Answer:
Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
Explanation:
Fractures
Bones are rigid structure but on applying force they may break apart.
Common types of fractures include:
Some of the common types of Fracture are
1) Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
2) Open, compound fracture:
The skin in this type of fracture become ruptured by the bone and in some cases bones become visible in the wound. This is severe type of fracture.
3) Transverse fracture:
In this type, fracture appears in horizontal line. This may be same stable or open fracture but difference in direction of fracture.
4) Oblique fracture:
This type of fracture occurs an angled pattern.
5) Comminuted fracture:
In this type, fractures occurs in bone with three or more pieces.
Cause
The most common causes of fractures are:
Trauma:
Some kind of accident such as a fall, a car accident, or a during playing game.
Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis is the disorder in which bones become weakens due to de-mineralization which makes bones more likely to break.
Overuse:
Too much utilization of the muscles make them tired and place more force on bone. This can result in stress fractures. This type of fracture most often occurs in athletes.
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David is a healthy 5-year-old boy who is scheduled to see his pediatrician for a checkup in July prior to starting kindergarten. David's immunization record reveals that he has received the following vaccines:3 doses of HepB4 doses of PCV132 doses of HepA3 doses of IPV2 doses of rotavirus1 dose of MMRV4 doses of DTaP4 doses of HibWhich vaccines should David receive at this visit?
Answer:
At this visit, David should receive one dose of IPV, one dose of MMRV and one dose of DTaP.
Explanation:
During this visit David should receive 3 vaccines:
the last dose of IPV, which protects the kid against polio a disease that causes paralysis and death.
The last dose of MMRV, which protects the individual against rubella a disease spread through direct contact with an infected person and through the air.
The last dose of DTaP, a vaccine that prevents tetanus, a fatal disease that starts with difficulties to breath.
In a study of 2,752 adults in New York after the 9/11 attacks, people were judged to be resilient if they __________ PTSD symptoms in the first six months after the attack. By this measure, 65.1 percent of the sample populations fit the qualifications for resiliency.
Answer:
survived
Explanation:
An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?A. CompoundB. SpiralC. GreenstickD. Comminuted
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
A fracture is known to occur when a strong external force is applied on the rigid bone and the bone is broken down completely or partially in multiple pieces.
There are many types of bone fractures that occur like transverse, oblique, stable, open or compound.
In the given question, since the bone is coming out of the skin after a hit by the car, this type of fracture is known as the open fracture or compound fracture. The infection can spread in the wound as well as they can affect the bone.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Which statement does the nurse include when teaching a patient about disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy? "Disulfiram (Antabuse) will cure your alcoholism if you take it as directed." "If you drink alcohol after taking disulfiram (Antabuse), your blood pressure will get very high." "You cannot drink alcohol for at least 3 or 4 days after taking disulfiram (Antabuse)." "If you miss a dose of disulfiram (Antabuse), double the dose the next time it is due."
Answer:
"You cannot drink alcohol for at least 3 or 4 days after taking disulfiram"
Explanation:
In order to use disulfiram in a correct way it is necessary that the patient does not drink alcohol during at least the next three to four days after consuming disulfiram.
Another point which is necessary to be taken into account is that this medication is a very important component of the treatment but does not cure alcoholism.
Five medications related to the peripheral nervous system
Answer: Masoprocol, Tramadol,Cavimeline, Betaxolol,, Amphetamine.
Explanation:
Amphetamine for treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Masoprocol for treatment of actinic keratoses.
Cavimeline is used for the
symptomatic treatment of dry mouth in Sjogren's syndrome patients.
Tramadol- for moderate or severe pain management.
Betaxolol us used for treatment of hypertension and intraocular pressure elevation through ophthalmic administration.
Henry was a charming middle-aged man who came to the attention of authorities on bigamy charges. He had a long history of courting and supposedly marrying elderly widows, then absconding with their money. His diagnosis is most likely
a. borderline personality disorder
b. narcissistic personality disorder
c. histroinic personality disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
Answer:
b. narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:
In a condition called detached retina, the neural layer of the retina separates from the pigmented part. Blindness may result if blood supply to the photoreceptors cannot be restored. What are these photoreceptors called__________.
