Answer:
The correct answer is - efferent arterioles or vessels.
Explanation:
The efferent arterioles are the vessels that take the substances that are not filtered from the blood in the glomerulus, to the capillaries known as peritubular capillaries to Vesa-recta and finally reaches to the vena Ceva to transfer to the different parts of the body.
The blood is brought to the glomerular where it is filtered into the renal corpuscles and tubules. The efferent and efferent has antagonist role in the body as one carries the blood to the glomerulus and the other takes blood from it.
Thus, the correct answer is - efferent arterioles or vessels.
Diastole is the
a. pacemaker function
b. when the heart is working
c. contracting phase
d. resting phase
Answer:
The correct answer is D. resting phase
Explanation:
Diastole is the resting phase when relaxation of heart muscles takes after contraction(systole). In this phase blood from veins and coronary sinus comes into the auricles and ventricles because of the pressure in the heart is less than veins and opening of A-V valve.
When both auricles and ventricles are relaxed it is called joint diastole. Joint diastole is called complete cardiac diastole and is 0.4 sec long. After the joint diastole auricular systole occurs in which auricles are contracted and ventricles are still relaxed called ventricular diastole.
After the end of auricular systole ventricles contraction starts and auricular relaxation occurs called auricular diastole.
The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the right atrium.
A) pulmonic
B) semicaval
C) tricuspid
D) bicuspid
E) semilunar
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'c': Tricuspid valve.
Explanation:
The valves are structures in the heart that regulate the flow of blood into different chambers of the human heart. The values do this function by acting as regulator's of blood flow and act as switches. The tricuspid valve acts as a one way valve that regulates the blood flow during ventricular systole to prevent the back flow of blood from right ventricle into right atrium.
The valve that prevents backward flow into the right atrium is the tricuspid valve. Option C is correct.
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. It consists of three leaflets, or cusps, that open and close to regulate the flow of blood. When the right atrium contracts, the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the right ventricle. Once the right ventricle is filled, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium during ventricular contraction. This ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle and then to the lungs for oxygenation.
The other options listed are not correct for this particular question:
- The pulmonic valve (A) is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, preventing backward flow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle.
- The semicaval valve (B) is not a known valve in the heart.
- The bicuspid valve (D) is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, preventing backward flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium.
- The semilunar valve (E) is a general term for the two valves located between the ventricles and the major arteries leaving the heart (the aorta and pulmonary artery). The semilunar valves prevent backward flow from the arteries into the ventricles.
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What are some of the considerations this hospital must make when
deciding on acquiring an EHR?
Answer:
First, it is important to understand what an EHR is. EHR is defined as an Electronic Health Record. This system is a computarized software that will enable a practice, or a hospital institution to store health information and data from the population that it tends to, including personal information, and health data. Because an EHR will become the storing systematized site of such vulnerable, vital information, it is crucial that organization take a lot of precautions when selecting the software they will use. These are some of the considerations to take into account:
1. Evaluate the software design. Since it will be people who will operate the system, it is invaluable that organizations measure if the software is easy enough to use, intuitive enough, that people will adapt to it, without much problem. Also, it will allow them to know how much support it will need, to decrease danger of information being exposed.
2. Evluate the vendor. Reputation is a must given the sensibility of the information being recorded and used. Thus, organizations need to choose a vendor that will give the hospital what it needs, and all the support it may need once the system becomes operational.
3. Costs. How expensive the system will be, if it will fit most of the hospital wards and departments, how much training will the system require so the staff can use it, what kind of technical support will be required, etc.
4. Customization: Since not all EHR systems can fit everyone, it is vital to learn about how easy it would be to customize the system, before it is implemented.
5. Evaluate if the system chosen really meets the goals of the institution or not. If they do not, then, choose another that fits better.
