Answer:
The correct answer is option 'c': Tricuspid valve.
Explanation:
The valves are structures in the heart that regulate the flow of blood into different chambers of the human heart. The values do this function by acting as regulator's of blood flow and act as switches. The tricuspid valve acts as a one way valve that regulates the blood flow during ventricular systole to prevent the back flow of blood from right ventricle into right atrium.
The valve that prevents backward flow into the right atrium is the tricuspid valve. Option C is correct.
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. It consists of three leaflets, or cusps, that open and close to regulate the flow of blood. When the right atrium contracts, the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the right ventricle. Once the right ventricle is filled, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium during ventricular contraction. This ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle and then to the lungs for oxygenation.
The other options listed are not correct for this particular question:
- The pulmonic valve (A) is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, preventing backward flow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle.
- The semicaval valve (B) is not a known valve in the heart.
- The bicuspid valve (D) is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, preventing backward flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium.
- The semilunar valve (E) is a general term for the two valves located between the ventricles and the major arteries leaving the heart (the aorta and pulmonary artery). The semilunar valves prevent backward flow from the arteries into the ventricles.
To know more about tricuspid valve:
https://brainly.com/question/32903969
#SPJ6
The skeleton of the heart
a. helps to support the coronary arteries
b. anchors cardiac msucle fibers
c. contains osseous tissue
d. prevents the backflow of blood in the heart
e. stimulates the myocardium
Answer: b. anchors cardiac muscle fibers
Explanation:
The skeleton of the heart functions to anchor the cardiac muscle fibers of the heart, which anchors the valves of the heart and four chambers of heart. It forms a high density single unit of the connective tissue. It anchors the valves and four chambers to control and maintain the blood pressure of the free flowing blood through the heart.
Visual perception is greatly dependent on experience.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Visual perception or vision is described as the ability of the brain of an individual to elucidate or interpret the light reflected from the objects in the surrounding environment.
According to the German physician and physicist, Hermann von Helmholtz, the vision or the visual perception is the result of the ability of an individual to make conclusions and assumptions from the incomplete insufficient information which is based upon past experiences.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are:
a. primary bronchi.
b. secondary bronchi.
c. tertiary bronchi.
d. bronchioles.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The trachea divides into 2 main primary bronchi (left and right bronchus). Then the right bronchus divides into 3 secondary bronchi (or lobar bronchi) and the left bronchus does it into 2 secondary bronchi.
All of the secondary bronchi divide into tertiary bronchi, also called segmental bronchi.
After that, the tertiary bronchi continue division to several branches until they become bronchioles (the smallest branches of the bronchial tree).
The bronchioles divide into terminal bronchioles, then respiratory bronchioles, then alveolar ducts and finally alveolar sacs, where gas exchange occurs.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. These are less than 1 millimeter in diameter and lead to small air sacs (alveoli) where gas exchange occurs.
Explanation:The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. The bronchial tree is a branching system of air passages that start from the trachea, branching into two primary bronchi, each leading to a lung. These primary bronchi further divide into secondary and tertiary bronchi, each getting smaller and reaching further into the lungs. The smallest of the branches, the bronchioles, are only about 1 millimeter or less in diameter and lead to small air sacs called alveoli where gas exchange takes place.
Learn more about Bronchial Tree here:https://brainly.com/question/34720382
#SPJ6
Bronchi split into bronchioles as they extend into the lungs. ________ have cartilage in their wall for support and ___________ do not.
Answer:
Bronchi: Bronchioles
Explanation:
Bronchus is a part of the human respiratory system. It is the air passage that guide the air into the lungs. The bronchus branches into the right and the left bronchus which further branches into the secondary and tertiary bronchi.
The walls of the bronchi has the hyaline cartilage for support. As the bronchi becomes narrower, the hyaline cartilage in the walls decreases. The narrow branched bronchi that can not be supported by a hyaline cartilage are known as the bronchioles.
Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
In terms of general training, the idea is always go from broader to specific. In that sense, power exercises will allow the body to start mobilizing large groups of muscles, and not focus on only one region, or one specific muscle. According to all the research on proper training, and the correct order in which these two types of exercises: power training and strength training, should be, it says that power training comes first, because power training allows for large groups of muscles to mobilize and thus will maximize the capabilities of the muscles. Then, strength exercises will be initiated to work on specific muscles, or much smaller groups of muscles. This is why the answer is A.
