Answer:
The answer is epiglottis
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a cartilaginous structure that is part of the larynx, which rises at the time of swallowing while closing the airway, thus preventing food and water from entering the trachea.
The epiglottis is the structure that prevents food or water from entering the trachea. It covers the glottis during swallowing, with assistance from the movement of the larynx and tongue, to protect the respiratory tract. A functional pharynx is essential for maintaining the processes of both digestion and respiration.
Explanation:The Structure Preventing Food or Water from Entering the TracheaThe structure that prevents food or water from entering the trachea is known as the epiglottis. During swallowing, the larynx is pulled upwards and the epiglottis folds down to cover the glottis, which is the opening to the trachea, thus blocking access to the respiratory tract. The backward motion of the tongue aids in this protective action. If material accidentally enters the larynx, it can stimulate a cough reflex, helping to expel the content back into the pharynx, away from the respiratory pathway. The trachea, which leads air to the bronchi and lungs, is protected by this mechanism from the aspiration of food and liquids.
The pharynx simultaneously plays a role in both digestion and respiration. It guides air from the nasal cavity to the larynx and food from the oral cavity to the esophagus. Its function in protecting the airway during swallowing ensures that inhaled air is second in priority to swallowed material. The coordination of these mechanisms is essential for safe eating and breathing.
The region where somatic neurons bind on a skeletal muscle is called:
a) Sarcolemma
b) Plasma membrane
c) Motor end plate
d) Synaptic terminal
e) Synaptic bouton
Answer:
The answer is C: motor end plate.
Explanation:
The region where somatic neurons join a skeletal muscle is known as a motor terminal plate. These plates are formed by an axon and a muscle fiber. Depolarization is produced by a nerve stimulation activating the corresponding muscle; Each muscle has its own motor plate and its corresponding axon.
Give the names of the following body motions produced by muscle actions:
Increases the angel of a joint.
Turns the palm downward.
Decreases the angle of a joint.
Points the toes.
Answer:
Increases the angle of a joint: Extension
Turns the palm downward: Pronation
Decreases the angle of a joint: Flexion
Points the toes (upward): Dorsiflexion
Points the toes (downwards): Plantar flexion
Articulation betwwen the scapula and clavicle
Answer:
The answer to the question: Articulation between the scapula and clavicle, would be: Acromioclavicular joint.
Explanation:
In the human skeleton, the upper limbs are joined together to the torso by a series of joints, or articulations, which are basically the points at which two bones join each other. These articulations allow the bones to be together, while at the same time ensuring that there can be movement without the two bones hitting each other and damaging one another due to friction. The clavicle and the scapula are two such bones that articulate with the head of the humerus, to form the shoulder joint. Without these articulations, there would be no upper limbs at all. The point at which, the scapula, with its acromion, which is its final flap, and the distal end of the clavicle meet together, is called the acromioclavicular joint, in honor of the two bones and the portions of them that articulate.
What is Satiety? what kind of foods tend to give more satiety?)
Answer:
Satiety is the sensation that occurs in the body of not needing food intake. It is a mechanism of stability of the organism where the food that passes through the intestine sends an order to the brain, to report that it does not need more nutrients, information that travels through the vagus nerve or X cranial nerve.
The following are some of the foods that produce more satiety:
- Egg
- potato
- fish
- Oatmeal
- whole grains
Answer:
Explanation:
Satiety is a state in which the person feels the satisfaction of feeding and is not able to consume more. It is a state where the hunger of a person gets suppressed after having a meal. The feeling of satiety will influence a person's diet that is how much a person eat and how soon.
The following kind of foods tend to give more satiety:
1. High in protein and fats: The process of digestion of protein and fats in the body is slow so this will help in keeping the stomach full for long time.
2. High in fiber: The foods containing fibers provide bulk to the food, which helps to feel full for longer and slows down the rate of digestion.
3. High in volume: The foods which contain more water and air also delay digestion.
4. Low in energy density: The foods low in calories typically have a lot of water and fiber which keep the stomach full.
An excitatory neurotransmitter ______ the postsynaptic membrane.
a. depolarizes
b. repolarizes
c. hyperpolarizes
d. does not affect the polarity of
e. moves across channels in
Answer:
Depolarise.