The direct trigger to ovulation seems to be a
A. Sharp increase in LH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
B. Sharp increase in FSH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
C. Sharp increase in progesterone production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
D. Sharp increase in prolactin production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
E. The release of gonadotrophic hormone from the follicle.
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
During the follicular phase of female cycle, estrogen produced by the dominant follicle stimulates LH secretion and LH concentration will keep raising until approximately day 13 of the cycle.
After approximately 24-36 hours from when LH reaches its peak level, ovulation occurs (it means that the dominant follicle has released an ovocyte).
A 17-year-old male develops pneumonia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory compensation to a metabolic acidosis consists of hyperventilation to lower the arterial PC02. The cause of the hyperventilation is described by which of the following statement?
A. CO2 produced from the reaction of the acid with bicarbonate stimulates central chemoreceptors
B. A decrease in the bicarbonate concentration stimulates ventillation
C. H+ stimulates central chemoreceptors
D. H+ stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors
Answer:
The best answer from the choices, to the question: The cause of the hyperventilation is described by which of the following statement:___, would be, B: A decrease in the bicarbonate concentration stimulates ventilation.
Explanation:
The acid-base balance in the human body, is a very restrictive one. Normal ranges in this base are: 7.35 to 7.45. Whenever the values go either below 7.35 or above 7.45, we are talking about a person going into acidosis or alkalosis. Both situations are pretty serious and they have to do with the balance between the amounts of bicarbonate, and CO2 in the form of carbonic acid, in the blood. The normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid, is usually 20:1. Chemoreceptors, especially central ones in the neck, measure constantly that the balance is kept and if this is not the case, then several mechanisms will be put into place to recover it. One such measure is respiratory, and the other is metabolic. In the case of this 17-year-old, he has a pneumonia, which means that from the start, one of his recovery mechanisms is impeded, which is the respiratory mechanism of balance. He is also having metabolic problems with his system of compensation because his body is already producing high levels of H+ ions and not enough bicarbonate. Hyperventilation in this person is attempting to expel as much CO2 as possible, to try and restore the balance. The first thing that is sensed by the receptors is the changing in the 20:1 ratio, the increase in pH due to too much carbonic acid, and thus the body initiates the use of CO2 expulsion by the lungs, while metabolic mechanisms come into play.
The more common name for the pharynx is the:
a. throat.
b. windpipe.
c. voice box.
d. nasal cavity.
Answer: Throat
Explanation:
The common name of pharynx is throat.This a ring like muscular tube that runs from the back of the nose and goes down to the neck.
It has three main sections: The nasopharynx, laryngopharynx and oropharynx. The laryngopharynx is also called as hypophaynx.
The main function of throat is to provide a passage to the food, fluid and air entering the mouth.
hence, the correct answer is option A
The more common name for the pharynx is the throat. The pharynx is a key part of the body's digestive and respiratory systems, while the windpipe, voice box, and nasal cavity have other distinct roles.
Explanation:The more common name for the pharynx is the throat. The pharynx is a part of the body that serves as a passage for both food (leading to the esophagus) and air (leading to the larynx or voice box). The windpipe, voice box, and nasal cavity are each different parts of the body with distinct functions. The windpipe, or trachea, connects the larynx to the lungs, facilitating breathing. The voice box, or larynx, is responsible for voice production. The nasal cavity is involved in respiration and olfaction, or the sense of smell.
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Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of bulimia nervosa?
a. Episodes of extreme overeating
b. Self-starvation
c. Both episodes of extreme overeating and self-starvation
d. None of these
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of extreme overeating, followed by actions to prevent weight gain. It does not typically involve self-starvation, which is more indicative of anorexia nervosa.
Explanation:The symptom characteristic of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating, followed by behaviors to prevent weight gain such as vomiting, excessive exercise or use of laxatives. This pattern of overeating and then purging is a key symptom in diagnosing this disorder. Self-starvation is more representative of anorexia nervosa, not bulimia nervosa. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Episodes of extreme overeating. Although self-starvation (also known as anorexia nervosa) is a common symptom in another eating disorder, it is not characteristic of bulimia nervosa.
