An infant born at 36 weeks’ gestation weighs 4 lbs 3 oz (1,899 g) and has Apgar scores of 7 and 9. Which nursing actions will be performed upon the infant’s admission to the nursery?
Answer:
Recording of vital signs. Evaluation of the neonate's health status. Supportive measures to keep the neonate's body temperature stable.Explanation:
The normal weight of a newborn (or at 36 weeks gestation) should be between 2,500g and 3,800-4,000g. Accordingly, we can see that the baby exposed in the question is slightly underweight.
In addition, the baby has the 7th and 9th Apgar test, which is a test that assesses the newborn's immediate adjustment to extrauterine life, assessing their vitality conditions. An 8 to 10 grade present in about 90% of newborns means that the baby was born in excellent condition. A score of 7 means the baby had a slight difficulty.
According to the conditions presented by the baby, it is necessary for the nurse to do some things before admitting the baby to the hospital nursery. The most appropriate procedures to be performed by the nurse in this case are:
Recording of vital signs. Evaluation of the neonate's health status. Supportive measures to keep the neonate's body temperature stable.Stress may increase your risk for which of the following: A. Heart disease B. High blood pressure C. A stroke D. All of the above
Answer:
i believe its option a.
sorry if im wrong
Answer:d( all of the above)
Explanation:because stressing can cause all of them
Which technique most clearly minimizes the likelihood that any outcome differences between the experimental and control groups can be attributed to age or personality differences in research participants?
a. the double-blind procedure
b. statistical measurement
c. replication
d. operational definitions
e. random assignment
Answer:
The correct option is: e. random assignment
Explanation:
Random assignment, also known as the random placement, is a technique which is used to allocate the research participants of an experiment or research into two groups: the treatment group or the experimental group and the control group, by the method of randomization.
This process of randomization makes sure that the every research participant has an equal possibility of getting placed in any of the groups.
Final answer:
e) Random assignment is the technique that minimizes the probability that outcome differences between experimental and control groups are due to participant variables like age or personality by ensuring each participant has an equal chance of being in any group.
Explanation:
The technique that most clearly minimizes the likelihood that any outcome differences between the experimental and control groups can be attributed to age or personality differences in research participants is random assignment. This process ensures that every participant has an equal chance of being placed in any given group, thereby controlling for a variety of potential confounding variables, such as age and personality. Furthermore, random assignment is a critical component of experiments that creates equivalence among the experimental conditions before the research begins. For example, Anderson and Dill's use of random assignment in their study could ensure that, on average, participating individuals in both conditions were equivalent in terms of variables related to their hypothesis.
When Marcia goes into the bedroom to check on the child she is babysitting, she observes that his eyes are rapidly moving back and forth under his eyelids. The child is also lying very still. It is likely that he is:
The child is likely in the REM sleep phase, characterized by rapid eye movement and a still body, which is normal during the active dreaming stage of sleep.
When Marcia observes the child with eyes rapidly moving back and forth under his eyelids and lying very still, it is likely that he is in the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep phase. During REM sleep, which is one of the stages of the sleep cycle, a person's or child's brain is active, and dreams occur. The body becomes temporarily paralyzed except for eye movements and respiration, which prevents us from acting out our dreams.
Prisha is hoping to conduct a survey at her school to find out the student body's opinion of the new cafeteria food. If she is utilizing a social science approach, what may be one of the limitations she faces by using this approach with her survey?
Answer:
It is difficult to fully assess thoughts and feelings through survey questions.
Explanation:
Social Sciences is a branch of sciences, distinct from the humanities, that studies the social aspects of the human world. Prisha wants to use social science concepts to conduct research at her school to uncover student opinion about the cafeteria's new food. The problem with this approach by Prisha is that social sciences constantly work with human thinking and it is difficult to fully evaluate thoughts and feelings through research questions.
Rashad is in the hospital and is about to undergo a brain-imaging process that involves placing him inside a magnetic field so that a computer can create three-dimensional images of his brain. What procedure is he about to undergo?
