Answer:
paying attention to details, aware hearing, pacience
Explanation:
once i was providing information to a student (english class),i realized that the way he creates his ideas was very slow and trembling, when i asked him to read a piece of a paragraph i saw the same behaviour so i decifrated the problem was into reading word by word without conecting all of them with a constant pace until a coma or dot because we do interprate things holisticly and not individually so thanks of a pacient and responsive hearing i could saw his improvement in just one class!
What is the antibody involved in erythroblastosis fetalis?
Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules
Explanation:
Erythroblastosis also called as Hemolytic disease of fetus and the newborn, is a type of alloimmune condition that advance in the peripartum fetus, when the lgG molecule (antigen released and created by plasma B cells) produced by mother body passes through the wall of the placenta. These antibodies attack antigens the RBCs in fetal circulation resulting in the breaking down and also the destroying of the cells (hemolysis). Reticulocytosis and anemia can be developed by the fetus. This fetal disease ranges from mild to very severe (even death).
Which of the following statements is FALSE about fluid compartments and body fluid composition?
(a) Males generally have more muscle mass and therefore more water content than females
(b) Fluids such as lymph and plasma would be considered transcellul ar fhaids
(c) Nat and CI- are more heavily concentrated in extracellular fluids
(d) Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular
Answer:
Out of the four given statements, the false statement is
option d)
Explanation:
a) Muscle mass and hence water content is greater in males than in females
b) Transcellular fluid is the portion of total water content in the body which is contained within the lined spaces of epithelial tissue. It is a part of the extracellular fluid which includes plasma and lymph can also be considered as tanscellular fluid.
c) Na+ and Cl- are the major content of extracellular fluids
d) About 60% of water inside the body is contained within extracellular and not in intra cellular.
Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular is false about fluid compartment and body fluid composition.
What is Fluid compartment and body composition?Fluid compartment refer to fluid present inside all cells of the body which comprises of a compartment system that is largely segregated from other systems by hydrostatic pressure. This pressure help to exert a fluid against a wall.
Body fluid composition is refers to total fluid constituents or materials that are in the body. This involve the percentages of fat, bone, water and muscle in human bodies
Therefore, Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular is false about fluid compartment and body fluid composition.
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What is the name of the region inside the bladder bounded by the two uretal openings and the urethra?
a. Trigone
b. Detrussor muscle
c. Mucous layer
d. Transitional Epithelium
Answer:
The correct option is: a. Trigone
Explanation:
The trigone is the smooth triangular region that forms the floor of the urinary bladder above the urethra and consists of smooth tissues for the easy flow of urine. The trigone is connected to the two ureters and the urethra.
The trigone is very sensitive to expansion. Once expanded to a certain extent it signals the brain for the excretion of urine through the urethra.
Saltatory conduction is associated with which of the following?
A) dendrites
B) myelinated axon
C) unmyelinated axon
D) interneurons
Answer:
I believe it is B.
Explanation:
Hope my answer has helped you and if not i'm sorry.
Serous Membranes:
Identify the serous membrane the sentence describes.
A lubricating liquid in serous cavities _______________
Covers the surface of the lungs ____________________
Covers the surface of the abdominal organs ________________
Attaches the heart to the body cavity _____________________
Answer:
Serous Membranes:
Identify the serous membrane the sentence describes.
A lubricating liquid in serous cavities _______________
Covers the surface of the lungs ____________________
Covers the surface of the abdominal organs ________________
Attaches the heart to the body cavity _____________________
Explanation:
A lubricating liquid in serous cavities _______________
You can talk about two types of serous membranes, although in reality it is the same membrane with a different name depending on the position it occupies. Thus, the serosa that covers a cavity in a manner similar to the paint that covers the walls of a room, is called parietal serosa. While the serosa that covers the organs that are in that cavity, is called visceral serosa.
There are some organs whose serosa receives a specific name, usually due to the importance of its function. These are:
It covers the surface of the lungs ____________________
The pleura, around the lungs.
Covers the surface of the abdominal organs ________________
The peritoneum, which covers the abdominal cavity, enveloping a large part of the digestive organs.
Unite the heart to the body cavity _____________________
The pericardium, around the heart.
The serous membrane producing a lubricating liquid is serous fluid. The membranes that cover the lungs, abdominal organs, and the heart are respectively known as the pleura, peritoneum, and pericardium.