Answer: These photoreceptors are called rods and cons
Explanation:
One of the most important primary sense organs in human body is Eyes, it has in it photoreceptors (around 125million), which are rods and cons, their major function is to provide vision to the eyes. Rods provide vision during the night, which is also called scotopic vision while cons provide vision during the daylight, which is also called photopic vision. More so, Cons helps in colour vision but rods don't.
Final answer:
The photoreceptors that may cause blindness if the blood supply cannot be restored are rods and cones.
Explanation:
The photoreceptors that may cause blindness if the blood supply cannot be restored are called rods and cones. The retina, which is composed of several layers, contains these specialized cells that change their membrane potential when stimulated by light energy. Rods are particularly sensitive to dim light, while cones are sensitive to light of different colors.
Providing care that is respectful of and compatible with the client’s cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language is an example of which theme of culturally and linguistic competency:________
Answer: Psychometric evaluation.
Explanation: The psychometric evaluation is used by health professionals to evaluate the client's cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language. This theme is indispensable to guarantee that the client's cultural and linguistic preferences and beliefes are respected and followed by the health professionals.
Answer:
cultural competency- theme 1: developing culturally competent care
Explanation:
The linguistic competency care consist also on implementing recruitment strategies to gather and retain diverse personnel and also providing a sensitive service delivery
Parathyroid hormone __________. activates osteoblasts enhances release of calcium from bone is released when aldosterone levels climb results in a lowering of calcium levels targets the thyroid gland.
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone enhances release of calcium from bone.
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by the parathyroid glands. The function of these hormones is to increase the levels of Ca²⁺ in blood when they are low. To increase the calcium in blood the parathyroid hormone enhances the release of calcium from the bone in a process called osteolysis.
A recipe calls for 3/4 cup of sugar per batch of cookies. If Gabe wants to make 6 batches of cookies, how many cups of sugar does he need? Write your expression and then solve it giving you the answer for how much sugar Gabe will need.
Answer:
4.5 cups
Explanation:
3/4 C sugar =1
3/4 x 6
3 divided by 4 = 0.75
0.75 x 6 = 4.5
A 28-year-old man presents with reports of diarrhea, fecal urgency, and weight loss. His stool is light-colored and malodorous, and it tends to float and be difficult to flush. He has also noted tender, red bumps on his shins and reports pain and stiffness in his elbows and knees. Sigmoidoscopy reveals discontinuous, granulomatous lesions; no blood is detected in his stool. Which diagnosis would his care team first suspect?
A. Crohn diseaseB. Ulcerative colitisC. DiverticulitisD. Colon cancer
Answer:
Crohn disease.
Explanation:
Some of the symptoms: diarrhea, fever, pain and cramps in the abdominal area, poor appetite, weight loss, pain around an*s.This disease is IBD, which means, it causes inflammation of the digestive tract. It is very painful and sometimes it results in complications that could be fatal. There is no cure for this disease, yet, but therapies and medicaments can help with symptoms and promise people a healthy life if they stick to the therapy and advice that they get from doctors.
Lola doesn't like to cook, so she eats fast food at least three times a week. When she doesn't eat fast food, she opens a can of soup and makes a ham and cheese sandwich. For snacks, she prefers processed cheese cubes, potato chips, and pretzels. Based on this information, her diet is very high in:
Answer:
Based on this information, her diet is very high in: calories.
Explanation:
Fast food and processed food are likley to have high calories, but no the good kind. The body needs calories, but healthy ones.
Fast good and processed food are normally high on sugars, fat and carbohidrates. Processed foods also have transfat, which is an artificial fat, manufactured when processing foods.
According to the context, her diet is unhealthy and is very high in fat, salt, sugars, condiments and additives.
What are unhealthy diets?They are diets based on those foods that have large amounts of sugars, saturated or trans fats and salt.
By having high doses of salt and fat, they generate, on par, who consume them, a greater demand for consumption of them, can cause health disorders.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, her diet is unhealthy and is very high in fat, salt, sugars, condiments and additives.
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According to Hans Selye, people are most susceptible to illness in the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) model.
Answer:the exhaustion stage
Explanation:
According to Hans seyle, the body responses to stressors in three stages.
The first stage is the alarm stage where there is a burst of energy and the body is very active.
The second stage is the resistance stage where the body tries to resist this stressors.
