Answer: d. penis
Explanation:
In pigs some of the parts of the excretory system are related to the reproductive system. The urethra is the tube where the urine get collected from the urinary bladder so as to release through the external orifice. The urethra remains connected to the penis. The vas deferens are the tubes which drains the sperms from the testes into the urethra. The urine as well as the sperms are both drained into the urethra which are finally carries away and excreted out from the body by another tube like structure that is penis.
Applying the "If . . . then" logic of science (see Chapter 1), what are a few of the predictions that arise from the hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae? Put another way, how could you test this hypothesis?
Answer:
Systematics, molecular analysis, and cellular morphology offer enough proof that plants had originated from green algae. In fact, the green algae, red algae, and the land plants come under a similar eukaryotic group, that is, Archaeplastida. The group had descended from an ancient protist that engulfed a cyanobacterium.
If the plants had originated from green algae than this can be demonstrated by sequencing the genes of both the green algae and plants. If the sequence of gene of plants is closely associated with the gene sequence of green algae, then the hypothesis that the plants had originated from green algae would be certainly true.
Thus, the mentioned hypothesis can be tested with the help of gene sequencing.
The hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae can be tested by comparing DNA sequences, looking for shared structural and biochemical traits, and identifying adaptations for terrestrial living such as the presence of a cuticle or vascular tissue.
Explanation:When applying the "If... then" logic of science to the hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae, several predictions can be made to test this hypothesis. One prediction might be that if plants evolved from green algae, then they should share common ancestral traits with green algae. Some of these ancestral traits can include the presence of cellulose in their cell walls and the use of similar pigments for photosynthesis.
To test this hypothesis, scientists could compare the DNA sequences of plants and green algae, expecting to find significant similarities. Additionally, they would look for structural and biochemical characteristics that plants and green algae have in common, such as the types of chlorophyll used in photosynthesis or the presence of similar reproductive strategies like the alternation of generations observed in some marine algae species.
Moreover, if plants have adapted from green algae, which are aquatic, we might expect early plants to have features that allowed them to cope with the challenges of transitioning to a terrestrial environment. Such adaptations could include the development of embryo retention, a protective cuticle, stomata for gas exchange, and vascular tissue for transport of water and nutrients. Confirmation of these predicted features would further strengthen the hypothesis that plants are indeed evolved from green algae.
Which of the following is true of spermatogenesis?
a. occurs before puberty
b. involves the differentiation of spermatids leading to the formation of mature spermatozoa
c. the process of spermatozoa production
d. results in the production of primary spermatocytes
e. involves the production and secretion of testosterone
Answer:
The correct answer is c. the process of spermatozoa production
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperms in the seminiferous tubules present in the testes. The process of spermatogenesis starts when germ cells present in the seminiferous tubule starts dividing mitotically.
Some of these cells become primary spermatocytes after mitosis and enters meiosis I. After completion of meiosis I they become secondary spermatocytes.
Each secondary spermatocytes converts into two haploid spermatids after completion of meiosis II. Spermatids then differentiate into mature sperms called spermatozoa.
Thus, the correct answer is c. the process of spermatozoa production
Explain generaly how Cyclin and Cyclin Dependent Kinase (CDK) work to control the cell cycle.
Answer:
Various cyclins are the regulatory proteins that associate with respective cyclin dependent kinases. The cyclin-cdk complex activate or inhibit the proteins required for specific stage of cell cycle by phosphorylation.
Explanation:
Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) are the protein kinases that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle. Cyclins are the regulatory proteins whose levels change during the cell cycle. Cyclins associate with their respective cyclin-dependent kinases to activate them. The cyclin-Cdk complex phosphorylates the enzymes and other proteins required for a particular stage of the cell cycle.
For example, the G1-cdk (the cyclin- G1 specific Cdk complex) allows the cell to enter from G1 to S phase while the G1/S-Cdk complex makes the cell to commit for DNA replication while the S-Cdk complex serves in the initiation of DNA replication. The M-Cdk complex makes the cell to enter the mitosis by phosphorylation of proteins required for various stages of mitosis. Cdks are not activated when not associated with cyclins.