Explanation:
Excitatory post synaptic potential may be defined as the potential that has the ability to fire an action potential. They have an additive effect on the membrane potential.
This post synaptic potential causes the influx of sodium ions and changes the membrane potential towards more negative. They causes the depolarization of the cell.
Thus, the answer is option (a).
An excitatory neurotransmitter a. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. Therefore , a. depolarizes is correct .
When an excitatory neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, it triggers a series of events that lead to a reduction in the membrane's resting potential, making it more likely to generate an action potential.
This depolarization brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold for firing an action potential, enhancing the excitability of the postsynaptic neuron.
In contrast, inhibitory neurotransmitters hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane, making it less likely to fire an action potential by moving the membrane potential further from the threshold.
The intricate balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters is essential for proper neural communication and the regulation of neuronal activity in the nervous system.
Neural communication is a complex process that relies on the precise interaction of neurons through synapses.
The transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at these specialized junctions, and neurotransmitters play a crucial role in this process.
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The external nose functions in :
a. modifying speech vibrations
b. detecting gustatory sensations
c. cooling and drying air entering the respiratory system
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The answer is E: A, B And C are correct.
Explanation:
The external nasal nose, in addition to its support function, presents others such as detecting odors, either from food or toxic substances; It has valves that initially clean the air entering the lungs, in addition to heating it, Also contributes to speech vibrations.
What is the antibody involved in erythroblastosis fetalis?
Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules
Explanation:
Erythroblastosis also called as Hemolytic disease of fetus and the newborn, is a type of alloimmune condition that advance in the peripartum fetus, when the lgG molecule (antigen released and created by plasma B cells) produced by mother body passes through the wall of the placenta. These antibodies attack antigens the RBCs in fetal circulation resulting in the breaking down and also the destroying of the cells (hemolysis). Reticulocytosis and anemia can be developed by the fetus. This fetal disease ranges from mild to very severe (even death).
Under what conditions is the arrector pili muscle stimulated? What part of the brain would produce an efferent signal to this smooth muscle effector?
Answer:
The pili arrector muscle, or erector muscle of the hair, is a muscle composed of smooth muscle fibers which is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). When the hair is erect, what is known as "goosebumps" is produced; This action is involuntary and can be caused by fear, cold, among others. The efferent signals to activate this muscle come from the hypothalamus, brain stem and spinal cord.
What is the role of the trigger zone? What is summation? Explain.
Answer:
Role of trigger zone:
Trigger zone may be defined as the area present between the junction of cell body, axon and axon hillock. This is the area where chemically regulated and voltage regulated gate meets. The depolarization of cell and propagation of action potential occur at this area.
Summation:
Summation may be defined as the additive effect of the electrical impulse on the junction between the muscle cell and nerve cell. The individual stimuli cannot generate a response, but they together can generate an action potential.
Enzymes are:
a. biological catalysts.
b. have peptide nature (proteins).
c. agents that significantly speed up the rate of biochemical reaction.
d. all of the above.
Answer: All of the above.
Explanation:
Enzymes can be defined as the proteins that does nit takes part in the chemical or biochemical reaction but enhances the rate of reaction.
All the enzymes are proteinous in nature and gets denatured at a very high temperature. They are known as catalyst which can increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Hence, all the given options are correct regarding enzymes.
Icd 10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy
Answer:
M 51.1
Explanation:
M or chapter XIII correspond to the musculoskeletical and connective tissue disorders. From M 50-54 are other dorsopathies, M51 are the intervetebral disc disorders.
The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2.
Explanation:The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2. The code M51.2 specifically represents "Other intervertebral disc displacement." It is important to note that ICD-10 codes provide specific classifications for various medical conditions and diagnoses, allowing healthcare providers to accurately document and code patient records.
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The origins of skeletal muscles:
a. represent the attachment to the movable bone
b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
c. is usually far away from the site of action
d. all of the above are correct
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
Explanation:
The origin is the site that doesn't move while muscle contracts. The insertion is the site that does move when the muscle contraction occurs.
