I think the organism ii bacteria
Radiation
Definition: (type here)
3 additional examples of radiation (besides the pictured) (type here)
Geneticists analyze pedigrees to follow the inheritance of genetically controlled conditions. Three things must be determined in a pedigree analysis:
The mode of inheritance of the condition. In this tutorial, this means deciding if a condition is caused by an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive allele.
The genotypes of individuals in the pedigree (as far as can be known) based on their phenotype and the phenotypes of their parents or children.
The probability that certain individuals will have the condition. This requires assigning probability values to some individuals whose genotypes cannot be determined with certainty. It also requires an understanding of how and when to apply the product and sum rules.
Part A - Determining the mode of inheritance
The pedigrees below show the inheritance of three separate, rare autosomal conditions in different families. For each pedigree, decide if the condition is betterexplained as recessive or dominant.
Drag the correct label to the appropriate location. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
The pedigrees have not been provided. They have been attached.
Answer:
Pedigree 1 : Autosomal recessive
Pedigree 2 : Autosomal dominant
Pedigree 3 : Autosomal recessive
Explanation:
It has been given that the traits are autosomal i.e. they are not controlled by X and Y genes. We have to further find out if they are inherited in recessive pattern (autosomal recessive) or in dominant pattern (autosomal dominant).
Pedigree 1: Out of the three generations, the trait is only observed in one. This usually happens in recessive inheritance as two recessive alleles must be together to express the condition and this event has less chances of occurring. Also, it is visible how normal parents in first generation had a daughter with the recessive trait. This is possible if the parents were heterozygous for the trait or "carriers". They contributed one recessive allele each in the next generation due to which the daughter showed the recessive phenotype. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Pedigree 2: Out of the four generations, the trait is expressed in three. This usually happens in dominant inheritance as only one allele is needed to express the trait so both dominant homozygous and heterozygous individuals will show it. Thus, this is most probably a dominant condition.
Pedigree 3: This trait also skipped generations which is a feature of recessive traits. As with pedigree 1, the trait disappeared in pedigree and reappeared when two recessive alleles came together again. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Final answer:
Pedigree analysis helps determine whether a genetic condition is autosomal dominant or recessive by studying how the condition is transmitted across generations. Genotypes are inferred based on family member phenotypes, and the probability of inheriting the condition is estimated using genetic principles and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium considerations.
Explanation:
Geneticists analyze pedigrees to deduce the mode of inheritance of genetic conditions. This involves determining whether a condition is autosomal dominant (AD) or autosomal recessive (AR). For an autosomal dominant condition, the presence of the disease in each generation and the transmission from an affected individual to about half of their offspring suggests the AD pattern. In contrast, an autosomal recessive condition usually appears in siblings without appearing in earlier generations unless there is consanguinity (inbreeding), indicative of the AR pattern.
Additionally, genotypes of individuals in the pedigree are inferred using phenotypes of family members and applying principles like the product and sum rules to predict the probability of inheriting the condition. When a pedigree shows a condition affecting both genders equally and doesn't skip generations, it is likely autosomal dominant. However, if the condition skips generations and affected individuals are often the children of unaffected, related parents, it is likely autosomal recessive.
When the exact genotype cannot be determined, probabilities are assigned to various genotypes. With the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele and genotype frequencies in a large, randomly-mating population remain constant across generations unless affected by factors like mutation or selection.
What is mechanical digestion? And chemical digestion? What type of digestion occurs in the mouth.
Mechanical digestion involves physically breaking down food into smaller pieces through chewing and swallowing, and begins in mouth and stomach. Chemical digestion involves breaking down food into simpler molecules with enzymes, starting in the mouth but mainly occurring in the small intestine.
Mechanical digestion refers to the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces which can be further processed by enzymes. In the mouth, mechanical digestion involves the process of chewing, which grinds food down into smaller pieces, and the action of swallowing.
Chemical digestion, on the other hand, is the chemical breakdown of food into simpler molecules by digestive enzymes. In the mouth, salivary enzymes begin the chemical digestion of carbohydrates. Both mechanical and chemical digestion occur in the mouth. While mechanical digestion continues in the stomach, chemical digestion is most extensive in the small intestine, helped by secretions from the pancreas and liver.