When the cell is not prepared for cell division, phosphorylation of protein p27 is followed by degradation of the [proteins required for cell division. The protein p27 is one of the inhibitors of cell division.
why is the inoculating loop flamed before streaking a new sections of the medium?
The inoculating loop is used as a tool to inoculate microbes on plates. So it is necessary to flame the inoculating loop to destroy any kind of microorganisms that may contaminate ou interfer the culture medium. The fire, together with ethanol, helps to sterilize the loop, allowing it to inoculate a pure culture.
The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis take energy from sunlight and convert it into stored chemical energy. Which compounds are produced in the light-dependent reactions?
A) ADP and NADP +
B) ADP and NADPH
C) ATP and NADP +
D) ATP and NADPH
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis process proceeds in two phases: light-dependent reaction and independent reaction. The light-dependent reaction is necessary as it converts the light energy to chemical energy by capturing the light photons by photosystems.
Light causes excitation of the electrons from chlorophyll which travels down electron transport chain and produces the intermediate energy equivalents mainly ATP and NADPH. These ATP and NADPH are directly utilized in the second phase of the photosynthesis which forms the glucose molecule.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced, which are used in the light-independent reactions to produce sugars.
Explanation:The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis convert light energy into chemical energy, specifically producing ATP and NADPH. These molecules provide the energy for the light-independent reactions, where sugars are synthesized. The light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, involving two photosystems (Photosystem I and Photosystem II) which contain chlorophyll molecules that absorb light at specific wavelengths, aiding in the energy capture process.
Match the function or location to the correct connective tissue. Allows the growth of long bones Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes Outer portion of all bones Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances Produces new blood cells and stores lipids Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae Tendons and ligaments Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues Energy storage Epithelial basement membrane sits on this Precursor to adult connective tissues Umbilical cord of the newborn
1. Allows the growth of long bones - Periosteum
2. Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis - Fibrocartilage
3. External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes - Elastic cartilage
4. Outer portion of all bones - Dense (compact) bone
5. Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum - Spongy (cancellous) bone
6. Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances - Blood
7. Produces new blood cells and stores lipids - Bone marrow
8. Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions - Elastic connective tissue
9. Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions - Areolar (loose) connective tissue
10. Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae - Dense (regular) connective tissue
11. Tendons and ligaments - Dense (regular) connective tissue
12. Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues - Reticular connective tissue
13. Energy storage - Adipose tissue
14. Epithelial basement membrane sits on this - Areolar (loose) connective tissue
15. Precursor to adult connective tissues - Mesenchyme
16. Umbilical cord of the newborn - Wharton's jelly
Here's the matching of functions or locations to the correct connective tissues:
1. **Allows the growth of long bones:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Hyaline Cartilage**
2. **Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Fibrocartilage**
3. **External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Cartilage**
4. **Outer portion of all bones:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Periosteum**
5. **Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Endosteum**
6. **Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Blood (Connective Tissue Proper)**
7. **Produces new blood cells and stores lipids:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Bone Marrow**
8. **Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Connective Tissue**
9. **Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Collagenous (Dense) Connective Tissue**
10. **Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Ligaments**
11. **Tendons and ligaments:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Dense Regular Connective Tissue**
12. **Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Reticular Connective Tissue**
13. **Energy storage:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Adipose Tissue**
14. **Epithelial basement membrane sits on this:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Basement Membrane (a form of Areolar Connective Tissue)**
15. **Precursor to adult connective tissues:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Mesenchyme**
16. **Umbilical cord of the newborn:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Wharton's Jelly**
Each of these connective tissues serves specific functions or is located in particular areas of the body to support and maintain the structure and function of various organs and tissues.
A woman, Penelope, has a sister with polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD), which is inherited in an autosomal recessive mode. Penelope does not have the disease, and both of her parents do not have ARPKD. Penelope marries a man from Europe who does not have ARPKD. There is no information about whether this disease runs in his family, but 96% of the population does not have ARPKD (assume the disease is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium).
What is the probability that they will have a child with ARPKD?