Answer:
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Explanation:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging is one of the most widely performed exams in the world at the most modern medical centers and has revolutionized the diagnosis, used in virtually all medical specialties and for patients of all ages, even babies.
It is an exam that does not use radiation, but acquires the information provided by the magnetic field and radiofrequency waves generated by the machine and translated by a special computer. Every day new and better techniques are launched creating detailed images for disease research and treatment follow-up. In short, magnetic resonance imaging is a procedure where a patient is placed within a magnetic field so that a computer can create three-dimensional images of his brain, or other body part that needs to be examined.
Jan tries to focus on the tip of her pencil as she brings it closer to her. She feels the strain on her eye as she does this. What she is feeling in her eye is due to the process called
a. inhibition.
b. reflection.
c. accommodation.
d. assimilation
Answer:
I think the answer is D.
Benny enjoys the feelings created by drinking alcohol. However, over the last several years he has noticed that it takes more and more alcohol to create the desired effects. MOST specifically, Benny's experience illustrates the phenomenon of: _________
Answer: tolerance
Explanation:
Substance tolerance is the condition in which the body craves for more amount of dose of a particular substance so as to experience the desired effect. This can occur in abusers of drugs and alcohol.
Thus this can be said that Benny's experience suggests the phenomena of tolerence of alcohol.
In Austria, 30% of the population has a blood type of O+, 33% has A+, 12% has B+, 6% has AB+, 7% has O-, 8% has A-, 3% has B-, and 1% has AB-. If 15 Austrian citizens are chosen at random, what is the probability that 3 have a blood type of O+, 2 have A+, 3 have B+, 2 have AB+, 1 has O-, 2 have A-, 1 has B-, and 1 has AB-?
Answer: The probability that 3 have a blood type of O+, 2 have A+, 3 have B+, 2 have AB+, 1 has O-, 2 have A-, 1 has B-, and 1 has AB- is 0.0011%
Explanation: For calculate the probability, we have to use multinomial distribution:
P=n![tex]\frac{n!}{n1!n2!n3!..nk!} (p1n^{1} p2n^{2}p3n^{3}..pkn^{k})[/tex]
n: number of trials, p: probability for each possible outcome, k: number of possible outcomes.
The probability of each blood type are:
P1(0+)=0.30P2(A+)=0.33P3(B+)=0.12P4(AB+)=0.06P5(0-)=0.07P6(A-)=0.08P7(B-)=0.03P8(AB-)=0.01If 15 Austrian citizens are chosen at random, there are 15 trials. n=15
for n1=3 because 3 P(0+)
for n2=2 because 2 P(A+)
for n3=3 because 3 P(B+)
for n4=2 because 2 P(AB+)
for n5=1 because 1 P(0-)
for n6=2 because 2 P(A-)
for n7=1 because 1 P(B-)
for n8=1 because 1 P(AB-)
k=8 (because there are 8 possibilities)
[tex]P=\frac{15!}{3!2!3!2!1!2!1!1} (0.30^{3}0.33^{2}0.12^{3}0.06^{2}0.07^{1}0.08^{2}0.03^{1}0.01^{1})[/tex]
P=0.000011
Px100=0.0011
Jonathan is disappointed when he enters his doctor's office and sees how crowded it is. He has to stand and is dreading the wait until he is called in for the appointment but he needs to see the doctor so he cannot leave. Which perceptual characteristic of the environment is Jonathan experience?
a. formality
b. warmth
c. privacy
d. distance
e. constraint
The perceptual characteristic of the environment that Jonathan is experiencing is: E. constraint.
What is a perceptual characteristic?A perceptual characteristic is also referred to as perceptual feature and it can be defined as the properties of an object or environment as they are being represented by a visual system. Also, perceptual characteristic are typically a central construct of an individual's perception.
Some examples of the perceptual characteristic of an environment include the following:
WarmthPrivacyDistanceConstraintIn this scenario, the perceptual characteristic of the environment that is being experienced by Jonathan is constraint because he had to stand until he is called in for the appointment.