Sequence the events that take place when a motor neuron's action potential triggers a muscle contraction.
a) The motor neuron's action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
b) Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.
c) The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes in response to the arrival of acetylcholine.
d) Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed.
e) The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.
f) The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules.
Answer:
A,C,F,E,D,B
Explanation:
The is the sequence of action potential transmission at at the neuromuscular junction. Generally the arrival of action potential from the presynptic neuron caused influx of ca+ which causes migration and the release of the the acetycholine to the synaptic cleft.
The acetycholine binds with the receptors on the saccolemma to causes opening of Na+ , its influx to causes depolarizarion of the sacolemma. The depolarization of the latter spreads along the transverse tubules, This depolarization causes increases in the permeability of the sacorplasmic reticulum, with opening of ca+ channels and diffusion of Ca+ out of the S. reticulum.
The Ca+ binds to troponin,and tropomyosin exposed the myosin-binding sites on actin filament . The myosin head forms the cross bridges with the filament, and therefore the sacomere shortens leading causing muscle contraction.
A motor neuron is a specialized type of brain cell where the neurons are located in the spinal cord of the brain. They are differentiated into the upper and lower neuron cells.
A. The motor neuron's action potential takes place at the neuromuscular junction. C. The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes. F. The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules. E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.D. Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed. B. Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.Hence the correct options are A, C, F, E, D, and B.
Learn more about the events that take place when a motor neuron's actions.
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Describe five cultural or societal values (anything to do with humans except
economy) of an estuary.
Answer:
Explanation:
Estuary is a part of a coastal body where the fresh water and stream meet with the ocean.
1. Recreation: estuary is important for recreation activities ( i.e the activities done in our leisure time) like boating, fishing surfing and bird watching.
2. Scientific knowledge: it serves as a basis for laboratories for scientists, for poets to learn, painters to be inspired and acquire knowledge, bird watchers.
3. Education: It provide quality lessons and inspired ideas in biology,geology, chemistry, physics, history , social studies e.t.c.
4. Aesthetic values. It provide aesthetic values and enjoyment for humans.
5. Food: some of the product gotten from estuary like lobsters are consumed as food by humans.
A strand of DNA that is 36 nucleotides long codes for how many amino acids?
Answer:
See answer below
Explanation:
Hi there,
Assuming this DNA strand is fully capable of being mature mRNA (5' m7G cap and PolyA tail), nucleotides lead to an mRNA codon, which is 3 nucleotides per codon. In turn, 1 codon leads to 1 amino acid. However, as a single strand, it must be capable of terminating translation, which always requires a stop codon, and thus 3 nucleotides. Hence, we must subtract this from the total amount of codons first.
[tex]36 \ ncltd \ \frac{1 \ codon}{3 \ ncltd} = 12 \ codon\\12 \ codon - 1 \ codon \ = 11 \ codon\\11 \ codons\ \frac{1 A.A.}{1 \ codon} = 11 \ A. A.[/tex]
Hence, only 11 amino acids will be coded by a single DNA strand 36 ncltd long.
thanks,
Biology shows us the fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows us that organic molecules can come from inorganic matter. Geology shows us that organisms that used to live together are found on separate continents due to continental drift. Which fields of science provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
All of this fields of science is very important that provide evidence for evolution. if we look at biology, it shows how the organism change over time. geology can get us information about the fossils, soil and other things and chemistry can show us every molecule in our body to environment.
Explanation:
Biology, geology, and chemistry all the three field of science provide evidence for the evolution of species. Thus, all the options are correct.
What is Evolution?Evolution of a species can be defined as the gradual process of development. Evolution is the change in heritable traits of the biological populations of different species over successive generations. Evolutionary processes helps to give rise to diversity at every biological organization level. All the different life forms on earth shares a common ancestor known as the last universal ancestor.
Biology shows fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows the age of fossils and their nature. Geology shows that the organisms which live together have separated into different continents with time.