A) 0.25
B) 0.15
C) 0.05
D) 0.04
E) there is not enough information to answer this question
Answer:
D) 0.04
Explanation:
Assuming that a is the recessive allele when homozygous that causes the polycystic kidney disease and A is the dominant one:
Since Penelope's sisters has the disease, she must be homozygous recessive (aa). Her parents must both be Aa (otherwise her sister wouldn't have inherit the disease). So, the probability of Penelope of being heterozygous (Aa) is 0.5.
On the other hand, the probability of having the disease in the population is 0.04 (1 minus the probability of not having the disease which is 0.96). This, according the Hardy–Weinberg principle, in the population would represent the genotype frequency [tex]q^{2}[/tex]. So, the allele a would have a frequency [tex]\sqrt{q}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.04}[/tex] = 0.2. Since the gene has only two alleles, all alleles must be either A or a , therefore p + q = 1. So, the A population's frequency is p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
The European man's probability of being Aa (doesn't have the disease but can carry the disease allele) is 2pq = 2 x 0.8 x 0.2 = 0.32.
The probability of Penelope and the European man of having an ill kid (assuming they both are Aa) is 0.25.
Finally, given the Penelope's probability of being Aa (0.5), the European man's 's probability of being Aa (0.32) and the probability of having a kid homozygous recessive aa (0.25) = 0.5 x 0.32 x 0.25 = 0.4 is the probability that they will have a child with ARPKD.
How many different proteins composed of 100 amino acids could possibly exist?
The number of possible proteins in humans is twenty.
The number of amino acids you can use it's called n, and the number of possible proteins then will be P=20^n.
In this case, you have 100 amino acids if you replace the n in the equation P=20^100 possible proteins.
Mutations that result in no gene product or totally nunfunctional gene products are called:
a. isomers
b. isoalleles
c. null alleles
d. lethal alleles
e. forward alleles
Answer:
c. null alleles
Explanation:
Genetic mutation can produce a non functional allele called as null allele. There might not be any product from this allele or a defective product might be produced. If the mutant allele does not even produce a RNA transcript, it is called as RNA null. If it is not able to produce the final protein product, it is called a protein null.
An example of null allele is The O blood group. Due to a mutation in the gene producing A antigen, an enzymatically inactive protein is produced by O blood group people. Both the copies of null allele O are required for O phenotype to be present.
Fats are broken down into ________________
Exercising causing ___________
a. increase LDL and HDL levels
b. increase LDL levels
c. increase HDL levels
d. decrease HDL levels
Answer:
c. increase HDL levels
Explanation:
Cholesterol is carried in blood in two ways, LDL and HDL. Both of them are lipoproteins made of fat and protein. LDL or Low Density Lipoprotein has 50% cholesterol and 25% protein by weight. HDL or High Density Lipoprotein has 20% cholesterol and 50 % protein. LDL carries cholesterol to arteries and deposits it there which is not good for the body. HDL on the other hand removes excess cholesterol from body via liver.
Aerobic exercise increases HDL values and lowers LDL values. It has been shown that exercising regularly can increase HDL level by 6% which is good for the overall health of the body. For maximum effect 30 minutes of moderate exercise should be done 5 times a week.
Exercising has a beneficial effect on blood lipid levels by increasing the levels of HDL, the 'good cholesterol'. It does not typically increase LDL levels, the 'bad cholesterol'. The correct answer to the question is 'c. Increase HDL levels'.
Explanation:Exercising has a myriad of advantages, one of which includes its beneficial effects on blood lipid levels. Understanding the terms LDL and HDL is critical here. LDL stands for Low-Density Lipoprotein, often known as 'bad cholesterol,' as elevated levels can lead to plaque accumulation in the arteries. On the other hand, HDL stands for High-Density Lipoprotein, or 'good cholesterol', which removes LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Now, when it comes to the impact of exercise on these levels, regular physical activity has been found to increase HDL levels in the blood. Hence, the correct answer would be 'c. Increase HDL levels'. Exercise typically does not lead to an increase in LDL levels.