To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option A. True
Explanation:
Arterial bleeding is a blood flow in an artery in which blood exits the wound in spurts with the heartbeat.
To stop arterial bleeding, direct pressure is applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
Placing the pressure on the wound helps in narrowing the blood vessels manually that results to stem blood flow and stops arterial bleeding.
There are several primary tools used for direct pressure including pressure bandages, commercial tourniquets, and hemostatic dressings.
Hence, the given statement is true.
The correct answer is True.
Explanation
In the case of arterial bleeding, it is important to provide first aid to prevent the person from bleeding to death.
The procedure that we can perform while the help arrives is to forcefully exert pressure on the wound and try to raise it above the height of the heart (if it is an upper limb). However, when we see that this procedure does not have any effect and the blood continues to flow, we must put pressure in the middle area between the artery or wound and the heart, in this way bleeding should stop due to the force applied to the artery. So, the correct answer is True.
The funnel-shaped end of the uterine tube is called the ____________.
Answer:
infundibulum
Explanation:
The most distal portion of the uterine tube is the Infundibulum, which can be compared to a funnel whose mouth has a very uneven rim that looks like fringes. These fringes are named tuba fimbriae, one of which stands out for being longer, called ovarian fimbria. The infundibulum opens freely in the peritoneum cavity through a foramen known as the uterine tube abdominal ostium.
Commonly the infundibulum fits over the ovary, and the fimbriae could be roughly compared to the fingers of one hand holding an orange over it.
This drug used for treating hypertension acts by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a vasoconstrictor.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. calcium channel blocker
c. ACEi
d. digitalis
Answer:
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
ACEi are a group of drugs that inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme. This enzyme is produced in the lung and converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II which is a potent vasoconstrictive peptide that helps to narrow the vessels and also stimulates aldosterone secretion. This mechanism normally helps to raise blood pressure.
Examples of ACEi are captopril, enalapril, lisinopril.
Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
Explanation:
The SA node is a natural pacemaker. It consists of a cluster of cells that are situated to the walls of the right atrium of the heart. The electrical impulses produce at that place. It is also called as sinus node. The cells of the pacemaker posses their own intrinsic rhythm, so as to maintain the continuous pumping of the heart. In the rest, the SA node causes the heart to beat at a rate of 50-100 beats per minute. During activity the heart rate rises over 100 beats per minute.
Bile salts from the liver and gall bladder aid in the digestion of ________ by inducing _________.
a) starch, glycogenolysis
b) proteins, denaturation
c) carbohydrates, glycogenolysis
d) lipids, emulsification
Answer: Lipids; emulsification
Explanation:
The lipids(fats) digestion begins in the stomach with the help of gastric lipase and lingual lipase. The bile salts from the liver and gall bladder are poured in the small intestine where the lipid digestion takes place.
This is done by the help od the process known as Emulsification. It is a process in which large lipid globules are broken into several small lipids.
These small lipids are distributed in chyme. This is important for the digestion of lipids as lipase work on the small lipid molecules aggregated in chyme.
Answer:
The correct answer is option is 'd': lipids,emulsification
Explanation:
Bile salts are substances that are release from the liver and are stored in the gal bladder and they help in digestion by breaking down lipids and fats into simpler molecules for their easier digestion by a process known as emulsification. The bile salts are dark green to yellowish in color. The bile salts acts as surfactants that help in emulsifying the fats, thus helping in their digestion.
when does the tricuspid valve open?
Answer:As the right ventricle contracts, the tricuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valve opens. The closure of the tricuspid valve prevents blood from backing into the right atrium and the opening of the pulmonary valve allows the blood to flow into the pulmonary artery toward the lungs.
Explanation:
Stains formed outside the tooth structure and are removable by a prophy.
Answer:
The correct term is - extrinsic stain.
Explanation:
Extrinsic stains are normally present on the surface of a tooth and occur due to taking pigmented beverages such as coffee, tea, carbonated drinks, caramel coloring, and foods. Smoking cigarettes is also one of the reasons that can cause an extrinsic stain.
This can be removed by dentists or professionals like hygienists. The stain particles act on the outer surface of the teeth and pigmented them which cause stain yellowish or brownish in individuals.
Thus, the correct answer is - extrinsic stain.
The space between the gingiva and the tooth that is not attached to the tooth is called?
a. alveolar bone
b. sulcus
c. periodontal ligament
d. gingival margin
Answer:
The correct option is: b. sulcus
Explanation:
Gingival sulcus refers to the shallow space present between the tooth and the gum tissue, called the gingival margin that surrounds the tooth.