The third stage is the exhaustion stage where the body have used up energy and at this stage the body is the weakest and susceptible to illness.
Several clients in clinic today are reporting urinary signs/symptoms. Which reported manifestation(s) leads the health care provider to suspect acute pyelonephritis? Select all that apply.
Answer:
The healthcare professional may suspect acute pyelonephritis if patients experience pain while urinating and have signs of pus (pyuria) and blood (haematuria) in the urine, which becomes cloudy and has an unpleasant odor.
Explanation:
Acute pyelonephritis is a potentially serious infectious inflammatory disease caused by bacteria. It affects the renal parenchyma, where the urine-producing functional structures are located, and the dilated portion of the kidney (or pelvis), roughly shaped like a funnel, whose function is to facilitate the flow of urine through the ureters. so that it is stored in the bladder and then eliminated through the urethra.
The most characteristic symptoms are fever, chills, sweating, nausea, vomiting, malaise; low back and pelvic pain in the abdomen and back; urgency and pain (dysuria) to urinate, sign of pus (pyuria) and blood (hematuria) in the urine, which becomes cloudy and has an unpleasant odor.
Exercise physiology is the study of__________.
A) how to prescribe exercise for performance improvements
B) acute and chronic bodily responses to physical activity
C) the lasting effects of long-term exercise on overall fitness
D) biochemical changes in the body during high-intensity exercise
Delivering puppies and kittens can be a rewarding experience and a procedure that the technician should always be ready to perform. What are the basic steps that need to be taken once a puppy or kitten is delivered?
Answer:
The basic steps that need to be taken once a kitten or puppy is delivered are:
Dry the newborn,massage gently, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose
Explanation:
The correct handling of a newborn kitten or puppy involves the following procedure:
Drying the kitten/puppyGentle body massage is must because it will help him/her in breathingRemoval of the secretions from mouth or noseOne of the most important concern regarding to pet is maintenance of warmthBonnie really cares for her husband, Bill. Whenever they have intercourse, it is painful because of insufficient lubrication. No matter what they try, an artificial lubricant is necessary. Kaplan would describe Bonnie's problem as one of?
Answer:
Kaplan would describe Bonnie's problem as one of arousal.
Explanation:
The sexual arousal phase is one of the 4th phases in the sexual desire cycle phases. This phase has two types of arousal, the subjective and the physical one. As Bonnie says that she cares for her husband it might not be a problem of subjective arousal, it is more related to a problem of physical arousal because her body is not producing enough lubrication to have intercourse.
Anthony is training for a half-marathon. He is now training for more than 90 minutes most days of the week. If Anthony weighs 199 pounds, approximately how many calories per day does he need to support his energy needs and maintain his current weight?
Anthony could lose about 48 calories per day.
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
Answer:
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."
Explanation:
Final answer:
The hepatitis B vaccine series should be administered with the second dose one month after the first, and the third dose six months from the first dose. Healthcare workers need to follow precautions, including using PPE and proper hygiene practices, and follow cleaning protocols to prevent HBV transmission.
Explanation:
The best response by the instructor to a student who must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections for a nursing program would be to follow the vaccination schedule as recommended by health authorities.
For the hepatitis B vaccine, the initial dose is followed by a second dose one month later and a third dose six months from the first dose. It is critical for healthcare workers to be vaccinated against HBV given their heightened risk of exposure to potentially infectious materials.
Healthcare workers can reduce the risk of HBV transmission by adhering to standard precautions such as using personal protective equipment (PPE), practicing proper hand hygiene, and ensuring proper use and disposal of needles and other sharp instruments. It's also imperative to follow protocols for disinfecting surfaces and equipment with an effective solution, like the CDC-recommended 10% bleach solution, to mitigate the risk of infection from surfaces.
A farmer in Arizona has a sudden onset of fever and muscle aches in his legs and trunk, followed by nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His doctor discovers that his leukocyte count is high, platelet count is low, and his blood pressure is dropping. The doctor immediately orders hospitalization. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
The most likely diagnosis is hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
Explanation:
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a disease caused by being in contact with rodents that carry hantaviruses. This disease can be fatal if it is not treated. Some of the early symptoms are muscle aches, fever, headaches, nausea, and abdominal pain. After being infected for more than a week the person experiences breathing problems.