Therefore, all the options are correct.
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Identify the function of the following different types of RNA molecules:
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
Answer:
Explanation:
mRNA is used to produce proteins from genes. rRNA, along with protein, forms the ribosome, which translates mRNA. tRNA is the link between the two other types of RNA.
Water-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, and excess intake is generally excreted. Fortification of foods in the United States has reduced the incidence of deficiencies for many of these vitamins, but inadequate intake is still possible. Toxicity is less likely since these vitamins are not stored in the body, but excessive intake can still cause undesirable symptoms in some cases.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate options.1. --------------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin causes beriberi, which is characterized by weakness, swelling, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.2. ------------------------------------ : A severe deficiency of this vitamin causes the disease pellagra.3.------------------------------ : A deficiency of this vitamin is very rare, but those with inadequate intakes can experience numbness, muscle cramps, and difficulty walking.4. ----------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to sore tongue, skin inflammation, depression, confusion, or anemia.5. -------------------------------: Neural tube defects, like spina bifata, can occur if this nutrient is not consumed in adequate amounts during pregnancy.6. ------------------- : Those who follow a vegan diet without supplementation are at increased risk of deficiency for this vitamin.7. --------------------------- : Scurvy symptoms, caused by a deficiency of this nutrient, include rough skin rash and wounds that will not heal.
Options:a. vitamin B6b. vitamin B12c. niacind. folatee. thiaminf. vitamin Ce. pantothenic acid
Answer:
1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C
Explanation:
1. Beriberi is a disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin 1, also known as thiamine. The symptoms of beriberi includes swelling, weakness, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.
2. Pellagra is caused by lack of the vitamin niacin Symptoms include inflamed skin, dementia, diarrhea and sores in the mouth.
3. Vitamin B5 or pantothenic vitamin deficiency include symptoms such as insomnia, numbness, irritability, stomach pains, burning feet, muscle cramps and difficulty in walking.
4. Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes skin inflammation, sore tongue, depression and anemia.
5. Folate regulate the neural system and deficiency of folate causes defects in neural tube such as spina bifata during pregnancy.
6. Vitamin B12 is found in animal products such as meat, fish, poultry, milk, eggs, and milk products. This vitamin is absent in plant or vegan diet and are more prone to its deficiency.
7. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C. Its symptoms include include depression, fatigue and connective tissue defects .
Hence, the correct answer for the blanks is 1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C.
What are the subcomponents of DNA?
Answer:
Featured snippet from the web
It consists of a 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose), phosphate group, and nitrogen bases. ... DNA's nitrogen bases are called: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.
A cell that neither gains nor loses a net amount of water at equilibrium when it is immersed in a solution is ________. Group of answer choices hypertonic to its environment hypotonic to its environment metabolically inactive isotonic to its environment
Answer:
Isotonic to its environment
Explanation:
Isotonic means 'the same'. A cell that is isotonic to its environment is the type of cell that doesn't lose or gain water because equal amounts go in and out of the cell. The environment extracellular fluid has the same osmolarity as the cell thus, there will be no net movement of water into or out of the cell.
Four weather satellites are orbiting the Earth at a height of 825 kilometers. Some characteristics of the satellites are shown in the table below. Upon which satellite does the Earth’s gravity exert the greatest force?
Answer:
The satellite to which the Earth's gravity exert the greatest force is:
The fourth.
Explanation:
The reason behind this is that in the first place there is no correlation between gravity force and length of an object. In the second place, the distance between all o them and the earth is the same. Now in the third place, the mass of the fourth Satelite is bigger than the rest, therefore it is the one that is dragged to the earth's gravity with a stronger pull because with bigger mass bigger gravity force.
Answer:
Its D on study island
Explanation:
if you're not sure that its D these are the numbers that should be in the chart:
5.6, 825, 903
If two traits among flowers, dwarfism and stem color, were on the same pair of chromosomes, would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross? Use Mendel’s laws and your understanding of meiosis to explain your answe
Answer:
Yes, there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a ratio 9:3:3:1
Explanation:
According to Mendel's law of segregation, alleles of a gene pair separate at the time of game formation.
