customer accounts will increase this investment.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
Yes is True that when a firm initiates or increases a cash discount, the net effect on the accounts receivable investment is difficult to determine because the nondiscount takers paying earlier will reduce the accounts receivable investment, while the new customer accounts will increase this investment.
Explanation:
Accounts Receivable is any amount of money owed by customers for purchases made on credit. It is an asset account on the balance sheet since it is money due in the short run.
As a current asset, Accounts Receivable is an important aspect of a businesses' fundamental analysis used to measures a company's liquidity or ability to cover short-term obligations without additional cash flows.
Accounts receivable Investment will be reduced if the firm initiates or increases a cash discount.
A. True. Offering or increasing cash discounts affects accounts receivable in opposing ways, making it hard to predict the net effect.
The statement is True. When a firm offers or increases a cash discount, it affects the timing and amount of cash inflows. Customers who take advantage of the discount will pay sooner, thus reducing the accounts receivable balance.
However, the firm might also attract new customers who may not take the discount, potentially increasing accounts receivable. These opposing effects make it challenging to predict the net impact on the accounts receivable investment.
Mimi Company is considering a capital investment of $275,000 in new equipment. The equipment is expected to have a 5-year useful life with no salvage value. Depreciation is computed by the straight-line method. During the life of the investment, annual net income and cash inflows are expected to be $25,000 and $80,000, respectively. Mimi's minimum required rate of return is 10%. The present value of 1 for 5 periods at 10% is .621 and the present value of an annuity of 1 for 5 periods at 10% is 3.791.
Required:
Compute each of the following:
a. The cash payback period.
b. The net present value of the total investment.
c. The profitability index.
d. The Internal rate of return.
e. The annual rate of return.
Answer:
Payback Period: 11 Years
Net Present Value: $123,055
Profitability Index: 0.45
Internal rate of return: 53.48%
Annual rate of return: 38.18%
Explanation:
Payback Period:
The Cash Payback Period can be calculated from the following formula, when the cash inflows are even Cash flows:
Payback Period = Investment / Even Cash flow
Here total annual even cash flow = $25,000 + $80,000 = $105,000
By putting values, we have:
Payback Period = $275,000 / $25,000 = 11 Years
Net Present Value:
As we know:
Net present Value = Present Value of Cash inflow - Present Value of Cash Outflow
Here
Present Value of Cash Inflow = Even Cash flow * Annuity Factor
By putting values:
Present Value of Cash Inflow = $105,000 * 3.791 = $398,055
Now Present value of cash outflow which is investment will the same because the money is invested in the year zero.
Which means:
Net present Value = $398,055 - 275,000 = $123,055
Profitability Index:
The profitability Index can be calculated using the following formula:
PI = NPV / Investment
So by putting values, we have:
PI = $123,055 / $275,000 = 0.45
Internal rate of return:
At 10%, NPV is $123,055 so all we have to do is to use a higher cost of capital to find using the formula at the end, the breakeven rate of return at which NPV is zero.
So I choose 20%.
At 20%, annuity factor is 2.990 which is approximately 3.
So
NPV = $125,000 * 3 - $275,000 = $100,000
By putting values in the following formula:
IRR = Lower Percentage + (Higher percentage - Lower percentage) * (NPV at Higher Percentage) / (NPV at lower - NPV at higher)
By putting values, we have:
IRR = 10% + (20% - 10%) * ($100,000) / ($123000 - $100,000)
IRR = 10% + 10% * 4.348 = 53.48%
Annual rate of return:
Annual rate of return can be calculated using the following formula:
Annual rate of return = Earnings Before Interest and tax / Investment
Here
Earnings before interest and tax is $105,000
So by putting formula, we have:
Annual rate of return = $105,000 / $275,000 = 38.18%
The value of the computations will be:
Payback Period = 11 YearsNet Present Value = $123,055Profitability Index = 0.45Internal rate of return = 53.48%Annual rate of return = 38.18%The Payback Period will be calculated as:
Payback Period = Investment / Even Cash flow
Cash flow = $25,000 + $80,000 = $105,000
Payback Period will now be:
= $275,000 / $25,000
= 11 Years
The net present value will be:
= Present Value of Cash inflow - Present Value of Cash Outflow
where,
Present Value of Cash Inflow = Even Cash flow × Annuity Factor
= $105,000 × 3.791
= $398,055
Therefore, the net present value will be:
= $398,055 - 275,000
= $123,055
The profitability index will be:
PI = NPV / Investment
PI = $123,055 / $275,000
= 0.45
The internal rate of return will be:
NPV = ($125,000 × 3) - $275,000
NPV = $375000 - $275000
= $100,000
Therefore, IRR will be:
= Lower Percentage + (Higher percentage - Lower percentage) × (NPV at Higher Percentage) / (NPV at lower - NPV at higher)
IRR = 10% + (20% - 10%) × ($100,000) / ($123000 - $100,000)
= 10% + (10% × 4.348)
= 53.48%
Lastly, the annual rate of return will be:
Annual rate of return = Earnings Before Interest and tax / Investment
Annual rate of return = $105,000 / $275,000 = 38.18%
Therefore, the annual rate of return is 38.18%.