Read more on perceptual characteristic here: https://brainly.com/question/14217473
A diabetes educator is teaching a group of adults about the risks to vision that result from poorly controlled blood glucose levels. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes underlies the vision loss associated with diabetes mellitus?a) Increased blood glucose levels cause osmotic changes in the aqueous humour.b) Blood vessels supplying the retina become weak and bleeding occurs.c) Diabetes is associated with recurrent corneal infections and consequent scarring.d) Diabetes contributes to increased intraocular pressure.
Answer:b) Blood vessels supplying the retina become weak and bleeding occurs.
Explanation:
Diabetes milletus affects the blood vessels of the light sensitive cells of the retina. Thus the blood supply to retina stops. This leads to the loss of vision and blindness in adults. This is because of the uncontrolled blood sugar levels in case of diabetes milletus.
A woman has just received the news that she is pregnant. She is ambivalent about the pregnancy because she had planned to go back to work when her youngest child started school next year. What developmental task of pregnancy must the woman accomplish in the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. Recognize her ambivalence.
b. Accept that she is pregnant.
c. Prepare for the birth of the baby.
d. Recognize the fetus as an individual separate from the mother.
Answer: c. Prepare for the birth of the baby.
Explanation:
The tenure of the pregnancy lasts for 40 weeks. This tenure is distributed into three trimesters. The first trimester is the tenure in which the fertilization takes place by the sperms to the egg till the fetus development which ends 12 weeks of the pregnancy.
This period is initial and crucial period for the development of the fetus. The women has make up her mindset according to the situation that she has conceived and she has to prepare herself for the child birth.
Choose the best answer: A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of ________________. biopsychosis behavioral modification environmental effect epigenetics
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various geneticists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of Epigenetics. This term refers to the study of changes that occur to an unborn human that does not involve alterations in the DNA sequence. High fat foods affect the baby's health development but since it does not alter the DNA sequence we can say that this is the term being described.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of epigenetics.
A client has a diagnosis of HIV and has been admitted to the hospital with an opportunistic infection that originated with the client's normal flora. Why did this client most likely become ill from his resident microorganisms?A) the client's normal flora began producing sporesB) the client's normal flora proliferated because of nutritional deficitC) the resident microorganisms mutated and have became virulentD) the client's immune system became further weakened
Answer:
D) the client's immune system became further weakened
Explanation:
Instead of causing disease, the body's normal flora usually protects the body from other disease-causing organisms. However, under certain circumstances, microorganisms that are part of a person's normal flora can cause disease. This can happen in HIV-infected individuals. Some medicines used to treat HIV, especially lopinavir and ritonavir, may be associated with changes in bowel habits, such as a weakened immune system, normal flora may weaken it and lead to opportunistic infection.
Baby Derek sees his mom leave a room and cries. He is only one year old. Why is he crying?
a. Derek thinks his mom is gone for good and doesn't exist.
b. Derek doesn't want to be left alone in the room.
c. Derek is indicating he is scared.
d. Derek is hungry or needs to have his diaper changed.
I believe your answer is d. Derek is hungry or needs to have his diaper changed.
Option c could be correct but option d seems more likely
I hope this is the answer you're looking for and good luck.
Answer:
d. Derek is hungry or needs to have his diaper changed.Explanation:
When we are only one year old, there are main reasons why we cry, one of them is because we are hungry. So, crying is our mecanism to communicate to our moms about our state, and one the most primitive is being hungry.
Additionally, a second reason why we cry at that age, it's beacuse we pooped, and we want to be clean again.
Therefore, the right answer is d.
When names are removed from questionnaires and are replaced with identification numbers so that only the researcher can later link a response to a particular name, the researcher should tell the respondent that the information is __________.
Answer:
When names are removed from questionnaires and are replaced with identification numbers so that only the researcher can later link a response to a particular name, the researcher should tell the respondent that the information is confidential.
Explanation:
When conducting confidential research it is remarkably important that researchers maintain private and protect the participants' identities with techniques such as the one mentioned in the case above. Participants expect investigators to not divulge without permission their personal information given in a confidential interview.