Explanation:The serous membranes described in your questions are as follows:
A lubricating liquid in serous cavities is known as serous fluid. The membrane that covers the surface of the lungs is referred to as the pleura. The membrane that covers the surface of the abdominal organs is known as the peritoneum. The serous membrane that attaches the heart to the body cavity is the pericardium.Learn more about Serous Membranes here:
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The respiratory membrane consists of the following except:
a. alveolar wall
b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane
c. epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall.
d. capillary basement membrane
e. capillary endothelial cells
Answer:
The answer is B: lymphatic vessel basement membrane.
Explanation:
The respiratory menbrana consists of the following elements:
1- A layer of liquid that covers the alveolus and that contains the substances that decrease the surface tension of the alveolar liquid.
2- The alveolar epithelium composed of fine epithelial cells.
3- A basal epithelial menbrana.
4- An interstitial space between the alveolus and the capillary menbrana.
5- A capillary endothelial menbrana.
The respiratory membrane does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure, which makes option b the correct answer to the question.
Explanation:The respiratory membrane consists of the alveolar wall, the epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall, the capillary basement membrane, and capillary endothelial cells. The correct answer to the question 'The respiratory membrane consists of the following except' is option b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane. The respiratory membrane is a blood-air barrier that facilitates the simple diffusion of gases such as the exchange of oxygen and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. It does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure.
Icd 10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy
Answer:
M 51.1
Explanation:
M or chapter XIII correspond to the musculoskeletical and connective tissue disorders. From M 50-54 are other dorsopathies, M51 are the intervetebral disc disorders.
The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2.
Explanation:The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2. The code M51.2 specifically represents "Other intervertebral disc displacement." It is important to note that ICD-10 codes provide specific classifications for various medical conditions and diagnoses, allowing healthcare providers to accurately document and code patient records.
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An excitatory neurotransmitter ______ the postsynaptic membrane.
a. depolarizes
b. repolarizes
c. hyperpolarizes
d. does not affect the polarity of
e. moves across channels in
Answer:
Depolarise.
Explanation:
Excitatory post synaptic potential may be defined as the potential that has the ability to fire an action potential. They have an additive effect on the membrane potential.
This post synaptic potential causes the influx of sodium ions and changes the membrane potential towards more negative. They causes the depolarization of the cell.
Thus, the answer is option (a).
An excitatory neurotransmitter a. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. Therefore , a. depolarizes is correct .
When an excitatory neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, it triggers a series of events that lead to a reduction in the membrane's resting potential, making it more likely to generate an action potential.
This depolarization brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold for firing an action potential, enhancing the excitability of the postsynaptic neuron.
In contrast, inhibitory neurotransmitters hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane, making it less likely to fire an action potential by moving the membrane potential further from the threshold.
The intricate balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters is essential for proper neural communication and the regulation of neuronal activity in the nervous system.
Neural communication is a complex process that relies on the precise interaction of neurons through synapses.
The transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at these specialized junctions, and neurotransmitters play a crucial role in this process.
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Inversion sprains produce damage to the lateral ligaments:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
The correct option is : c. Ankle
Explanation:
A sprain is a damage to the ligaments of a joint. A sprain typically occurs when the joint is stretched beyond its functional range of motion or due to a trauma. Sprains are most common to occur in the ankle joint and wrist joint.
About 70-85% of the ankle sprains are inversion sprains. An inversion ankle sprain happens when the foot is inverted out of its functional range of motion. This type of sprain damages the outer or the lateral ligaments of the ankle.
Which type of depression results in an individual with a manic-depressive illness.
a. major depression
b. dysthymia
c. bipolar disorder
d. seasonal affective disorder
e. all of these disorders
Answer:
The correct option is : c. bipolar disorder
Explanation:
A manic depressive illness also known as bipolar disorder, is a serious mental disorder in which the person experiences extreme mood swings ranging from manic highs to depressive lows. The manic highs includes high energy, abnormally elevated mood and reduced need for sleep. Whereas, depressive lows include low energy, loss of interest and even suicidal thoughts.
Therefore, bipolar disorder causes manic-depressive illness in an individual.
The mechanism under the therapeutio effect of lovastatin is:
A. inhbiting COx
B. inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
C. inhibiting thrombin
D. inhibiting Na-"K" ATPase
Answer:
(B). inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a drug, which is used to reduce risk for cardiovascular diseases and to reduce level of cholesterol in blood.