The depth of the healthy gingival sulcus is about three millimeters and it is readily self-cleansable. The gingival sulcus is lined by the sulcular epithelium.
______________ in the urine is an early sign of nephropathy.
Answer:
protein
Explanation:
Which of the following are involved with regulating pH of body fluids?
a) all of these
b) proteins
c) exhaling carbon dioxide
d) bicarbonate
e) excretion by the kidneys
Answer:
The correct answer is a) all of these
Explanation:
Human body developed many mechanisms to regulate the pH of the body fluid. Carbon dioxide in the blood forms carbonic acid which neutralize the extra base and decrease the pH of blood.
Bicarbonate ions in the blood helps in neutralizing the extra acid in the blood and is reabsorbed by kidneys. Excretion of excess H⁺ ions from kidney also helps in regulating the pH of body fluid.
Almost all the proteins acts as buffer because they have charged regions which can bind to H⁺ or OH⁻ ions thus provide buffering capacity to the blood.
Thus, the correct answer is a all of these.
What is elbow tunnel?
Answer:
The ulnar nerve in the elbow, it travel through the tunnel as tissue which is known as cubital tunnel. It basically passes under the bump inside our elbow.
This type of the bony bump is also known as medial epicondyle. Ulnar nerve is the three important nerve in our arm.
In our body, the spot at which the nerve run due to the medial epicondyle it is basically known as funny bone. It is occur in the elbow part of our body due to the compressed and irritation in the arm.
Each of the following statements concerning the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except one, identify the exception
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by cells in the heart.
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium loss at the kidneys
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces the sensation of thirst
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide suppresses ADH secretion.
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide increases aldosterone secretion.
Answer:
The correct answer is E.
Explanation:
The main function of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is to reduce extracellular fluid volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex, that is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system which helps to maintain blood pressure. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and potassium excretion, and as a result an increase in extracellular fluid volume and in blood pressure.
In conclusion, ANP reduces aldosterone secretion.
All provided statements about the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) are true except for the one claiming it increases aldosterone secretion. In reality, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion.
Explanation:The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) has several important functions related to fluid and electrolyte balance. ANP is indeed produced by cells in the heart (A) and promotes sodium loss in the kidneys (B), which can help to lower blood volume and pressure. ANP also reduces the sensation of thirst (C) and acts to suppress secretion of the antidiuretic hormone ADH (D). These effects all work together to reduce fluid and sodium retention. However, the statement that atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) increases aldosterone secretion (E) is not correct. In fact, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone is another hormone that promotes sodium and fluid retention, so ANP works against it to reduce these effects.
Learn more about Atrial Natriuretic Peptide here:https://brainly.com/question/33560001
#SPJ3
What is the expected response of diastolic blood pressure (DBP) as workloads increase during a graded exercise test?
a. It will remain the same or decrease.
b. It will most likely increase.
Answer:
The expected response of diastolic blood pressure as workload increases during a graded exercise test b. it will most likely increase
Explanation:
The heart is a bomb which is encharged of pumping blood to every part in the body. When the body makes an extra effort like is seen in a graded exercise test, the heart needs to increase the pumping of blood and all of these is because there are many means of compensation to maintain an adequate and physiological requirements. Those means of compensation are increases of cardiac frequency and an increase in blood pressure. The increase of blood pressure is majorly seen in systolic pressure but also is seen a little increase in diastolic blood pressure.
A dumbbell lunge is an example of which of the following?
a. isotonic training
b. isokinetic training
c. dynamic constant external resistance training
d. plyometric training
Answer: c. dynamic constant external resistance training
Explanation:
The dumbbell lunge is a exercise which is done by a single leg. It increases the strength of the body. It improves the stability of the body and develops the speed of the lower body. It is done along with dumbells held on hands and lying down with lower knee down.
C. is the correct option this is because of the fact that it involves both lifting as well as concentric phase as well as in lowering or eccentric phase.
Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because immunizations are actually more effective because of the small body size. their blood circulation is too slow. their immune systems are compromised. their body tissues are growing too slowly.
Answer:
Immune systems of malnourished children are compromised.
Explanation:
Immunizations in malnourished kids are less powerful on the grounds that their immune system is frail and can not react ordinarily to the procedure of inoculation.
Administrating immunizations to such kids can't enact their immune systems on the grounds that frail response are acquired and are not ready to deliver sufficient antibodies against pathogens or antigens.