According to the Law of independence, the alleles sort independently into the gametes.
Even if the two traits under study are located on the same chromosome, they will segregate and assort independently at the time of gamete formation.
Also, at the time of meiosis, one of the alleles will arise from each parent hence there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
Crossing over and independent assortment depends on how distant genes are from each other. In the exposed example, if genes are not linked, the phenotypic ratio among the progeny is expected to be 9:3:3:1.
-----------------------------------
⇒ Independent Assortment
Independent assortment law establishes that during gamete formation, the alleles from two or more different genes distribute independently from each other.
In other words, a gamete can receive alleles from different genes that do not depend nor influence each other during segregation.
Each gamete receives alleles that were randomly distributed.
Independent assortment law only applies to independent genes, not linked genes.
⇒ Independent Genes
These genes segregate independently after crossing over because they are located far away from each other in the same chromosome, or they are at different chromosomes.
⇒ Linked Genes
These genes are too close to each other in the same chromosome, that they do not segregate independently.
They are placed so close, that they can not distribute independently from each other, and they inherit together more frequently.
Crossing-over between linked genes that are very close to each other in the chromosome is not that common.
⇒ Crossing over events
Crossing-over during meiosis occurs randomly in different positions all along the chromosome.
Its occurrence frequency in the area between two genes depends on the distance between them.
A short distance between genes is a very little target for crossing-over to occur, which means that only a few of them will happen, compared with the number of events between genes that are more separated from each other.
There are few chances of crossing over and recombination events between two linked genes. These genes are strongly bounded.
The more distant two genes are, the higher chances of recombination events over there are.
The closer they are, the fewer chances of recombination there are.
⇒ Distances in Map Units
When the distance between genes is inferior to 50 Map Units, genes are considered to be linked, and they do not assort independently.
When the distance between two genes equals or exceeds 50 Map Units, genes are not linked and they distribute independently from each other.
**************************************
Would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross?
According to this framework, we could say that the probability of getting a phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 among the F2 depends on how distant genes are from each other.
We already know that they are placed in the same chromosome.
If the distance between them is inferior than 50 MU,
They are linkedNo crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among the progeny different from 9:3:3:1If the distance between them equals or exceeds 50 MU,
They are not linkedThere are higher probabilities of crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among progeny 9:3:3:1----------------------
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What is the name of the neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system
Answer:
i) Acetylcholine.
ii) Neurotransmitter which is released by postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system is Nor-epinephrine.
which of the following could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing?
An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
What is speciation?Speciation has a slow process which has been associated with the emergence of the reproductive isolation barriers in the population. These barriers lead to the absence of the gene flow as well as eventually to the emergence of the new species. In the conclusion an available niche will be lead to the speciation in other competing species.
The Ordovician mass extinction. Jawless fish and ocean reefs were devastated by the end of the Ordovician mass extinction. Overfishing is one of the major concern no a days in aquatic systems. overfishing is resulting in the extinction of aquatic organisms and it can lead to several damage to other living organism.
Therefore, An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
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Which two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants?
Two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants are :
muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
The fuzzy millipede, Polyxenus fasciculatus, is found in Texas and is preyed upon by most species of ants. Most millipedes defend themselves with a variety of chemicals secreted from pores along the body, although the tiny bristle millipedes are covered with tufts of detachable bristles. Due to their lack of speed and their inability to bite or sting, millipedes' primary defence mechanism is to curl into a tight coil – protecting their delicate legs inside an armoured exoskeleton.Reproduction in most species is carried out by modified male legs called gonopods, which transfer packets of sperm to females.Millipedes overwinter, so they may hide in cracks or crevices throughout the whole winter and emerge in the spring.These insects live in dark, damp places and feed on decaying plant life, sometimes damaging crops. But they can serve a good purpose too.To protect itself against the ants, it ejects fibers from a tuft located at the tail end of its body. When an ant attacks, the millipede flexes its back end toward the ant and wipes the tufts against it.
Answer:
Muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
I just did it
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
Answer:
Seen on the explanation.