It works by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase (3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase) enzyme, required for the formation of mevalonate from HMG-CoA.
Mevalonate is building block for the biosynthesis of cholesterol. Hence, lovastatin inhibits cholesterol production by inhibiting synthesis of mevalonate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Explain the process of transcytosis.
Answer:
Macromolecules are transported from one space to another through a process of transcytosis or transcellular transport. It consists of a series of steps that will allow the mobility of macromolecules from one extracellular space to another, through the cellular menbrain, through a vesicle formation process. These vesicles maintain a certain load inside. The processes that are generated for the transcytosis process are those of endocytosis and exocytosis.
Transcytosis is an active transport process that involves the movement of substances across a cell via endocytosis followed by exocytosis, powered by ATP and necessary for transporting large molecules that cannot pass through the plasma membrane on their own.
Explanation:Transcytosis is an active transportation mechanism that encompasses both endocytosis and exocytosis. In transcytosis, a substance is first ingested into the cell by endocytosis, where the cell membrane enfolds the substance into a vesicle. This does not just involve macromolecules but can include particles, parts of cells, or entire cells. Endocytosis also provides a route for the absorption of nutrients that cannot permeate the hydrophobic plasma membrane directly.
Once inside the cell, the vesicle may travel through the cytoplasm. It is transported to the opposite side of the cell, where it is then expelled via exocytosis. This intricate process allows the cell to move substances across its body, effectively working as a cellular transport system for large and specific molecules that cannot simply diffuse through the cell membrane. It is powered by ATP, thus qualifying as an active transport process. Additionally, it plays a role in both the intake of extracellular substances and the removal of waste or secretion of cellular products.
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are called:
A. anobolic reactions
B. amphibolic reactions
C. amphipathic reactions
D. catabolic reactions
E. near-equilibrium reactions
Answer:
D. catabolic reactions
Explanation:
Metabolism employs catabolic reactions to break down large molecules (nutrients) carbohydrates, fats, proteins as food is ingested. Then they degrade the molecules , being smaller and releasing the energy we need in order to function. The metabolic processes ocurr in all cell of the body.
Catabolism and anabolic reactions are good companions as they occur together.
Final answer:
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are known as catabolic reactions. They release energy by breaking down molecules, which contrasts with anabolic reactions that build larger molecules and require energy input.
Explanation:
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are called catabolic reactions. These reactions are exergonic, meaning they release energy as they break down molecules into smaller units. Their importance lies in the fact that they provide the energy cells need to perform vital processes. Anabolic reactions, on the other hand, are endergonic, requiring the input of energy to build larger molecules from smaller ones. Since the digestion of food involves the breakdown of molecules to extract energy, the reactions occurring during digestion are catabolic. The role of enzymes is to catalyze both catabolic and anabolic reactions, facilitating biochemical processes at the temperatures and concentrations found within living organisms.
The 14th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that no state shall make or enforce any law...(which shall) deny any person with ts jurisdiction _________________
a. freedom to practice his/her religion
b. access to the printed word
c. the equal protection of the laws
d. trial by jury
Answer:
c. the equal protection of the laws
Explanation:
Section 1 of the Fourteenth Amendment establishes the requirements to be a U.S. citizen and some of their civil rights including "the equal protection of the laws." While the 5th Amendment requires the U.S. government to practice equal protection, the 14th Amendment requires states to practice it. The Equal Protection Clause guarantees the same rights, privileges, and protections to all citizens and therefore, it prevents states governments from having a preference to apply or not to apply laws to some individuals and not to others
Enzymes are:
a. biological catalysts.
b. have peptide nature (proteins).
c. agents that significantly speed up the rate of biochemical reaction.
d. all of the above.
Answer: All of the above.
Explanation:
Enzymes can be defined as the proteins that does nit takes part in the chemical or biochemical reaction but enhances the rate of reaction.
All the enzymes are proteinous in nature and gets denatured at a very high temperature. They are known as catalyst which can increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Hence, all the given options are correct regarding enzymes.