Dr. Leung gives all of her clients a short questionnaire that asks questions about sleeping and eating habits, daily activities, and emotional states. Based on this information, Dr. Leung is able to assess whether depressive symptoms are present in each client. Dr. Leung is making use of __________ to assess psychopathology.
Answer:
Psychology testing.
Explanation:
Psychology testing was used to determine the behavior of an individual. This test is used to construct and determines the ability of an individual to cope up with the given tasks.
The psychological testing asks the individual questions related to eating, emotional activity and sleeping habits. The doctors can diagnose the psychological condition of the patient and its depression state by the psychology testing. Hence, Dr. Leung is doing psychological testing with his patient.
Thus, the correct answer is psychology testing.
An independent-measures research study uses a total of 18 participants to compare two treatment conditions. If the results are used to construct a 90% confidence interval for the population mean difference, then the t values will be ±1.746
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
While performing a primary assessment on an unresponsive adult who has been rescued from the water, you find that they have only occasional gasps, no pulse and no severe life- threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next?
All of these nursing activities are included in the care plan for a 78-year-old man with Parkinson disease who has been referred to your home health agency. Which activities will you delegate to the UAP? (Select all that apply.)
1. Checking for orthostatic changes in pulse and blood pressure
2. Assessing for improvement in tremor after levodopa (l-dopa [Larodopa]) is given
3. Reminding the client to allow adequate time for meals
4. Monitoring for signs of toxic reactions to anti-Parkinson medications
5. Assisting the client with prescribed strengthening exercises
6. Adapting the client's preferred activities to his level of function
Answer:
Option (1), (3) and (5).
Explanation:
Parkinson disease may be defined as the neurological disorder that can cause the stiffness and shaking of the hand. This disease gets worse with the increasing age.
A nurse must take care a Parkinson's patient that has been referred to the home. The orthostatic changes like blood loss, blood pressure and pulse of the patient must be measure and necessary steps must be taken to bring the normal physiological condition of the body. The patients should remembered and should provide the adequate meals. The strengthening exercise must be prescribed to the client.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1), (3), and (5).
Dr. Ivy's research focuses on the genetic tendencies that shape each child's characteristic way of reacting to environmental experiences. Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n) _____ perspective.
Answer:
The best answer to fill in the blank in this statement would be: Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n): evolutionary perspective, to explain the way that children react to environmental experiences based on their genetic tendencies.
Explanation:
There have been many theories created throughout time to explain why and how, people, be it children or adults, react and act according to the environment in which they are. In this particular case, Dr. Ivy is basing his knowledge and his comprehension of why a child acts in one way to the environment, while another may act completely differently, given the same environment, on the role that genetics plays in behavior shaping. As such, to him, it is a child´s genetic make-up what determines how a child will react to a specific environment, and not other factors, or aspects. This is characteristically of those who favor the evolutionary perspective.
After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause?
Answer:
Morphine
Explanation:
Malignant hyperthermia is a syndrome that manifests during general anesthesia, however morphine is not associated with malignant hyperthermia. Among the main characteristics are the rise in body temperature, hence the name, accompanied by the exhalation of carbon dioxide, muscle stiffness and increased heart rate.
Symptoms may also occur post-anesthetically, which is rarer. Usually, the suspicion of malignant hyperthermia occurs when the person under anesthesia is under adequate mechanical ventilation and yet has increased carbon dioxide and tachycardia. The clinical picture is considered serious, since there is the possibility of evolution to an irreversible shock, which may even lead to death (hence the malignant term) if not diagnosed and, if necessary, taken the appropriate measures.
Answer:
the drugs can be any of the following-potent volatile anesthetic gases such as halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane and the depolarizing muscle relaxant succinylcholine
Explanation:
The incidence of MH episodes during anesthesia is between 1:5,000 and 1:50,000–100,000 anesthesias. Even though a MH crisis may develop at first exposure to anesthesia with those agents known to trigger an MH episode, on average, patients require three anesthesias before triggering. Reactions develop more frequently in males than females (2:1). All ethnic groups are affected, in all parts of the world. The highest incidence is in young people, with a mean age of all reactions of 18.3 years. It has been found that children under 15 years age comprised 52.1% of all reactions. Although described in the newborn, the earliest reaction confirmed by testing is six months of age [2]. The oldest is 78 years.