Learn more about Effect of exercise on cholesterol here:https://brainly.com/question/17744138
#SPJ12
Cocaine acts in the nervous system by blocking
a. the dopamine transporter.
b. the serotonin transporter.
c. the norepinephrine transporter.
d. voltage-gated sodium channels in axons.
e. All of the above
Answer:
The correct option is: e. All of the above
Explanation:
Cocaine is a habit-forming illegal recreational drug and a very strong nervous system stimulant. The effects of this drug include euphoria, hallucinations, paranoid delusions, increased heart rate, large pupils, perspiration, itching and high body temperature.
Cocaine acts on the nervous systems of the human beings by blocking the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine neurotransmitters in the brain.
It also interferes with the action potential propagation by blocking the voltage-gated sodium channels.
Which of the following statements about excision repair is correct?
a. base excision repair is initiated by DNA glycosylases that recognize abnormal deoxyriboses in DNA.
b. nucleotide excision repair removes large regions of DNA via an excinuclease which cuts on either side of the damaged bases.
c. e. coli exonuclease activity is carried out by uvrA, uvrB and uvrC, and the resulting gap is filled in by DNA Pol III
d. DNA glycosylases cleave the altered nucleoside (base and sugar) from the DNA backbone creating an apurinic or apyrimidinic site
e. in humans, a mechanism similar to E.coli is carried out where the protein XPA acts as the exonuclease.
Answer:
a. True, b. False, c.True, d. True
Explanation:
a. Base excision repair is started by a DNA glycosylase that recognizes the changes and removes the altered base by cleavage of the glycosidic bond binding the base and the deoxyribose sugar together.
b. Nucleotide excision repair works by a cut-and patch mechanism that removes their heavy lesions, including pyrimidine dimers and nucleotides . Endonucleases are responsible for the lesion of the damaged strand.
c. Nucleotide excision repair is initiated by the proteins namely UvrA, UvrC, and UvrB in Escherichia coli.
-UvrD (helicase II) later removes the damaged strand
-DNA polymerase I (PolI) fills in the resulting gap.
d. DNA glycolases removes the damaged nitrogenous base.
-It leaves the sugar-phosphate backbone intact and thus creating an apurinic/apyrimidinic site, which is commonly referred to as an AP site.
e. Xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group A(XPA)
-This is an essential protein in the nucleotide excision repair pathway.
- It helps to make a pre-incision complex along with other proteins.
Describe the route blood takes as it flows through the body, starting with the heart receiving oxygen-poor blood from the body.
Answer:
the blood enters into the right atrium by inferior and superior vena cava--- left ventricle---pulmonary artery ---- lungs----left atrium----left ventricle---aorta----different body tissues.
Explanation:
The circulation in man is called the double circulation. Because in the heart the two types of blood circulate separately i.e. oxygenated blood/oxygen-poor blood and deoxygenated blood/oxygen-rich blood and they never mix.
The route of deoxygenated blood:
In the heart, the deoxygenated blood enters by the superior and inferior vena cava. Then this oxygen-poor blood stores in the right atrium and from there it passes into the left ventricle. The flow of blood from the right atrium to left ventricle occurs by the tricuspid valve.
When the blood enters into the right ventricle the valves closed to stop the backflow of the blood.
The blood from the right ventricle goes to the pulmonary artery by the pulmonary valve. From the pulmonary valve, the deoxygenated blood passes to the lungs. In the lungs, the deoxygenated blood/oxygen-poor blood gets purified.
The rout of oxygenated blood:
Now the blood becomes rich in oxygen and called oxygenated blood. This oxygenated blood enters into the left atrium by pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, the oxygen-rich blood moves into the left ventricle. Then the oxygenated blood reaches to the different parts of the body by the aorta.
In this way, the right half of the heart circulates the deoxygenated blood and the left half of the heart provides deoxygenated blood.
Which DNA segment is not required specifically for an expression vector (for use in E. coli)?
a. origin of replication
b. operator
c. ribosome binding site
d. promoter
e. transcription termination sequence
Answer:
b. operator
Explanation:
An expression vector is usually a plasmid or a virus designed for gene expression in cells, it's designed to act as an enhancer and promoter to efficient transcription of the gene that it carries, meaning it is used for protein production.