Explanation:
Glandular tissues are a mixture of both endocrine (ductless, hormones are secreted directly into the blood) and exocrine (have ducts, hormones are secreted into surfaces) glands.
The pancreas and salivary glands are both exocrine glands although the pancreas has an endocrine function via the islets of Langerhans, both aid in the digestion of food.
The pancreas lacks striated ducts and the intralobular duct is similar to the intercalated duct of salivary glands. It often has a collapsed lumens and the cells are cuboidal with little cytoplasmic staining in contrast to acinar cells.
The pancreas can also be distinguished from the parotid gland by the presence of the pancreatic islet (islets of langerharns) which has an endocrine function.
The correct feature unique to the pancreas that would help distinguish it from the salivary gland is the presence of both exocrine and endocrine functions.
The pancreas is a unique organ in that it has both exocrine and endocrine functions, which is a key feature that distinguishes it from the salivary gland. The exocrine function of the pancreas is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes that are secreted into the duodenum to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. These enzymes are produced by the acinar cells and are transported through a system of ducts, eventually emptying into the pancreatic duct and then into the duodenum.
In contrast, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the production of hormones such as insulin and glucagon by the islets of Langerhans. These hormones are secreted directly into the bloodstream and are crucial for the regulation of blood glucose levels.
On the other hand, the salivary gland is primarily an exocrine gland, composed of serous and mucous cells that produce saliva. Saliva contains enzymes like salivary amylase, which begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth, and it also contains mucus to lubricate food for swallowing. However, the salivary gland does not have an endocrine function.
Therefore, the presence of both digestive enzyme-secreting exocrine tissue and hormone-secreting endocrine tissue is the distinguishing feature of the pancreas that sets it apart from the salivary gland.
The complete question - contain a image added below-
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and her colleagues carried out several experiments in an attempt to understand what determines the anterior and posterior ends of a Drosophila larva (reviewed in C. NüssleinVolhard, H. G. Frohnhofer, and R. Lehmann. 1987. Science 238:1675– 1681). They isolated fruit flies with mutations in the bicoid gene (bcd−). These flies produced embryos that lacked a head and thorax. When they transplanted cytoplasm from the anterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a mutant bicoid female, normal head and thorax development took place in the embryo. However, transplanting cytoplasm from the posterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a bicoid female had no effect. Explain these results in regard to what you know about proteins that control the determination of the anterior–posterior axis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Bicoid gene is the maternal effect gene whose protein concentration gradient patters the anterior-posterior axis in Drosophila embryogenesis. It was the primary protein that is demonstrated to act as a morphogen. Morphogens are proteins whose concentration gradient will affect the developmental fate of the surrounding region.
The specified bicoid gene is the one which codes for bicoid protein. This protein is being existing in a gradient manner in the egg and thus its concentration is higher at the anterior end and lower in posterior end.
This bicoid protein is responsible for the stimulation of the development of the anterior end.
The posterior region (including the hindgut) expands and extends towards the anterior pole along the dorsal side of the embryo. At this time, segments of the embryo become visible, creating a striped arrangement along the anterior-posterior axis.
True Or False?
It is possible for gases in the atmosphere to change the behavior of energy on Earth.
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Answer:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Explanation:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Which clas does honey bee belong too?
Answer:
Insect
Explanation:
Are you looking for class or kingdom?
Answer:
The honey bee belongs to the INSECT class
Explanation:
If a diploid cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes (2n = 8) during G1, how many DNA double helices will be present in G1? in G2? in metaphase? in each daughter cell after cell division is complete?
Answer:
At G1- 8
At G2 - 16
At metaphase - 16
In daughter cells - 8
Explanation:
In the G1 phase which is the growth phase before the S phase (DNA synthesis), the number of DNA double helices present will be 8 double helices.
In the G2 phase, which is the phase after the S phase i. e. doubling of the chromosomes, the number of DNA double helices here increases by which which makes it sixteen and the chromosome number is still 8 because each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids which occurs after replication.
In metaphase there is still sixteen double helices which is eight chromosomes with 2 sister chromatids each lying on the metaphase plate.