Malnourished children have less effective immunizations due to weakened immune systems caused by malnutrition, influencing the immune response to vaccines.
Explanation:Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because their immune systems are compromised. Malnutrition, particularly inadequate protein intake, can lead to decreased activity of the complement system, malfunction of phagocytes, and reduced production of antibodies and cytokines. Conditions like undernutrition weaken children's immune responses, making them more prone to infections and reducing the effectiveness of immunizations.
Part of the tooth visible in the oral cavity.
Answer:
The correct answer is clinical crown.
Explanation:
In supplementation to possessing very unique activities, each tooth exhibits a particular location and comprises specific configurations that help in its activity. All teeth, having distinct shapes, exhibits similar anatomical parts. Each tooth exhibit a clinical crown, that is, the part of the teeth visible in the oral cavity.
The other parts are the anatomic crown and root. The tooth is connected with the below present alveolar bone with the help of fibers called periodontal ligaments. Each tooth comprises the same four constituents, that is, dentin, enamel, pulp, and cementum.
Stain formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources.
Answer:
The answer to this question: Satins formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources, would be: intrinsic staining.
Explanation:
When talking about tooth appearance and tooth health, people tend to see stains on teeth and wonder if the problem is a lack of hyginie from the person who has them, or if there might be a different reason. While indeed there are stains that are caused on the tooth due to bad nutritional habits, and bad hyginie, there are others, known as intrinsic staining, that happen due to causes that are beyond a person´s control. Intrinsic staining is defined as the stains that appear on the inside structure of a tooth, they are caused by problems in the formation of the tooth, and they cannot be removed by professionals, or by anything. It is almost like they are part of the tooth itself. Exposure to certain elements, such as antibiotics during teeth formation, can result in intrinsic staining.
Which o the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa?
a. The cilia can "taste" bitter toxins in the air.
b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin.
c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Cilia are tiny hair-like projections or appendages on the surface of the outside of the cells, in respiratory tract cells not move on which cilia are present, however, these projections are helpful in moving debris like microorganisms like bacteria, dust, and toxins out of the lungs.
Cilia can sense bitter toxins or substances in the air and remove or expel it, these present on the epithelial cells in the human airway that taste bitter compounds remove it. Cilia moving more rapid in turn of toxin response. The exposure time has no effective role in expelling the toxin by cilia.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Answer:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Explanation:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer choice for the question: The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
The popliteal pulse is the passage point of the brachial artery and it is in fact always found on the anterior surface of the elbow, medial to the tendons of the biceps. This major artery, the brachial artery, is the main vessel for the upper arms and it comes out of the axillary artery. As it tranverses down the upper arms, it reaches the cubital fossa of the elbow, where it divides into the radial and the ulnar arteries. When measuring blood pressure, it is usually this artery that is sought out and its sounds can be heard with a sthetoscope, and when using a sphygmomanometer, or blood presure cuff.
The pelvic splanchnic nerves supply
a. parasympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
b. sympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
c. sympathetic preganglionic fibers to the renal plexus.
d. sympathetic stimulation to the kidney
e. parasympathetic stimulation to the liver and pancreas.
Answer:
a. parasympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
Explanation:
Pelvic Splancnic nerves are referred to as Nervi erigentes and are meant to provide the parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut . They arise from the anterior rami of the sarcal nerves S2, S3, S4. Pathway is such that they innervate the pelvic and genital organs. ( therefore plays role in bladder emptying and erection of sexual organs) The parasympathtic nervous system is also called as the craniosarcal out flow , such that the pelvic splanchnic nerves are the sarcal component .
The patient is experiencing steatorrhea (fat in the stool). Test show that the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts is normal and the absorption of orally administered glucose is normal. A disorder in which of the following is most likely to be present?
A. Brush border enzyme level
B. Gastric motility
C. Ileal motility
D. Pancreatic enzyme secretion
E. Villus surface area
Answer:
The best answer from the choices given here, for the question: A disorder in which of the following is most likely to be present, would be, D: Pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation:
The process of fat digestion, and especially of absorption, is a pretty complex one, because there are many steps that must take place in order for the body to reduce complex lips into their most basic units, and use them. As such, aside from pH in the stomach, and the contact with lingual lipase, which starts the process of unwinding of the lipidic structures, most of the absorption of these nutrients happens in the small intestine and vital to it is the mixing of pancreatic enzymes, especially lipase, to break down the unions enough that the mycelles are formed and the villi can capture these nutrients to pass them on to the lymphatic system. Usually steatorrhea, which is presence of fats in the stool, happens for several different reasons, but in this patient, given the characteristics, it is evident that he is having problems with the secretion of pancreatic lipase, and the fats are not breaking up so that the small intestines cannot absorb them.