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The distinguishing symptom of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating, not self-starvation.
Explanation:The symptom that is characteristic of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder marked by episodes of binge eating (consuming a lot of food in a short time) followed by inappropriate behaviors such as self-induced vomiting to avoid weight gain. While self-starvation, or the extreme restriction of food intake, is associated with another type of eating disorder known as Anorexia Nervosa.
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The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the
A) pulp cavity.
B) periodontium.
C) cementum.
D) dentin.
E) enamel.
Answer:
The correct answer is A) pulp cavity
Explanation:
Pulp cavity is present in the center of the tooth and is a soft portion which contains connective tissue, blood vessels and nerves. These nerves enters from the root of tooth and reaches to pulp cavity.
As the pulp cavity contains nerves it plays important part in sensory function and is responsible sensation of pain, temperature and pressure. Tooth cavity is located deep in the tooth so they are protected from any infection.
Infection can occur if any damage to tooth enamel and dentin occurs. Both pulp cavity and dentin is made by dental papilla and together called endodontium.
The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the A) pulp cavity.
It is surrounded by a layer of dentin and is covered at the crown by enamel. The pulp within this cavity provides the necessary nutrients and innervation for the tooth.
Other structures mentioned in the options include:
Periodontium – the supportive tissue around the teeth.Cementum – a bony substance that covers the root of the tooth.Dentin – a bone-like material under the enamel and cementum.Enamel – the hard outer layer covering the crown of the tooth.Which tooth surface of the anterior teeth in nearest the lips?
a. mesial
b. labial
c. proximal
d. buccal
Answer:
b. labial
Explanation:
labial -
Labial is the surface of the anterior tooth , which faces towards the lips .
The side of tooth , which is just adjacent to the inside of the lip .
This surface is nearest to the lips .
The face of these tooth , i.e. , labial tooth is towards , the lips or cheek , in the human body .
Hence , from the given options the correct answer is b. labial .
Oral Communications class:
There are three types of speeches: informational speech,
persuasive speech and special occasion speech.
True or false?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: There are three types of speeches: informational speech, persuasive speech and special occasion speech, woud be: True.
Explanation:
Communication is a vital part of human activities. But it is even more important when we are interacting with other people, especially if we are talking about large groups of people, and not just two. In speech giving, particularly, oral skills must be put to the test as these are meant to convey a message through words and gestures and the effectiveness of this goal will depend on whether the speech has been well written, and well chosen for a specific ocassion. As such, in oral communication, there are three general types of speeches, each with a particular objective. Informational, or informative, where the objective is precisely to inform about an even, a person, or a place, persuasive, which are probably the most used, and they include arguments, and finally, speeches for special occasion. Therefore the statement above is true.
Correct Answer: True
The chordae tendinae
a. connect the atria to the ventricles
b. are founf in the interventricular septum
c. are part of the conducting system of the heart
d. connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles
e. are a part of the myocardium
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The chordae tendinae:____, would be, D: connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles.
Explanation:
The atrial chambers and ventricular chambers of the heart, are not simply freeway connected without any limitations between them. If this were so, the heart would burst. Instead, on the division between the two atria, and the two ventricles, stand the AV valves, or atrioventricular valves: the tricuspid, or atrioventricular valve, and the bicuspid, or mitral valve. These two valves are the ones responsible for ensuring the correct passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles, and prevents blood from regurgitating to the atria once the ventricles are full. In order to do this, these valves have fibrous tissue connectors that link their flaps to the papillary muscles. These connective tissue links are known as the chordae tendinae.
The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the:
a. cricoid cartilage.
b. thyroid cartilage.
c. corniculate cartilage.
d. epiglottis.