After cell division, each daughter cell will have eight double helices each just like the parent.
elements are joined chemically
mixuture or compound
Answer:
compounds
Explanation:
compounds are chemically combined
mixtures are not chemically combined
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You hypothesize that a transcriptional regulator may control expression of specific genes in LB medium, and want to find out what these genes are. You have made a set of strains (i.e., library) in which a promoterless lacZ was inserted at varied chromosomal locations. Design an experiment to identify these genes using agar plates with LB and X-gal. Describe the steps in this procedure.
Answer:
if the promoterless lacZ is inserted close to any gene(s) or operon, then the laz gene will also be transcribed when the operon gets expressed. The polycystronic RNA will eventually produce a beta-galactosidase protein(product of lacZ gene) which will cleave X-Gal( structural analog to lactose), which will produce blue chromogenic substance.
prepare LB agar. Allow it to cool, add X-gal before it solidifies, pour to plates.
create grids and patch plate each strain on it. Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ and sequence it.
Explanation:
Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ, and sequence it.
Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice In the United States, molds and parasitic worms are responsible for most cases of food-borne illness. In the United States, most fruits, vegetables, mushrooms, and deli meats undergo irradiation to preserve them. Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness. Sulfites are added to grain products during the enrichment process.
Answer:
Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness.
Explanation:
Immune system in the body helps to fight against pathogenic organisms which gets into the body. The organisms are capable of causing varying illnesses according to their form and types.
This explains why Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness. This is because their immune system won’t be able to fight well against these pathogens.
The statement Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness is true.
This statement is true because these groups are more vulnerable to foodborne pathogens.
Sulfites are not commonly added to grain products during the enrichment process. Instead, they are often used as preservatives in dried fruits and wine.
Microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, parasites, and prions are the common causes of foodborne diseases in the United States.
What are the four basic characteristics that result in natural selection? Explain how bacteria encountering an antibiotic exhibit each of these characteristics. How was "cycling" supposed to slow the evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria? What situation did Carl build a model of? What did that model predict? How did he test his model? Describe one situation in which you could use an experiment to test a hypothesis about evolution. What are some of the benefits of using a computer model to test an idea instead of an experiment?
Answer:
Explanation:
1) Four characteristics that results in natural selection are: 1)reproduction,
2)heredity,
3)variation in fitness
4)variation in individual
Antibiotic resistance of bacteria can not be described as instance of evolution but as a kind of variation arround some kind of bacteria.
Antibiotics refers to substances that are secreted by bacteria and fungi to destroy other bacteria that can be competing for small nutrients with them.this substances is used in treatment of people today
Some bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics by different type of alterations as well as mutations, in each their DNA.
Bacteria that are resistant to modern antibiotics has been detected in dead bodies that has been frozen before the discoveries of the antibiotics
Bacteria can become resistance by these different ways such as;
1. Through mutation
2) through Gene transfer( DNA swapping
An antibiotic kills a bacterial cell by simply disrupting a critical function. This is achieved in the cell in much the same way that a saboteur can cause a massive jetliner to crash by simply cutting the hydraulic lines.
2) Antibiotic cycling refers to process in which antibiotic heterogeneity takes place.it is a method use in ICU where the emergency of resistance that takes place because of small antibiotics class is reduced.
3)Carl's modeling evolution is found in antibiotic resistance process, modelling of new human pathogens, especially HIV. He also model on how evolution of pathogens is affected by immune system . modeling gives room to make predictions about evolution.
4)Some experiment were conducted by Charles Darwin to support hypothesis of evolution, such experiment included phototropism also insectivorous nature of Drosera.
5)The Main benefit of using
computer model to test an idea instead of an experiment are to do the thorough Study the behavior of a system even you haven't build it. The results from the simulation is usually accurate when , compared to analytical model. It is very simple to perform and helps to detect un-expected phenomenon about the system
The four basic characteristics that lead to natural selection are variation, inheritance, high rate of population growth, and differential survival and reproduction. These are illustrated when bacteria encounter antibiotics, with resistant bacteria surviving and passing their genes to subsequent generations. Computer models offer an efficient and ethical alternative for studying long-term evolutionary processes.