The skeletal Muscles in most of the cases have the origin at the attachment to the immovable bones. During contraction, it produces an action or a movement of the appendage.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. is the attachment to the immovable bone.
Pharmacology integrates an understanding of the:
a. transformation of plants and living organisms into effective medications
b. the synthesis of drugs in pharmaceutical laboratories
c. treatment of disease through naturally occurring substances
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Answer:
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Explanation:
Pharmacology involves action, movement and research in use of drugs in living systems. Also regards the effects of substances like caffeine, antibiotics. The sciences studies the process that occur as they come to the body, since any drug will change the internal chemical balances. Bodies will respond. The changes will happen, and thus we develop better drugs
Main applications include:
Searching or discovery of better medicines to fight diseases, preferably reducing side effects. Studying differences among the experiences led by different target populations with the same drugs and other variables.
Pharmacology lies at the heart of biomedical science, linking together chemistry, physiology and pathology. Pharmacologists work closely with a wide variety of other disciplines that make up modern biomedical science, including neuroscience, molecular and cell biology, immunology and cancer biology.
Pharmacological knowledge improves the lives of millions of people across the world. It maximises their benefit and minimises risk and harm
As new diseases emerge, and older medicines - like antibiotics - no longer work as well, the contribution of pharmacology to finding better and safer medicines becomes all the more vital.
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
Answer:
the answer will be delayed cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in immunology. It indicates that the person's immune system has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Explanation:A positive tuberculin skin test is primarily an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in medical terminology. When a person is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, our body's immune system responds. The second time it encounters the same pathogen, the immune response is faster and stronger, which is captured by the tuberculin skin test. When the tuberculin, which contains inactivated tuberculosis bacteria, is injected under the skin, any prior exposure to the bacteria will trigger a reaction. This reaction appears as a hard, raised bump on the skin signifying a positive test.
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differentiate Supraventricular tachycardia vs ventricular tachycardia
Answer:
Ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the beating of ventricles is not controlled by the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is affected in ventricular tachycardia. The main symptoms of this tachycardia are syncope, dizziness and breath.
Supra-ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the electrical signals of heart from the upper chamber interferes with the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is increased in supra-ventricular tachycardia. This tachycardia is more commonly found in woman, infants and smokers.
Which lobe of the cerebrum is involved with vision?
a. frontal
b. occipital
c. temporal
d. insula
Which of the following would interfere most with the ability of an enzyme to catalyze a reaction?
a. Reduced concentration of substrate available
b. Reduced concentration of product available
c. Increased concentration of substrate available
d. A change in the pH
Answer:
d. A change in the pH
Explanation:
Enzymes are defined as biocatalysts that increase the rate of the reactions by decreasing activation energy for those reactions. Most of the enzymes are protein molecules, made up of polymerization of amino acids.
Function of proteins depends on their primary sequence and proper folding. Protein molecules get denatured in unfavorable conditions and they lost their function.
As enzymes are also proteins, change in pH and temperature lead to denaturation of enzyme molecules by changing their active sites (sites where substrate binds).
Hence, from given conditions, change in pH would most affect the ability of enzymes to catalyze a reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
What event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter?
Peristalsis in the Esophagus event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
Explanation:
In the esophagus, there are two types of peristalsis occurs.The first one is a "primary peristaltic wave" occurs through which bolus enters esophagus during swallowing. This "wave pushes the bolus down esophagus", into stomach in a wave lasting about 8–9 seconds.The esophageal sphincter in the lower region is separated by both sympathetic and parasymphathetic nerves. The pathways of vagal are a major for the relaxation of reflex of LES and this occurs in LES relaxations.The gastroesophageal sphincter is triggered to open by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. When food nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, leading to the relaxation and opening of the sphincter, allowing food to pass into the stomach. Absence of food pressure keeps the sphincter shut, preventing the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
Explanation:The gastroesophageal sphincter, which is a ring-like muscle located at the stomach end of the esophagus, plays a crucial role in digestive system functioning. This sphincter is activated by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. In specific, during ingestion, a series of contractions move food towards the stomach. When the food bolus nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, which in turn initiates a short reflex relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter. This relaxation allows the food bolus to pass into the stomach.