Answer:
The correct option is: D. epiglottis
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a cartilaginous leaf-shaped structure of the larynx that is composed of elastic cartilage. It's shape is similar to the shape of the purslane leaf and is found in the throat of a human, behind the tongue and the hyoid bone.
It prevents the food from entering the trachea and is covered with the mucous membrane.The stem of epiglottis is attached to the thyroid cartilage.
Tooth whitening or bleaching can be accomplished through which of the following method(s)?
a. at home whitening strips
b. at home bleaching trays and gel
c. in office bleaching with lights or lasers
d. all of the above
Answer:
The correct option is: d. all of the above
Explanation:
Teeth whitening is the method or technique used to lighten the color of the discolored or the stained teeth.
There are various in-office and at home teeth whitening methods that can be used. The in-office methods include various light-accelerated bleaching, and at home teeth whitening methods includes various strips and gels, whitening toothpastes, whitening rinses, and tray based tooth whiteners.
Which physiological response is due to a "positive feedback loop"?
A. Body temperature regulation
B. Blood pressure regulation
C. Blood sugar regulation
D. Blood loss regulation
Answer: Blood loss regulation
Explanation:
Positive feed back is response of body in which there is an increase in the effect of small disturbance and the effect is intensified on a system. The magnitude of the effect increases.
In case of blood loss the body releases clotting factors that helps in preventing the body from severe blood loss.
The body releases clotting factors and these clotting factors tend to release more and more clotting factors that begins the process of blood clotting in vessels.
This is an example of positive feedback which acts as a life saving cascade.
A "positive feedback loop" causes an increase in the physiological process rather than maintaining stability like a negative feedback loop. Blood loss regulation is an example of a positive feedback loop where the body causes blood to clot more to prevent further loss.
Explanation:The physiological response due to a "positive feedback loop" is blood loss regulation (D). In Biology, a positive feedback loop is a process in which the end products of an action cause more of that action to occur. In case of a significant blood loss, the body tries to clot the blood to prevent further blood loss, which is an example of a positive feedback loop. Unlike negative feedback loops like body temperature, blood pressure, and blood sugar regulation which work towards maintaining stability or homeostasis, positive feedback mechanisms amplify or increase the occurrence of events.
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In a negative feedback system, what is component that causes a change to reverse the situation and return to the value in the normal range?
Answer:
The correct answer is - effector.
Explanation:
Negative feedback is one of the feedback of the homeostasis process which is a process that reverses the change occurred in the system from the set point. So, it is the mechanism that regulates the body parameter in the normal range.
Effector is one the component of other than stimulus, sensor, and control center. Effector is the component of negative feedback which causes a change to reverse the change occurred to the normal range.
Thus, the correct answer is - effector.
The vocal folds are located within the
A) oropharynx.
B) larynx.
C) trachea.
D) nasopharynx.
E) bronchi.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: The vocal folds are located within the:___, would be, B: Larynx.
Explanation:
The larynx is the structure that is responsible for conducting air from the upper airway passages towards the lungs, and protecting the trachea and lower airway passages from being contaminated by food and fluids. In order to do this, this tube counts with motility and a series of cartilaginous structures that support it and aid it in its function. At the very end of the larynx, and at the opening of the trachea, we can find the vocal folds, which is where the vocal cords are located. These folds have a double function: they produce sound when air moves in a certain way from lungs to upper air passageways, through vibration. And most important of all, they produce the coughing reflex if any particle, especially food, touches them. They will close if constant contact with the particle persists, and will continue producing the reflex until the particle has been dislodged and expelled.
The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s).
A) two
B) three
C) one
D) four
E) two large, four small
E, Two large and four small is the correct answer
The human liver consists of four lobes: right, left, inferior quadrate, and posterior caudate. Hence the correct answer is D.
A large right lobe, a smaller left lobe, an inferior quadrate lobe, and a posterior caudate lobe. These lobes make up the structure of the liver, with each lobe containing lobules consisting of millions of hepatic cells.