The four basic characteristics that result in natural selection are variation, inheritance, high rate of population growth, and differential survival and reproduction. When bacteria encounter antibiotics, these principles come into play. First, there is variation within the population of bacteria as some may possess genes that confer resistance to the antibiotic. Through inheritance, these genes can be passed on to the next generation. With the selective pressure of the antibiotic, which kills the non-resistant bacteria, the resistant ones survive and reproduce. This differential survival and reproduction mean that over time, the population evolves to consist mostly of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
The idea of “cycling” antibiotics was to slow this evolution by regularly changing the type of antibiotics used, thereby reducing the constant pressure for the bacteria to develop resistance to any one type.
Regarding the mention of Carl's model, without additional context, it is challenging to address what situation Carl built a model of, what it predicted, and how he tested it. Therefore, that part of the question can't be answered confidently.
In terms of testing a hypothesis about evolution, one could design an experiment where one group of bacteria is exposed to an antibiotic and another is not. Over time, the genetic makeup of the two groups can be compared to observe evolutionary changes.
Computer models are advantageous as they can save time and resources, allow for the study of long-term processes, and mitigate ethical or practical constraints associated with real-world experiments.
What process creates the sand dune
Answer:
A dune is a mound of sand formed by the wind, usually along the beach or in a desert. Dunes form when wind blows sand into a sheltered area behind an obstacle. Dunes grow as grains of sand accumulate. Every dune has a windward side and a slipface.
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Explanation:
Answer:
deflation
Explanation:
The kidney is referred to as an excretory organ because it excretes ______ wastes. It is also a major homeostatic organ because it maintains the electrolyte _________, and _______ balance of the blood.
Answer:
Nitrogenous;Acid-Base and Fluid
Explanation:
The kidney is referred to as an excretory organ because it excretes nitrogenous wastes. It is also a major homeostatic organ because it maintains the electrolyte Acid-Base, and fluid balance of the blood.
Answer:
Nitrogenous wastes, acid-base, fluid balance.
Explanation:
Kidneys are bean shaped organs present in pairs i vertebrates. These are an excretory organ. Nephron is the basic structural and functional unit of kidneys. It excretes the nitrogenous wastes in the form of urine which is continuously formed. Kidneys are also play major role in body homeostasis by maintaining the electrolyte, acid-base and fluid balance of the blood. Kidneys are act as a hormone because it produces the erythropoietin hormone which help in the formation of red blood cells in the human body.There are several possible mutations in the trp operon:
1.
trpP - is a mutation in the promoter sequence that prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and initiate transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpOc is a mutation in the operator sequence that prevents the trp repressor protein from binding to the operator to block transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpR- is a mutation in the repressor protein that either prevents repressor protein from being made or produces a mutant repressor that cannot bind to the operator region.
trpRs is a mutation in the repressor protein that causes the repressor to be more sensitive to tryptophan levels. This mutant repressor binds the operator region even when tryptophan is low.
2. If you were to make a partial diploid with the genotype trp R+ trpOc / trpRs trpO+, what would happen? What is the dominance relationship between trpOc and trpRs?
a. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpRs is dominant to trpO c.
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpO c is dominant to trpR s.
c. trp genes will not be expressed; trpR s is dominant to trpOc.
d. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpO c is dominant to trpRs.
e. trp genes will be expressed normally (repressible); trpO c and trpRs cancel each other out.
3.The trp repressor binds to the operator region of DNA as a dimer (two repressor protein subunits bound together as a unit).
You isolate a new mutant E.coli strain that you call Rnovel. In this strain, the repressor protein cannot attach to DNA (it cannot bind trpO+), but it can make dimers.