Genetically, MH is an autosomal dominant condition; the estimated prevalence of the genetic abnormalities may be as great as one in 3,000 individuals (range 1:3,000 to 1:8,500).
Numerous factors could be involved in triggering MH – age, type of anesthetic, environmental temperature, mitigating drugs administered simultaneously, and degree of stress [3]. Mauritz et al. [4] found an incidence of 1:37,500 in patients who had been diagnostically tested, which was similar to the incidence estimated by Robinson et al. (1:30,000) [5], although wide variability has been reported. A recent report suggested that the MH susceptible (MHS) trait may be present in 1:2,000–3,000 of the French population [6]. Bachand and colleagues examined the incidence of MH in Quebec, Canada, where many families had been biopsied [7]. They traced the pedigrees of the patients to the original immigrants from France and found an incidence of MH susceptibility of 0.2% in this province. However, that represented only five extended families.
Gabe's roommate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, he needs to awaken him so that they both can get to a party on time. He is sleep talking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his roommate wakes up. He was in what stage of sleep?
A) NREM-1 sleep
B) NREM-2 sleep
C) NREM-3 sleep
D) REM sleep
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The stages of sleep are divided in REM and NREM, also the NREM stages are divided in 1, 2, 3 and 4.
In stages NREM 3 and 4 occurs the deeper sleep and the person is less likely to be awaken during these stages.
In stages 1 and 2 occur the lighter sleep.
In REM stage the person is in a state very similar to the awake state and therefore is more likely to be awaken in this stage. Also, in the REM stage occur dreams.
Aaron has started working for a new firm. There are thirty people on his floor. He is having problems remembering their names. Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names, would be: to repeat the names of the people he meets at least twice, as he speaks to them, as repetition, and drilling, enhances short-term memory and motivates long-term memorization.
Explanation:
Short term memory is passive, meaning, the brain will only retain what it immediately needs, and discard, or store, those things that are not immediately necessary, to meet the demands at the moment. Because of this, people tend to forget certain things like names, especially if there are many, and, like Aaron, are having problems with memory on this ocassion. In order for his short-term memory to engage, and his long-term memory to come into the picture, one strategy is drilling and repetition. By saying the names of the people while talking to them, at least twice, Aaron is not just repeating, but also associating, which will help with long-term memory and also motivate short-term memorization.
Ally has evaluated her skills and determined that she has excellent balance. She wants to sign up for two sports that will play to her strength. Which two sports will be best for her? A. Archery and swimming B. Bicycling and gymnasticsC. Baseball and footballD. Volleyball and tennis
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. bicycling and gymnastic.
Explanation:
Bicycling and gymnastic sports are the two great exercises that provide strength to overall body and endurance to an individual that participated in these sports. Both of the sports need a tremendous balancing skill. Gymnasts have great balancing skills as well the bicycling provide strength to legs hips and other lower body parts and improve muscle memory.
Ally has evaluated her skill and found out that she is excellent at balancing. balance-related sports are bicycling and gymnastics.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. bicycling and gymnastics.
What type of mental disorder is uncontrolled shopping? phobia schizophrenia paranoid personality impulse-control
Chemistry and hematological are the type of tests that may be performed in physician office laboratory if the POL: has been granted a certificate of waiver.
Hematological test related to the blood. the blood samples are tested for finding out any defect related to the red blood cells or white blood cells. Chemical test is done for various enzymes and hormones of the body.
These two tests are performed by the physician in his office laboratory. The certificate of waiver is very important for the physician.
Personality impulse control
Explanation:
Individuals with character or personality issue will in general display issues with motivation control.
These issues can show as either over-controlled or under-controlled driving forces. (Under-controlled drive control is regularly called an "absence of motivation control".