As any other vector expression vector may have an origin of replication, a selectable marker, and multiple cloning sites, it also needs elements that are necessary for gene expression, a promoter, a ribosomal binding site, and a start, terminal codon and a transcription termination sequence.
An operator contains the code to begin the process of transcribing the DNA message of one or more structural genes into mRNA, it works as a repressor to regulate the gene expression, since the function of an expression vector is the protein production an operator is not specifically required.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! good luck!
Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
a. paper c. wax
b. table salt d. sugar
Answer:
Wax.
Explanation:
Hydrophobic material may be defined as the material that contains the non polar molecule and hydrophobic interaction in their structure. The hydrophobic molecule are soluble in non polar solvents.
Wax is made of lipids. The lipids are non polar molecule and are hydrophobic in nature. Wax are made of large hydrocarbon part that are insoluble in water and can be easily soluble in non polar solvents.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
The term hydrophobic refers to substances that repel water. Out of the mentioned options, wax best fits this description as it doesn't mix with water. Paper, table salt, and sugar dissolve in or absorb water and are thus hydrophilic, or attracted to water.
Explanation:In the context of the question, which asks for the material that is hydrophobic, the correct answer is c. wax. Hydrophobic substances are those that don't mix with or repel water. For instance, wax is a hydrophobic substance you commonly encounter. When you pour water on wax, it simply rolls off or forms beads and doesn't mix, this is due to its hydrophobic characteristic. Materials like table salt, paper, and sugar, are all hydrophilic, they tend to dissolve in and interact with water.
Learn more about Hydrophobic Material here:https://brainly.com/question/31824394
#SPJ11
The nebular hypothesis suggests that our solar system evolved from a huge _____.
rotating cloud
asteroid collision
volcanic eruption
star explosion
Answer:
rotating cloud
Explanation:
The nebular hypothesis -
According to this hypothesis , the stars are made up of dense and massive clouds of hydrogen gas , called the giant molecular clouds .
The clouds are gravitationally not stable .
And the formation of the planetary system is a natural result of the star formation .
The solar system evolved a huge rotating cloud .
Conventionally pasteurized milk is sterile.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Conventionally pasteurized milk is not sterile it gets sterile after it is homogenized. The process of pasteurization involves sudden heating and sudden cowling of milk which does not kills all the microorganism but is intended to kill some of the bacteria and inactivates some enzyme.
Homogenization is a completely separate process which involve mechanical breakdown of fat molecules in the milk which increases the shelf life of milk by preventing the cream from rising at the top.
Hence, the given statement is False.
Which position on the anticodon is the wobble position?
a. 5' end
b. 3' end
c. middle of the anticodon
d. 5' end or 3' end
e. any position can be the wobble position
Answer:
A. 5' end
Explanation:
Wobble base refers to the specific base of some tRNA anticodons that have the ability to pair with more than one kind of base in codon. There is a total of 61 codons for 20 amino acids but only 20 different tRNAs.
A wobble base allows a specific tRNA anticodon to recognize and pair with more than one mRNA codon. The 5' base of the anticodon (the third nucleotide in an anticodon) can form hydrogen bonds with more than one type of 3' base of mRNA codon.
For example, Inosinate present at the 5' end of anticodon can pair with as many as three different nucleotides (U, C, and A).
In determining hematocrit, if the length of erythrocytes in the capillary tube is 45 millimiters and the length of total blood is 95, what is the hematocrit?
Answer:
47%
Explanation:
The hematocrit measures the volume of erythrocytes compared to the total blood volume. It's calculated as the ratio of the length of erythrocytes in the capillary tube to the length of total blood. It's expressed in percentage, so we have to multiply the ratio by 100%.
[tex]Hematocrit = \frac{45mm}{95mm} [/tex] x 100 %
Hematocrit = 47%
If an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to
a. add more of the enzyme.
b. heat the solution to 90°C.
c. add more substrate.
d. add a noncompetitive inhibitor.
Answer:
a. add more of the enzyme.