In this strain, how is the expression of the trp operon regulated?
a. constitutive
b. inducible
c. repressible
d. noninducible
4. You make a partial diploid of this new strain by introducing a wild type F' plasmid.
trpRnovel trpO+ / trpR+ trpO +
Given what you know about the "novel" mutation, how will the expression of the trp operon be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. Expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
b. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
c. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
d. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
5. Now predict the outcome of a partial diploid of your novel dominant-negative mutation (trpR d-) and a trpR s mutation.
trpRd- trpO+ / trpRs trpO+
How would trp genes be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
b. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
c. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
d. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
Answer:
2b. 3a. 4d. 5a.
Explanation:
1. Summary
trpP - Malfunction promotertrpOc - Malfunction operatortrpR - Malfunction repressor protein (non-working protein)trpRs - Repessor protein overworks2. Partial diploid: trpR + trpOc/ trpRs + trpOc
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpOc is dominant.A gene includes promoter, operator, and coding region, in which the promoter and operator play a role in controlling gene expression.Because trpOc makes the operator not to accept repressor protein. It means that whatever the repressor proteins, the gene will not be expressed. And thus, trpOc is more dominant.3. Rnovel: repressor protein cannot bind to DNA, but can make dimers.
a. constitutiveBecause repressor protein cannot bind to DNA and regulate gene expression. DNA gene expression is continued.4. trpRnovel & trpO+/ trpR+ & trpO+
d. The expression of trp genes will be constituted. trpRnovel is dominant.trpRnovel leads to repressor protein not binding to DNA, then it is dominant than the normal one.5. trpR d- & trpO+/ trpRs & trpO+
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd-is recessive.trpRd- is a negative mutation, so it does not affect the work of the protein.trpRs produces sensitive repressor protein, which will block the expression.Amoeba sister: video recap- pedigrees
Explanation:
Pedigree is like a recorded family tree with its past generations. In the pedigree, Circles represent females and Squares represent males. Now, the Roman numerals represent the generations. The long line (-) represents the marriange line and the bottom line under the parents, represent the line to the children. The shaded shapes are traits that are being tracked in the pedigree. An example of this are earlobes. Attached earlobes means that the recessive trait took over. Free unattached earlobes mean that the dominant trait took over.
That's as much as I can help with... Although, I do hope that this is helpful...
A video recap by Amoeba Sisters explaining pedigrees, summarizing essential concepts related to family inheritance patterns and genetic traits.
In the video recap on pedigrees, they likely delve into the understanding of pedigrees as a visual tool used in genetics to trace the inheritance of traits within a family.
A pedigree is a diagram that shows the occurrence and relationships of a particular genetic trait or disease across several generations in a family. It uses standardized symbols to represent individuals and their relationships, allowing for a clear representation of genetic patterns.
In the video, the Amoeba Sisters would likely cover how to interpret the symbols in a pedigree, like squares for males, circles for females, shaded symbols for affected individuals, and so on.
They may explain how pedigrees can demonstrate whether a trait is dominant or recessive, and how it can provide insights into the likelihood of a child inheriting a particular trait.
Understanding pedigrees is crucial in fields like genetics and genetic counseling, where it helps professionals trace the occurrence of genetic diseases or traits in families.
By analyzing patterns within pedigrees, scientists can make predictions about the inheritance of specific genes and provide information about potential genetic risks.
For such a more question on Amoeba
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A woman has a condition where all of her gametes undergo nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in meiosis II, but meiosis I proceeds normally. She mates with a man who produces all normal gametes. What is the probability that the fertilized egg will develop into a child with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Answer:
1/4.
Explanation:
If the nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II, 4 gametes are formed in which types of gametes are 3. Out of the 4 gametes, 2 are normal, 2 will have aneuploidy as shown in the diagram attached. Out of the 2 aneuploid gametes, one will have 2 haploid chromosomes while another one will not have any chromosome at all.
Now when this female will mate with a man who has produced normal gametes, each of the gamete produced by this female will have the probability to receive 1 haploid gamete from the male. After fusion/fertilization, total 4 zygotes which are of 3 types may form. One of the zygotes will have 3 chromosomes i.e. will have trisomy (which will develop into Down's syndrome), one of them will have 1 chromosome i.e. will have monosomy while 2 zygotes will be normal i.e. will be diploid.
So, the probability of a child being born with Down's syndrome will be 1/4.