When there is no swallowing or food pressuring the sphincter, it remains shut. This close state of the sphincter prevents the contents of the stomach from traveling up the esophagus, thereby preventing acid reflux or commonly known as 'heartburn’.
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It is a clinic where patients with skin ailments are referred to.
a. actinic keratosis
b. biopsy
c. cicatrices
d. dermatitis
e. dermatology
f. keloids
g. pruritus
h. ulcers
i. vesicles
j. emollients
Answer:
e. dermatology
Which of the following ions: K, Cl, or Mg is most similar to the ion trigger for muscles based on its position on the periodic table?
Answer:
Out of K(Potassium), Cl(Chlorine) and Mg(Magnesium) the ion most similar to the ion responsible for trigger for muscles based on its periodic table position is Mg(Magnesium).
Explanation:
Calcium ions are responsible for triggering muscles contraction cycle in the body which binds to troponin (a protein complex of three proteins integral to muscle contraction).
Since, calcium and magnesium belongs to the same block in the periodic table, they have similar chemical properties. So, it is correct to say that Magnesium (Mg) is the most similar ion trigger for muscles activity.
The process of enlisting more and larger motor units to produce a stronger contraction is called: ________
Answer:
The process is called - Motor unit recruitment.
Explanation:
Motor unit recruitment
Motor unit recruitment helps to increase the contractile strength of the muscle by activation of the additional motor units.
A motor unit consists of motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers that are innervated by axon terminal of the motor neuron. The collection of motor units work together to coordinate contractions of single muscle
Now, when a motor neuron gets activated , all the muscle fibers gets innervated by the motor neuron and stimulated and contracts , this activation of the motor neuron will cause the weak muscle contraction.
As a result , activation of more number of motor neurons will cause more activation of muscle fibers and hence, lead to stronger muscle contraction.
The mechanism under the therapeutio effect of lovastatin is:
A. inhbiting COx
B. inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
C. inhibiting thrombin
D. inhibiting Na-"K" ATPase
Answer:
(B). inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a drug, which is used to reduce risk for cardiovascular diseases and to reduce level of cholesterol in blood.
It works by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase (3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase) enzyme, required for the formation of mevalonate from HMG-CoA.
Mevalonate is building block for the biosynthesis of cholesterol. Hence, lovastatin inhibits cholesterol production by inhibiting synthesis of mevalonate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
A muscle spindle is composed of several?
Answer:
The muscle spindle is composed of several intrafusal muscle fibers, consisting of three types: static fibers, dynamic fibers and nuclear chain fibers. Its main function is the transmission of proprioceptive information from the body segments to the cortex, it also generates an environment of functional relaxation of the muscles, thus being responsible for avoiding muscle injuries.
Answer:
A muscle spindle fiber is composed of several specialized thin muscle fibers innervated by sensory neurons.
A muscle spindle consists of the several divided muscle fiber which are enclosed in the spindle-shaped connective tissue sac.
Muscle spindle consists of 5-14 muscle fibers. They are dynamic nuclear bag fiber, nuclear chain fibers and static nuclear bag fibers.
They form the muscles of he body that helps in the movement of the skeletal system and movement of the body.
Calcium channel blockers mechanism of action. True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Calcium channel blockers are NOT a mechanism of action.
The respiratory membrane consists of the following except:
a. alveolar wall
b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane
c. epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall.
d. capillary basement membrane
e. capillary endothelial cells
Answer:
The answer is B: lymphatic vessel basement membrane.
Explanation:
The respiratory menbrana consists of the following elements:
1- A layer of liquid that covers the alveolus and that contains the substances that decrease the surface tension of the alveolar liquid.
2- The alveolar epithelium composed of fine epithelial cells.
3- A basal epithelial menbrana.
4- An interstitial space between the alveolus and the capillary menbrana.
5- A capillary endothelial menbrana.
The respiratory membrane does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure, which makes option b the correct answer to the question.