Explanation:
Enzymes speed up the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy for the reaction. They are not used themselves in the reaction. They are specific to substrate molecule. Substrate molecule binds to enzyme's active site and they undergo the reaction to form the product and release back the enzyme.
Rate of reaction depends on both substrate and enzyme concentration. Maximum rate of reaction is reached when all the active sites of enzyme molecules have been occupied by the substrate molecules which means that they are saturated. If more substrate is added at this point it wont have any effect on rate of reaction since there are no free active sites. Hence more enzyme is required to be added so that extra substrate can be utilized and rate of reaction can further be increased.
The P53 protein normally promotes
A) DNA repair.
B) tumor formation.
C) cell division.
D) apoptosis.
Answer:
A. DNA repair
Explanation:
The p53 protein acts as a tumor remover by controlling a set of genes required for the cell division. This protein protects the genome by restricting abnormal cells to proliferate avoiding the replication of damaged DNA. The first resource the protein uses and prometes is DNA repair and if the DNA has irreparable damage, the last resource used by this protein is apoptosis.
What is metabolism in living things?
A. The process of making energy from sunlight and using it to live.
B. The process of breathing to make energy to live.
C. The processing of metals into energy for life.
D. The process of taking in energy and using it to live.
E. The opposite of photosynthesis in plants.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The process in which the macro molecules breakdown in order to derive energy from them to sustain life is known as metabolism.
It includes intake of carbohydrates, fats, protein, nuclei acid and other compounds in order to break them and obtain energy for various types of cellular processes is known as metabolism.
The macro molecules breakdown to provide energy that is used for living.
Hence, the correct answer is option D
ATP synthesis in mitochondria requires all of the following EXCEPT (select two answers)
a. a hydrogen ion concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
b. the oxidation of dinucleotide molecules that act as electron carriers
c. fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to regenerate NAD+
d. the reduction O2, forming H20
e. the breakdown of glucose
Answer:
c. fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to regenerate NAD+
e. the breakdown of glucose
Explanation:
Fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to form NAD+ to drive glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen in the cytoplasm. It does not include Kreb's cycle and oxidative phosphorylation of aerobic cellular respiration.
Aerobic respiration starts with glycolysis to split glucose into pyruvate and is followed by Kreb's cycle. Pyruvate enters Kreb's cycle in the form of acetyl CoA and is completely broken down into CO2 and H2O.
Oxidative phosphorylation is responsible for ATP synthesis in mitochondria. The dinucleotides (NADH and FADH2) formed during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle are oxidized by giving their electrons to the terminal electron acceptor oxygen molecule via electron transport chain.
The process reduces oxygen molecules into water and also generates the electrochemical gradients across the inner mitochondrial membrane to drive the ATP synthesis.
ATP synthesis requires a hydrogen ion concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, oxidation of dinucleotide molecules, and reduction of oxygen. The breakdown of glucose and fermentation of pyruvate into lactate is not directly involved in ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
Explanation:The synthesis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the main energy currency of the cell, within mitochondria depends on a series of biological processes including glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. However, the processes that are NOT required are 'fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to regenerate NAD⁺' (c) and 'the breakdown of glucose' (e).
ATP synthesis primarily relies on the existence of a hydrogen ion concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane (a), which is created through the electron transport chain. This process also requires the oxidation of dinucleotide molecules (which are electron carriers such as NADH or FADH₂) (b), and the reduction of oxygen, forming water (d).
The breakdown of glucose is an essential step in glycolysis, which is a preceding step to ATP synthesis inside the mitochondria but is not directly involved in ATP formation within mitochondria. Besides, the fermentation of pyruvate into lactate takes place under anaerobic conditions when the oxygen supply is low, and thus, it is not required for ATP synthesis in mitochondria.
Learn more about ATP Synthesis here:https://brainly.com/question/31872948
#SPJ3
Why does it make sense that the sensors and controller of body temperature reside in the brain?