In a similar way that individuals with character issue may have issues with over-or under-controlled full of the feeling (passionate) guideline, they additionally will, in general, have issues directing their driving forces.
Thus the feel of uncontrolled shopping is inferred as personality impulse control mental disorder.
Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have
A) bipolar disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder
Answer:
The correct option is: B. Borderline Personality Disorder
Explanation:
Borderline Personality Disorder is a chronic mental disorder characterized by impulsiveness, disturbed sense of self, unstable emotions and relationships.
Symptoms of borderline personality disorder can be easily triggered by normal actions, events, social and environmental factors.
Other common symptoms of this disorder include insecurity, depersonalization, detachment from reality, feelings of emptiness and worthlessness, self-harm and anxiety.
Therefore, Kevin's behavior in the given example indicates that he may have borderline personality disorder.
The client is 32 weeks pregnant and has been referred for biophysical profile (BPP) after a nonreassuring nonstress test (NST). Which statement made by the client indicates that the nurse's explanation of the procedure was effective?a. The BPP is a screening for neural tube defects.b. The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume.c. The BPP is a blood test to detect placental problems.d. The BPP is a diagnostic procedure whereby a needle is inserted into the amniotic sac to obtain fluid.
Answer:
The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume.
Explanation:
The fetal biophysical profile, or BPP, is an exam, a type of ultrasound, that assesses the well-being of the fetus from the third trimester of pregnancy, and is able to assess the parameters and activities of the baby, from body movements. , breathing movements, proper growth, amniotic fluid volume, and heartbeat. These parameters are important because they reflect the functioning of the baby's nervous system and its oxygenation state, so that if any problem is identified, treatment can be performed as soon as possible with the baby still in the womb.
It is important that the pregnant woman undergoing this test understand what the procedure means. For this reason, we can conclude that the pregnant woman understood what BPP is when she states that "BPP is an ultrasound that measures respiration, body movement, tone and amniotic fluid volume."
The BPP is an ultrasound evaluation that includes fetal breathing, body movement, muscle tone, amniotic fluid volume assessments, and NST, which checks for fetal health.
The correct statement made by the client that indicates an effective explanation of a biophysical profile (BPP) given by the nurse is: "The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume." A BPP is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation of fetal well-being involving a scoring system, which includes assessments of the fetus's breathing movements, gross body movements, muscle tone, and the amount of amniotic fluid, as well as the nonstress test (NST). This procedure helps check for fetal health and is typically conducted after a nonreassuring NST to provide additional information about the fetus's condition.
Rather than simply memorizing key terms and concepts, Jeremy focused on the meaning of the information in the chapter and tried to generate examples of concepts from his own experiences. Jeremy was using _____ to help encode information into his long-term memory.
a) contextual cues
b) elaborative rehearsal
c) the serial position effect
d) maintenance rehearsal
Answer:
Elaborative rehearsal.
Explanation:
Memory may be defined as the ability of the brain to memorize the incident or any other information. Two types of memory are short term memory and long term memory.
The long term memory can be converted to the short term memory by multiple rehearsal and memorizing the things again and again. Jeremy must be using elaborative rehearsal to memorize the chapter and generate examples to create his own experience.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Jeremy was using elaborative rehearsal to help encode information into his long-term memory.
Explanation:Jeremy was using elaborative rehearsal to help encode information into his long-term memory. Elaborative rehearsal involves thinking about the meaning of new information and making connections to existing knowledge. By focusing on the meaning of the information in the chapter and generating examples from his own experiences, Jeremy was engaging in elaborative rehearsal and increasing the likelihood of encoding the information into his long-term memory.
Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his answering machine every 15 minutes.
Grayson's constant checking for messages could be considered an example of ______________.
a) a hallucination
b) a delusion
c) an obsession
d) a compulsion
Answer: compulsion
Explanation: Cambridge dictionary describes complusion as a very strong feeling of wanting to do something repeatedly that is difficult to control. Due to the fact that he repeatedly checks his messages every 15 minutes it shows that he is exhibiting compulsive behaviours.