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The importance of managing cash in hand Cash is considered an idle asset because it does not earn interest. Good financial management requires a firm to hold a limited amount of cash, but it is important for the firm to hold sufficient cash so that it can pay its current obligations, maintain its credit rating, and meet its unexpected cash needs. The following statement refers to a type of cash balance. Select the best type of cash balance to complete the sentence: A cash balance is held to allow firms to take advantage of any bargain purchases that might arise. Consider the following case of Columbus Builders Inc.: Imagine that Columbus Builders Inc. is a manufacturing company. Columbus’s board is looking to expand through acquisition and would like to be able to react quickly if an opportunity presents itself. Columbus’s financial managers are making sure that cash is available to use as a down payment to commit to a purchase in the near future. What type of cash balance is this? Precautionary Speculative Compensating Transactions
Answer: 1. Speculative Motive/Balance
2. Speculative Balance
Explanation:
1. A cash balance is held to allow firms to take advantage of any bargain purchases that might arise.
SPECULATIVE MOTIVE.
This is a motive of holding money that enables the holder to take advantage of good deals be it in the stock market or as the scenario portrays, in the goods market.
2. The balance that Columbus has is a Speculative Balance. Like earlier mentioned, this money is kept to ensure that good deals are taken advantage of and seeing as Columbus wants to expand in future, keeping this money on hand ensures that they can react swiftly to secure a deal should an opportunity rear it's head.
If you need any clarification please do react or comment.
Cheers.
Flounder Rides makes bicycles. It has always purchased its bicycle tires from the Balyo Tires at $10 each but is currently considering making the tires in its own factory. The estimated costs per unit of making the tires are as follows:
Direct materials $3
Direct labor $4
Variable manufacturing overhead $1
The company’s fixed expenses would increase by $28,250 per year if managers decided to make the tire. Calculate total relevant cost to make or buy if the company needs 5,810 tires a year.
Answer:
Flounder should buy.
Relevant cost of making $ 74,730
Relevant of buying $58,100
Explanation:
Relevant cost are future incremental cash cost that arise as a direct consequence of a decision.
The relevant costs of making the tires internally are
$
Variable cost of making
(3+4+1)× 5,810 46,480
Incremental fixed cost = 28,250
Total relevant cost 74,730
Relevant cost of buying
External cost × units = 10× 5,810 = $58,100
Flounder Rides should buy as this will save it $16630 i. e (74,730 - 58100)
Which of the following are ways to develop a better social network:
A. Occupy structural holes
B. Invest in monastic endeavors
C. Maximize homophily
D. Invest in relationships that extend your expertise
E. Develop connections with powerful others
Answer:
The ways to develop a better social network is to:
C. Maximize homophily
D. Invest in relationships that extend your expertise
E. Develop connections with powerful others
Explanation:
Maximizing homophily refers to the tendency to have positive ties with individuals who are similar in socially significant ways. Engaging regularly or hanging out with your kind is a good way to develop better social network.
Investing in relationships that extends your expertise is a proactive way of breaking new grounds and connecting with people that are ahead of you in a cordial manner. More like a mentor-mentee approach.
Developing connections with powerful others opens up the gate to the elite social community which will deepen your social network.
During January, LexPro Co., which maintains a perpetual inventory system, recorded the following information pertaining to its inventory:
Unit Total Units
Units Cost Cost On hand
Balance on 1/1 1,000 $1 $1,000 1,000
Purchased on 1/7 600 3 1,800 1,600
Sold on 1/20 900 700
Purchased on 1/25 400 5 2,000 1,100
Under the moving-average method, what amount should LexPro report as inventory at January 31?
Answer:
$3,225
Explanation:
The computation of the amount reported as an ending inventory is shown below:
Date Particulars Units Cost Amount
1 -1 Op Balance 1,000 $1 $1,000
1 -7 Purchases 600 $3 $1,800
Total 1,600 $1.75 $2,800
($2,800 ÷ 1,600 units)
1 -20 COGS 900 $1.75 $1,575
Total 700 $1.75 $1,225
1 -25 Purchases 400 $5 $2,000
Ending inventory 1,100 $2.9318 $3,225
($3,225 ÷ 1,100 units)
We simply added the purchase units with the opening balance and deduct the cost of goods sold units from the opening balance so that the correct ending inventory amount could arrive
Tanning Company analyzes its receivables to estimate bad debt expense. The accounts receivable balance is $284,000 and credit sales are $1,000,000. An aging of accounts receivable shows that approximately 7% of the outstanding receivables will be uncollectible. What adjusting entry will Tanning Company make if Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $2,600 before adjustment?
Answer:
Debit Bad debt expenses with 17,280; and Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts also with $17,280.
Explanation:
Bad expenses = ($284,000 × 7%) - $2,600 = $17,280
The adjusting will be as follows:
Details Dr ($) Cr ($)
Bad debt expenses 17,280
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 17,280
To record the amount estimated to be uncollectible
Answer:
Debit Bad debt expense $17,280
Credit Allowance for doubtful debt $17,280
Explanation:
When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.
To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.
Allowance required = 7% * $284,000
= $19,880
Amount to be adjusted = $19,880 - $2,600
= $17,280
what is the best way to trade market volatility?
Answer:
Two ways: using VIX futures and traded notes or S&P 500 options and neutral investment strategies.
Explanation:
Volatility is a market's tendency to rise or fall sharply within short periods of time. It is usually measured using standard deviation or return on investment. There are several ways to handle market volatility. One is to use exchange-traded instruments, such as VIX future contracts and exchange traded notes. VIX provides real time estimations of greed and fear levels, as well as volatility expectations in the next 30 sessions. The other way is to use S&P 500 options and delta-neural strategies.