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the glomerulus and the processes that occur there?
a. Capsular hydrostatic pressure refers to the pressure of fluid pressing on the capsule and opposes filtration
b. Net filtration pressure in the glomerulus is the difference between forces favoring filtration and forces opposing filtration
c. Blood from the afferent arteriole is filtered by size when it enters the glomerulus because of the many fenestrae.
d. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers glomerular filtration rate.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
The vasoconstriction or the narrowing of the blood vessels regulate the filtration rate of the glomerulus. The afferent arteriole vasoconstriction decreases the flow of blood to the glomerulus thus, decreases the filtration rate
The vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole increases the glomerular filtration rate due to the increase in the blood level in the glomerular capillaries.
Thus, option D is the correct option.
The false statement about the glomerulus is that vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers the GFR, whereas it actually increases the GFR by increasing the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.
Explanation:The false statement about the glomerulus and the processes that occur there is option (d): Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Actually, vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole typically increases GFR by increasing hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus. The net filtration pressure in the glomerulus is indeed the difference between forces favoring filtration and forces opposing filtration, as stated in option (b). In option (a), capsular hydrostatic pressure does oppose filtration by pressing on the capsule's fluid. For option (c), blood from the afferent arteriole is filtered by size as it enters the glomerulus, which is facilitated by the many fenestrae (pores) present that allow the passive diffusion of solutes, except for macromolecules like proteins.
A nurse on a medical unit is administering heparin by continuous IV infusion to a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The client’s most recent aPTT is 70 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Increase the IV infusion rate.
b. Decrease the IV infusion rate.
c. Discontinue the IV infusion.
d. Continue the IV infusion.
Answer:
it's wild guess I'm say a is answer
Which of the following is associated with the pharynx?
a. it begins at the external nares.
b. it is a tube lined with a mucous membrane
c. it s usually called the voice box or Adam's apple
d. it begins at the fauces and ends at the epiglottis
e. it is a tube composed of smooth muscle
Answer:
The answer is B: It is a tube lined with a mucous membrane.
Explanation:
The pharynx is a smooth tube approximately 12 cm long, which begins at the level of the neck and ends at the epiglottis, is related to both breathing and oral use; it is lined with a mucous menbrana; emits intelligible sounds, being the biggest resonator.
Other symptoms of fat embolism include all the following:
a. AMS
b. Drowsiness
c. Seizures
d. petechiae
e. Nodular rash
Answer:
The answer is D petechiae.
Explanation:
The petechiae appear between 48 and 72 hours after the pathological condition is established, leading to punctiform lesions of petiquial aspect at the flank, anterior thorax and axilla. Petechiae occur when capillaries bleed and blood is shed on the skin.
Which of the following would interfere most with the ability of an enzyme to catalyze a reaction?
a. Reduced concentration of substrate available
b. Reduced concentration of product available
c. Increased concentration of substrate available
d. A change in the pH
Answer:
d. A change in the pH
Explanation:
Enzymes are defined as biocatalysts that increase the rate of the reactions by decreasing activation energy for those reactions. Most of the enzymes are protein molecules, made up of polymerization of amino acids.
Function of proteins depends on their primary sequence and proper folding. Protein molecules get denatured in unfavorable conditions and they lost their function.
As enzymes are also proteins, change in pH and temperature lead to denaturation of enzyme molecules by changing their active sites (sites where substrate binds).
Hence, from given conditions, change in pH would most affect the ability of enzymes to catalyze a reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
Financial status overall
Location of entries, exits, stairs
Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
Family's understanding of the client's needs
Answer: The answer is; location of entries, exits, and stairs
Explanation:
The RN should always access the home situation before discharging a patient. The RN should take into account where the stairs, exits, etc are in case the patient is unable to get around in the home. If the patient is unable to walk and lives in a 2 story apartment building and can't manage the stairs, other arrangements must be made.
The family's understanding of the client's needs should be given priority consideration, as it directly impacts the client's safety and post-discharge recovery. Option d is correct.
This is because the family's comprehension directly influences the client's safety and adherence to post-hospitalization care plans. Without adequate understanding, the family might not effectively support the client, which could lead to adverse outcomes.Assessing family understanding is vital as it helps ensure they can assist with medication management, recognize signs of potential complications, and provide emotional support. Moreover, involving the family in the discharge planning process fosters a supportive home environment that can significantly impact the client's overall recovery and well-being.While other factors like financial status, home's physical safety aspects (entries, exits, stairs), and proximity to emergency care are also important, the immediate and ongoing understanding of the client's needs by their family is paramount for a smooth transition and recovery.Complete question as follows:
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
a. Financial status overall
b. Location of entries, exits, stairs
c. Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
d. Family's understanding of the client's needs
which of the following is a characteristic of low- context culture
Answer:
Efficiency and speed are valued
Explanation:
Which lobe of the cerebrum is involved with vision?