What are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx?
Answer:
The answer is: tonsils or palatine tonsils
Explanation:
Tonsils are the small lymphoid organs. They are of four types: pharyngeal or adenoid tonsil, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils, and lingual tonsils.
The palatine tonsils, commonly referred to as tonsils, are the pinkish lumps that are found on the left and the right walls of the pharynx in the human throat.
Which of these structures is not a part of the glottis?
a. True vocal cords
b. Rima glottidis
c. False vocal cords
d. Both B and C
Answer:
The correct option is: c. False vocal cords
Explanation:
The glottis is a part of larynx, also known as the voice box, located in the anterior aspect of the neck. The glottis consists of the vocal folds and rima glottidis.
The vocal folds, also known as true vocal folds, are the folds of tissues present in the larynx that are responsible for producing sounds.
The slitlike space present between the right and left vocal folds is called the rima glottidis.
Therefore, False vocal cords are not a part of the glottis.
Hormones regulate the development of the male reproductive tract. Which hormone must be present during embryogenesis in order for the vas deferens, epididymis and seminal vesicles to form?
A. dihydrotestosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)
D. Testosterone
Answer: C. Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)
Explanation:
Anti- mullerian hormone is a kind of protein hormone. This is important for the development of the reproductive tract in the case of male fetus. It is produced by the testes as well as by the ovaries. It specifically aids in the development of the male reproductive system specifically the parts of the vas deferens, seminal vesicles and epididymis.
Final answer:
Testosterone is the hormone that must be present during embryogenesis for the formation of the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles in males.
Explanation:
During embryogenesis, the presence of testosterone is required for the development of the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles in males. Testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells in male embryos, and its release stimulates the growth of the male reproductive tract, known as the Wolffian duct. Without testosterone, the Wolffian duct will degrade, resulting in the development of female reproductive structures. The influence of testosterone during embryonic development extends beyond the male reproductive organs, also affecting the differentiation of the external genitalia and the descent of the testes.
Describe and provide justification for three research questions
that you would like to see answered regarding technology based
teaching strategies and/or distance education.
Answer:
Explanation:
The three questions are as follows:
1. Will the technology based and distance education system is as effective as that of the conventional classroom program?
2. Is technology based teaching and distance education is affordable and reliable method for learning?
3. What is the impact of technology based teaching strategies and distance education on learning society?
What toxin can interfere with causing skeletal muscles to contract?
Answer:
Botulinum Toxin
Explanation:
Botulinum Toxin is a neurotoxin (meaning that its target is the nervous system) produced by a bacteria known as Clostridium Botulinum. The Botulinum Toxin inhibits the transmission of acetylcholine (principal neurotransmitter that participates in muscle contraction). The acetylcholine travels from presynaptic motor neurons (the neurons that control the movement) to the muscle at the neuromuscular junction (the place where the nerve gets in contact with the muscle) interfering with neural transmission and inhibiting the stimulation of the muscle fiber, thus causing muscle paralysis.
Do you believe it is safer for healthcare facilities to use the metric system or US customary system for measurements?
Answer:
Yes it is safer.
Explanation:
It will be safer to calculate all the measurement in SI or us contemporary for the doctor and patient. All the medicines and exercise should be decided according to the measurements.
The weight of the patient should be measured in in a proper unit which could be analyzed by the doctor in an easy way. Also the conversion of weight from kilogram to lbs. or from pounds to kilogram should be done carefully as it could alter the result and his treatment.
Kidney stones have many causes. The stones are commonly composed of all the following substances, except:
a)Calcium
b)Uric acid
c)Cystine
d)Bile
Answer: Bile
Explanation:
Kidney stones can be defined as substances which is formed by the accumulation of different substances to form a stone.
The chemical nature of the stone depends on the chemical imbalance that is found inside urine.
There are almost 5 common types of stone which is made of calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, cystine, uric acid and struvite.