Distension of the duodenum triggers the release of enterogastrones. true or false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Enterogastrone is a hormone that is released by the duodenal mucosa when fatty food is in the small intestines. It is also thought to be released when sugars and proteins are in the intestines. It acts on the stomach where it inhibits gastric movements and secretions.
Ruby and Chris were married three years ago. At that time, they both wrote wills leaving their assets to the other person. Since that time, they have adopted two children. How can they alter their wills without rewriting the wills entirely?
a. Add a letter of last instructions.
b. Add a holographic appendix.
c. Add a codicil.
d. Add a residual clause.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C
C. Add a codicil
Explanation:
A codicil is a document that looks similar to a will but not exactly a will. It serves as an amendment to a will or as an alternative to a will but not exactly a replacement.
So in the case of Ruby and Chris who do not want to write a new will, they can add a codicil to the existing will to include their children.
Ruby and Chris can use a codicil to alter their wills without rewriting them entirely. A codicil is a document that amends or modifies an existing will.
Explanation:In order for Ruby and Chris to alter their wills without rewriting them entirely, they can use a codicil. A codicil is a document that amends or modifies an existing will. It allows Ruby and Chris to add provisions to their wills, such as including their adopted children as beneficiaries, without having to rewrite the entire will.
By using a codicil, Ruby and Chris can ensure that their wills reflect their current wishes, including the addition of their adopted children as beneficiaries.
They should consult with an attorney to properly draft and execute the codicil, ensuring that it complies with all legal requirements.
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Poor medical care is dysfunctional for society, as people who are ill face greater difficulty in becoming healthy. and people who are healthy are more likely to become ill. Group of answer choices True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Improve health care will increase life expectancy and longevity while poor medical care will only result to more deadly cases that will affect the healthy living also via communicable diseases air borne or physical contact.
The statement that poor medical care is dysfunctional for society is true, as it impedes the ability of individuals to be productive members and exacerbates social inequalities, impacting the overall health and functioning of society.
Explanation:The statement that poor medical care is dysfunctional for society is true. In sociology, the functionalist perspective, as proposed by Talcott Parsons, posits that good health and effective medical care are crucial for the stability and smooth functioning of society. Illness can be viewed as a form of deviance that hinders an individual's ability to perform their roles in society. This perspective further suggests that when many people are ill, the societal functions and stability are at risk. Moreover, social inequality often leads to disparately high illness rates and poorer medical care among disadvantaged social groups.
Furthermore, the issue of poor medical care and lack of health insurance can drastically affect society by increasing the difficulty for ill individuals to become healthy and raising the chances of healthy individuals becoming ill, leading to a vicious cycle of health issues that impact society's overall productivity and well-being. This is exasperated in contexts where health care disparities are profound due to socioeconomic, racial, or ethnic factors. The higher prevalence of certain diseases and health issues such as infant mortality and inadequate preventive care in lower-income populations provides evidence for the connection between social inequality and health outcomes.
The types of aging changes related to particular conditions or illnesses that become more common with aging but are caused by health habits, genes, and other influences are referred to as:
Answer:
primary and secondary aging
Explanation:
As an individual grows older, one becomes more susceptible to some conditions and illnesses as a result of primary and/or secondary aging.
Primary aging changes arise from biological and genetic factors that are beyond our control. It is the gradual deterioration of the body as one ages, leading to slower movement, problems with vision and hearing, gray hair as a result of loss of melanin, increased susceptibility to infections, etc.These conditions and illnesses caused by aging are inevitable and cannot be controlled.
Secondary aging, on the other hand, are changes which are not naturally caused but are brought about as a result of personal lifestyle changes and poor health practices. Secondary aging changes can be prevented or controlled. Examples of such factors include smoking, sedentary lifestyle etc
ou are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.
B. Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.
C. Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital.
D. Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more comfortable.
A group of students are reviewing information about drugs used to treat tuberculosis. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which drug as a first-line treatment option?
Answer:
I don't really understand your question properly but the treatments for Tubercolusis are antibiotics to help fight the germs that are invading the lungs and other medications to boost the immune system so that it will fight it off.