Final answer:
A disorder in pancreatic enzyme secretion is most likely to be present in a patient with steatorrhea when bile salt circulation and glucose absorption are normal. Pancreatic lipases are essential for fat digestion; their deficiency can lead to fat excretion in the stool.
Explanation:
The patient is experiencing steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool, indicative of a problem with lipid digestion and absorption. Considering the given test results that show normal enterohepatic circulation of bile salts and normal absorption of glucose, a disorder in pancreatic enzyme secretion is most likely to be present. Pancreatic enzymes, especially lipases, are crucial for breaking down dietary fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed in the intestine. Without sufficient pancreatic enzyme activity, triglycerides are not properly hydrolyzed, leading to their excretion in the stool as fat.
Lipid absorption typically occurs in the small intestine with the assistance of bile salts that emulsify dietary fats, making them accessible to pancreatic lipases. However, since bile salt circulation is normal in this patient, the condition suggests a deficiency in the enzymes required for lipid digestion rather than a problem with bile salts or intestinal surface area for absorption.
What are the tiny functioning units found within the cytoplasm called?
A. Organisms
B. Organ systems
C. Organelles
D. Organs
Answer:
C. Organelles
Explanation:
A cell is the structural and functional unit of all the living organisms. Every eukaryotic cell contains the tiny units located in the cytoplasm of a cell is called organelles. Examples of organelles are the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus.
These organelles are bounded by a unit membrane, they perform a specific function for the cell.
For example, the nucleus controls the activities of the cell, mitochondria works as a powerhouse of the cell, chloroplast present in green plants that performs the function of photosynthesis.
Part of the tooth covered with enamel.
Answer:
The answer to the question: The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel, would be: the crown of the tooth.
Explanation:
The human teeth are divided into two parts, a hardened one, which is the one we can see protruding from the gum line, and which is the one that we use to bite, pounce food and chew it before swallowing. This portion of the tooth is called the crown, it is the white, hardened, visible part, and it is covered with enamel to protect it from the mechanical and corrosive forces of both food, and saliva, as well as bacteria. The second portion of the tooth is known as the root, and it is the softer part that is protected and covered by the gums. The root anchors the tooth to the bone structures of the mandible and maxilla.
Answer:
The crown is the part of the tooth that is covered by enamel.
Explanation:
In the constitution of the tooth four distinct areas can be visualized: the enamel, the dentine, the cement and the pulp. The tooth has a part that comes out of the gums and another that is inside them. The visible outer part of the tooth that is covered by the enamel is called the crown. If it is broken or deteriorated for any reason, it does not have the possibility of self-reconstruction, so the dentist's intervention becomes essential.
Enamel coats the crown of the tooth and is quite hard, as it is the most mineralized tissue found anywhere in the human body. About 96% of its composition is mineralized material, while the remaining 4% is composed of water and organic materials. The thickness of the enamel, in turn, varies from the tip of the crown to the amelio-cementary junction. In the crown, the thickness is greater and decreases as you approach the gum.
Organization, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, development, growth and reproduction all together are called __________ of a human body.
This i weird to me because I know of these things to be summarized to be called the definitive of human life, not as a single word but that wouldn't fit in your sentence there so I don't know what it could possibly be? Comment if you could give me a little bit more of information about this. Hope u figure it out ^^.
ANSWER:
Organization, responsiveness, metabolism, movement, reproduction development and growth all together are called life processes of a human body.
EXPLANATION:
These life processes are the basic functions that the human body needs to carry out to survive. All these functions are interdependent and unique. Metabolism for instance is a process that provides energy to the body to do its work. Movement for instance can refer to the 'movement of substances' in the body; blood movement in the body is essential to provide oxygen to all parts of the body.During glycolysis
A) four molecules of ATP are produced.
B) two molecules of ATP are consumed.
C) a molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'E': Options A,B,C all are correct.
Explanation:
The reaction of glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that involves the breakdown of glucose molecule into pyruvate ion and releasing energy is termed as glycolysis.
Glycolysis involves breakdown of 1 molecule of glucose in presence of 2 molecules of ATP into 2 molecules of pyruvate and 4 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of water.