Hence, the correct answer is option D
Final answer:
The substances that commonly compose kidney stones include calcium, uric acid, and cystine, but not bile. Bile is a digestive fluid that does not form kidney stones.
Explanation:
Kidney Stones Composition
Kidney stones are commonly composed of substances found in the urine that become highly concentrated. The major types of kidney stones include:
Calcium oxalate stones: They are the most common type, often associated with low-calcium diets.
Uric acid stones: These form in people with conditions like gout, which result in high uric acid levels.
Cystine stones: Related to cystinuria, a condition where cystine is accumulated in the urine.
However, kidney stones are not composed of bile. Bile is a digestive liquid produced by the liver, not a substance that forms kidney stones.
The correct answer to the student's question is d) Bile.
What condition would cause a person to have ketones in the urine? Why?
Answer:
Ketonuria is a serious condition characterized by the presence of ketones in the urine. This is caused due to dietary conditions such as starvation, vomiting, anorexia; and diabetes.
When the body is unable to use carbohydrates as the energy source or due to lack of carbohydrates, the body uses fats as the source of energy, thereby producing excessive ketones, which can be detected in the urine.
The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) trachea.
B) glottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
E) vestibule.
Answer: Pharynx
Explanation:
The structure that is shared by both respiratory system and digestive system is the oral pharynx.
On the other side of the opening between the oral pharynx and mouth cavity is a palatine tonsil. This is called palatine tonsil because of its proximity to palate.
This structure lies behind mouth and nasal cavity and above the esophagus and larynx.
The placenta not only serves as an organ of exchange but also secretes all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
A. Prolactin.
B. Chorionic gonadotropin
C. Placental lactogen
D. Progesterone
E. Estrogen
Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:
The placenta is an endocrine gland that is present in the women's body during the time of pregnancy.
When a women is pregnant there is a connecting link in between the child and mother that transfers nutrients to the fetus and carries waste materials from the body of the fetus to mother's body.
Placenta also releases some hormones which includes Chorionic gonadotropin, estrogen, placental lactogen, progestrone.
Which air passageways do not have cartilage and can collapse: bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli?
Answer:
The correct answer choices to the question: Which air passageways do not have cartilage and can collapse:___, would be: the bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli.
Explanation:
From the third branching of the bronchi, onwards towards the lungs, the cartilage that covers these structures are lost, as their purpose is to allow the flawless flow of air into the lungs, and the expulsion of CO2 from them. Because air pressure, and different pressure gradients ensure that the exchange of oxygen and CO2 takes place within the lungs, this can only be ensured with expansion of the lungs, chest cavity and of course the alveoli and alveolar ducts, where most of the exchange takes place. This is why cartilage is not a part of any of these three structures.
A patients pulse oximetry reading is 92%. What is the best
method of oxygen administration for this patient?
Answer:
A low flow oxygen supply
Explanation:
92% is the threshold for hypoxia, meaning that below 92% a person may need Oxygen supply. Depending of each patient's level of saturation, there are different types of devices and pressures, the lower the Oxygen concentration the more the pressure needed, for 92% a patient may require a low pressure system, such as nasal cannula for supply from 24 to 40% of Oxygen concentration. The second option is a face mask, which provides between 28% and 50%.
All of the following endocrine disorders are correctly matched with malfunctioning gland except
A. Diabetes and pancreas
B. Tetany and parathyroid
C. Dwarfism and pituitary
D. Cretinism and adrenal medulla
E. Gigantism and pituitary
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Tetany is a bacterial infection caused by a neurotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium Tetani which curses with generalized muscle contractions and painful muscle spasms.
Parathyroid gland regulates the calcium and fosfate metabolism, and therefore any alteration leading to low or high levels of this hormone will affect the equilibrium of these two minerals generating symptoms as cramps, fatigue, pain, palpitations and others. The main cause maybe a tumor and it is not related to tetany.