Explanation:
The most common methods of stress testing include _________________________.
a.arm ergometer and treadmill.
b. bicycle ergometer and stair-stepper.
c. treadmill and bicycle ergometer.
d. stair-stepper and arm ergometer
Answer: c. treadmill and bicycle ergometer.
Explanation:
A stress test can be defined as a kind of exercise which is performed to record how the heart works during the physical activity. As the exercise causes the pumping of heart harder and faster. It is a test which gives information about the flow of blood from the heart, blood pressure and breathing are continuously monitored.
A stress test is usually performed by walking on a treadmill or riding on a stationary bike or bicycle ergometer. As continuous walking and riding is likely to increase the functional rate of heart.
The most common methods of stress testing are the c) treadmill and bicycle ergometer. These are extensively used for assessing cardiovascular health through walking or running on a treadmill and cycling on a bicycle ergometer.
The most common methods of stress testing include the treadmill and bicycle ergometer. This can be identified with option (c): treadmill and bicycle ergometer.
Arm ergometer and treadmill: An arm ergometer involves arm cycling, which is less common compared to leg exercises in stress tests. The treadmill is widely used for these tests due to its ability to mimic natural walking and running patterns.Bicycle ergometer and stair-stepper: While a bicycle ergometer is common, the stair-stepper is less frequently used for stress tests, making this combination less typical.Treadmill and bicycle ergometer: These are the most prevalent tools used in stress tests. The treadmill allows for walking or running tests, while the bicycle ergometer is used for cycling tests, both effectively measuring cardiovascular response to exercise.Stair-stepper and arm ergometer: Similar to the first option, this combination is less common as the primary method for stress tests since they don't represent the standard stress testing activities.Stress testing methods like treadmill and bicycle ergometer are essential in assessing cardiovascular health and fitness, measuring metabolic changes, and monitoring heart rate responses during graded exercise tests.
In late adulthood, sexual intercourse becomes less frequent than it was earlier, often stopping completely. Nonetheless, sexual satisfaction in long-term relationships increases past middle age. How can this be?
Answer:
Well, this is to be because if you have a long term relationship, that right there says that you are happy with your partner. Furthermore, as you are in your late adulthood, you tend to get bored and not wanting to have anything to do with that. Hope you find this helpful!
Answer:age
Explanation:
The libido reduces with age so the sexual activity is reduced and making sexual satisfaction prominent
What happens during implantation?
The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
Sperm are deposited into the vagina.
Sperm fertilize an egg.
The embryo is surrounded by the amniotic sac.
Answer:
The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
The thing which happens during implantation is that the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus. Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.
What is Implantation?Implantation may be characterized as the stage of embryonic development in mammals through which a blastocyst is formed after the formation of a zygote which gets embedded in the wall of the uterus.
The sperm are deposited into the vagina through the process of ejaculation. Sperm fertilize an egg in order to form a zygote through the process of fertilization. In the early stages of development, the embryo is surrounded by the amniotic sac in order to facilitate all the nutrients which are required for further development.
Therefore, the thing which happens during implantation is that the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus. Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.
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Why is it important to know who reviews the information posted on a Web site and the date it was last updated?
Answer:
See the explanation
Explanation:
Yes it always important to know the date on which the information is posted on a web site because with the time, information may change specially in the case of:- laws and rules. Similarly it is also important to know that who reviews the information because reviewer authorize that information, so in case of any glitches he would be responsible.
Answer:
Websites are reviewed regularly to maintain and improve the SEO (Search Engine Optimization) standing. There are several sites on which reviews about the business, people, or services can be posted. Websites should include the last date it was updated and should be authentic.
Explanation:
Websites are advantageous because it is accessible to anyone at any time. Websites provide information about entertainment, services, businesses, news, sports, and health. It is important to know who reviews the information posted on the website because:
Websites are also used to write reviews on certain gadgets, equipment, and services. Thus, the proper and accurate information should be provided by the reviewer. The functioning of certain gadgets or services is changed with time. Therefore, it is necessary to update the reviews and mention the date on which it was last updated. Also, information posted on the website must be authentic and accurate. The law and rules are updated regularly, which makes it mandatory for a reviewer to update and highlight the changes on information posted on the website.Therefore, it is important to know who reviews the information on the website because, in case of any glitch or spurious information, the reviewer will be held accountable.
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