Explanation:The respiratory membrane consists of the alveolar wall, the epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall, the capillary basement membrane, and capillary endothelial cells. The correct answer to the question 'The respiratory membrane consists of the following except' is option b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane. The respiratory membrane is a blood-air barrier that facilitates the simple diffusion of gases such as the exchange of oxygen and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. It does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure.
The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body's internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. melatonin
d. cortisol
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body´s internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?, would be, C: Melatonin.
Explanation:
The process of sleep and wakefulness, also called the circadian cycle, its a pretty complex system that is controlled by several parts of the brain, but most importantly, structures of the diencephalon (vital is the hypothalamus), the pineal gland, and the stem of the brain. All these structures, and some others, respond to changes both in light perception by the eyes and other senses, heat, and homeostatic balances. These factor play a vital role in telling the human body that it is time for sleep, or to awaken. The pineal gland, as part of this melody, is essential, as it secretes the hormone, melatonin, in response to light changes. Melatonin will balance out the process of sleep, when it is secreted in high quantities by the pineal gland, and wakefulness, when it is no longer secreted in response to the presence of light. This is what is called the circadian cycle.
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
Financial status overall
Location of entries, exits, stairs
Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
Family's understanding of the client's needs
Answer: The answer is; location of entries, exits, and stairs
Explanation:
The RN should always access the home situation before discharging a patient. The RN should take into account where the stairs, exits, etc are in case the patient is unable to get around in the home. If the patient is unable to walk and lives in a 2 story apartment building and can't manage the stairs, other arrangements must be made.
The family's understanding of the client's needs should be given priority consideration, as it directly impacts the client's safety and post-discharge recovery. Option d is correct.
This is because the family's comprehension directly influences the client's safety and adherence to post-hospitalization care plans. Without adequate understanding, the family might not effectively support the client, which could lead to adverse outcomes.Assessing family understanding is vital as it helps ensure they can assist with medication management, recognize signs of potential complications, and provide emotional support. Moreover, involving the family in the discharge planning process fosters a supportive home environment that can significantly impact the client's overall recovery and well-being.While other factors like financial status, home's physical safety aspects (entries, exits, stairs), and proximity to emergency care are also important, the immediate and ongoing understanding of the client's needs by their family is paramount for a smooth transition and recovery.Complete question as follows:
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
a. Financial status overall
b. Location of entries, exits, stairs
c. Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
d. Family's understanding of the client's needs
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesteronde and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Answer:
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesterone and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Explanation:
When the follicular phase begins, estrogen and progesterone levels are low. As a consequence, decomposition and shedding of the upper layers of the uterine lining (endometrium) occurs and menstruation takes place.
The answer is: d. the follicular phase.
Which statement is best to document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way?
a. "The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."
b. "The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."
c. "The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."
d. "The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."
The correct option is b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change.""
To document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way, it is important to describe the observable behaviors without adding interpretations, judgments, or assumptions. The statement in option b simply describes an action that was observed without attributing a motive or characterizing the patient's behavior in a subjective way.
Let's analyze each option:
a. ""The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."" - This statement is biased because it includes an interpretation of the patient's behavior as ""hostile,"" which is a subjective term.
b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."" - This statement is objective and factual, describing a specific behavior without interpretation or judgment.
c. ""The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."" - Similar to option a, this statement uses the subjective term ""rudeness"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is an interpretation rather than a direct observation.
d. ""The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."" - Again, this statement uses a subjective term, ""belligerent,"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is not an unbiased observation.
Therefore, option b is the best choice for documenting the patient's behavior in an unbiased manner. It reports the facts without including personal opinions or interpretations."
A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the ________.
(a) sharing of electrons.
(b) transfer of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) transfer of protons
Answer:
A. sharing electrons
Explanation:
A covalent bond consists of the simultaneous attraction of two nuclei for one or more pairs of electrons.
A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
CHEMICAL BONDING:
Atoms of chemical substances/elements are joined together to form compounds and molecules via chemical bonds. There are different types of chemical bonds that exists between the atoms of elements and they include: covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds etc. Covalent bonds are chemical bonds formed when atoms share electron pairs. Examples of elements and compounds whose atoms are joined by covalent bond are Cl2, O2, H2, CH4, CO2 etc.Therefore, covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
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