A. Because the brain enables the body's response to temperature changes
B. Because deep inside the brain is considered the body's core
C. Because temperature changes happen most quickly in the brain
D. Because the brain works best at the correct temperature
E. Because temperature changes affect the brain first
ATP synthase complex is found:
a. Thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast
b. Stroma of the chloroplast
c. Matrix of the mitochondria
d. Outer membrane of the mitochondria
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
ATP synthase is an enzyme complex made up of two regions called F₀ and F₁ cells. The complex helps in the production of ATP molecules which provides energy to the cell.
The ATP synthase is found in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast and inner membrane of the mitochondria The F₀ particle is embedded in the membrane while F₁ particle faces matrix in mitochondria and stroma in the chloroplast.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Which component is not directly involved in translation?
a. GTP
b. DNA
c. tRNA
d. ribosomes
Answer:
DNA
Explanation:
Because DNA information has already been copied in the mRNA and travels from the nucleus to ribosomes, where it works with tRNA to produce proteins. GTP is a molecule used as an energy source in the translation process.
DNA is not directly involved in the process of translation. Translation involves converting the information in mRNA into a protein, a process involving ribosomes, GTP, and tRNA, but not DNA.
Explanation:The component that is not directly involved in the process of translation is b. DNA. The process of translation involves converting the information held in mRNA, which was transcribed from the DNA, into a protein. During translation, the ribosome, GTP, and tRNA are all key players. The ribosome serves as the site where translation takes place, the GTP provides the energy for the process, and the tRNA brings the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome. However, the DNA itself does not directly participate in translation, its role is in the preceding process of transcription where it acts as a template for the synthesis of mRNA.
Learn more about Translation here:https://brainly.com/question/23277238
#SPJ3
The largest mass of nervous tissues is found in __________
a. stomach
b. brain and spinal cord
c. pancreas
d. liver
The correct answer is B. Brain and spinal cord
Explanation:
In biology, the nervous tissue is one of the main tissues in the nervous system that is responsible for movement, communication between different parts of the body and perception/processing of information. This tissue can be found mainly in the brain, the spinal cord and the nerves which are also the most important structures in the Nervous system. Also. this tissue includes different types of specialized cells such as the neuroglia cells and neurons. According to this, the largest mass of nervous tissues is found in the brain and spinal cord, because it is in these structures most nervous tissues can be found.
Answer:
Largest mass of Nervous tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.
Explanation:
plz mark me as brainiest
What fibers surround the xylem and phloem? Give their functions.
Answer:
The xylem fiber surround xylem and phloem fiber surround the phloem.
Explanation:
The fibers surround the xylem are xylem fibers. This is a complex plant tissue. These cells are the dead cells.
Some of the xylem fibers have cross walls and some don't have. The xylem fibers have a protoplast in it. These fibers have thick cell walls. The xylem fibers provide mechanical support to the plant.
The phloem is surrounded by phloem fibers. The phloem fibers are associated with sclerenchyma fibers. These have thick cell walls. They become dead at maturity.
These fibers also provide mechanical support to the plants and protect the phloem. Because phloem tissues have thin walls. The phloem fibers of jute, flax plants used for making ropes.
Bark fibers surround the xylem and phloem and provide structural support and protection to the plant. They are part of the scleraenchym cells and are primarily composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin.
Explanation:The fibers that surround the xylem and phloem are known as bark fibers. They essentially form a part of the peripheral bark of the tree and fall into the category of sclerenchyma cells, meaning they are hardened and thickened. These fibers, being composed primarily of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin, provide critical structural support to the plant. In addition to providing support, bark fibers also play a role in protecting the plant from physical damage and invasion by pathogens.
Learn more about Bark Fibers here:https://brainly.com/question/33860431
#SPJ6
Which of the following is the measure of how fast the particles are moving in an object?
A. Boiling point
B. Freezing point
C. Evaporation
D. Temperature
The measure of particle speed in an object is the object's temperature, which reflects the average kinetic energy of the particles.
Explanation:The measure of how fast the particles are moving in an object is represented by the object's temperature. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in matter. Consequently, as the temperature of a substance increases, the particles move faster. The other options listed, such as boiling point, freezing point, and evaporation, are related concepts that describe the conditions at which a substance changes phase based on the energy of its particles, but do not directly measure particle speed.