a. frontal
b. occipital
c. temporal
d. insula
When asthma attacks, the patient can hardly breathe. Which of the following should probably be administered to the patient?
a. norepinephrine, to relax smooth muscle in the bronchioles and increase airflow
b. antihistamine, to counteract the bronchoconstriction caused by histamine
c. ACh, to increase bronchoconstriction
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The answer is D: A and B are correct
Explanation:
During an acute asthmatic crisis it is mandatory to act quickly to improve the ventilation of the patient, the use of bronchodilators and antistamines through the nose, give good results in these conditions, especially in children.
Anorexia nervosa is the chronic fear of:
a. eating.
b. getting fat.
c. being lazy.
d. vomiting.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Anorexia nervosa is the chronic fear of:____, would be, B: Getting fat.
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa, like other such alimentary disorders, is defined as the abnormal fear that people have to gaining weight. In order to prevent it, they resort to all kinds of methods to prevent that from happening. The real problem lies in the distorted way that the person perceives his/her body, with the result always being that they think they are fat. The fear of gaining weight makes them almost paranoid in reducing calorie intake, or getting rid of any calories present, if they have eaten anything at all. The answer is B, because these patients, more than an aversion to food, have an aversion to seeing themselves fat.
Answer:
B getting fat
explanation
The small intestine extends from _______________ to the large intestine for about 6 meters (20 feet). It is suspended in the abdominal cavity by the ___________ which anchors it to the posterior abdominal wall.
Answer:
The answer is 1) Pylorus, 2) Mesentery
Explanation:
The small intestine extends from the stomach at the level of the pylorus, to the large intestine. It is suspended in the abdomen by the mesentery that fixes it to the posterior abdominal wall.
The mesentery is a thin sheet of tissue, continuation of the peritoneum that is made up of two portions, one internal or visceral and the other external or parietal.
A patient is suspected of having tuberculosis. What type of stain would be the most diagnostic?
a) Spore
b) Gram
c) Acid fast
d) Capsule
e) Methylene Blue
Answer: c) Acid fast
Explanation:
The Tuberculosis or TB is a pulmonary disease characterized by fever, weight loss, night sweats and most of the times a productive cough. In some patients there is cough with blood in the sputum.
It is produced by a bacteria called Mycobacterium tuberculosis who has a rod (bacillus) morphology. Additionally, it has a special component in its cell wall: Mycolic acid, a very long fatty acid.
When there is a presumption of the presence of Tuberculosis, the most inexpensive way to look for it is by taking a sample of sputum or phlegm. Then, it has to be stained with the ACID FAST also called the ZIEHL NEELSEN stain. If there are bright red bacilli, then the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is confirmed.
The region where somatic neurons bind on a skeletal muscle is called:
a) Sarcolemma
b) Plasma membrane
c) Motor end plate
d) Synaptic terminal
e) Synaptic bouton
Answer:
The answer is C: motor end plate.
Explanation:
The region where somatic neurons join a skeletal muscle is known as a motor terminal plate. These plates are formed by an axon and a muscle fiber. Depolarization is produced by a nerve stimulation activating the corresponding muscle; Each muscle has its own motor plate and its corresponding axon.
What are microvilli/cilia? What are their functions?
Answer:
Many cells in the body have extensions of their cellular menbrana, which depending on their length can be cilia or microvilli, which are the shortest. We see the case, for example, the microvilli found in the small intestine, more abundant at the level of the second and third portions of the intestine, which favors the great absorption of liquids, proteins and nutrients that occur at this level.
Cilia are cellular structures that have a more defined formation and are characterized by their nucleus being made up of proteins and enveloped by the cytosol and plasma menbrana. They are presented as an appendix in the form of hair; We will find these cilia in the cells of the respiratory system and in the reproductive system where they help the mobility of foreign bodies (respiratory system) and the movements of sperm (reproductive system).
During infection with Salmonella it primarily replicates in the?
a) Intestinal lining
b) Liver cells
c) Macrophages
d) Gallbladder tissues
Answer:
The answer is A intestinal lining
Explanation:
Salmonella typhi is a bacterium that is located in the intestine of the host producing a diarrheal disease that can be acute or chronic, since at the level of the intestine it is usually where we will find it.