Three of the following are evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants. Select the exception.
a. similar sperm structure
b. the presence of chloroplasts
c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

b. the presence of chloroplasts

Explanation:

The presence of chloroplast is a character being common to all the groups of green algae (to which charophytes belong) but also to plants, if one associates "plants" to the group formed by non vascular plants (mosses and relatives), non seeded vascular plants (ferns and lycophytes) and seeded plants (conifers or gymnosperms and flowering plants or angiosperms).

Thus, as the presence of chloroplasts is common throughout all these groups, it does not provide any taxonomic relevant information to particular link the charophytes to the land plants (or embryophytes, all the taxa above mentioned) as their closest relatives.  

Answer 2
Final answer:

Option B- The presence of chloroplasts is not unique evidence of the close relationship between charophytes and plants. Similarities in sperm structure, cell wall formation during cell division, and genetic similarities in chloroplasts are more specific indicators of their close evolutionary relationship.

Explanation:

Among the options you have provided, the correct one that doesn't serve as evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants is b. the presence of chloroplasts. While it is true that both charophytes and plants have chloroplasts, the presence of chloroplasts is not a unique characteristic to these groups alone. Chloroplasts are found in a variety of photosynthetic organisms, including other types of algae. Therefore, the presence of chloroplasts does not specifically indicate a close relationship between charophytes and plants.

On the other hand, a. similar sperm structure, c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division, and d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts all provide strong evidence for the close evolutionary relationship between charophytes and plants.

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Related Questions

Imagine that you caught a female albino mouse in your kitchen and decided to keep it for a pet. A few months later, while vacationing in Guam, you caught a male albino mouse and decided to take it home for some interesting genetic experiments. You wonder whether the two mice are both albino due to mutations in the same gene. What could you do to find out the answer to this question? Assume that both mutations are recessive.

Answers

Answer:

You can cross them. If all offspring are albinos, then both mutations are in the same gene, if not, then mutations are in different genes.

Explanation:

Traits are controlled by genes, which are composed by at least two alleles. Alleles, or mutations, can be dominant, or recessive. To observe a dominant trait, you need at least one dominant allele in the gene, while to observe the recessive trait you need both alleles in the gene to be recessive.

If mutations are in the same gene:

When you cross homozygous dominant individuals, all the offspring will be wild type (non-mutated). When you cross heterozygous individuals, 3/4 of the offspring will be wild type (non-mutated), and 1/4 will express the recessive mutation. Finally, when you cross homozygous recessive individuals, all the offspring will express the recessive mutation.

If mutations are in different genes, then these proportions of the offspring do not apply because alleles do not interact.

What is tolerance? How is it critical to the normal functioning of the immune system

Answers

Answer:

The inhibition of an immune response in contradiction of a specific antigen is termed as tolerance. For example, the immune system is usually lenient of self-antigens, so it does not generally attack the tissues, cells, and organs of one’s own body.  

It plays a critical role in the immune system as if immunological self-tolerance is mislaid, the body develops autoimmunity against its own cells and tissues that turn out to be the source of the autoimmune disorder.  

Primase is an enzyme that synthesizes RNA polymers to provide a 3'OH end for DNA polymerase to use. Which of the following is Primase going to need?
a. a DNA template and deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
b. an RNA template and ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs)
c. a DNA template and ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs)
d. an RNA template and deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)

Answers

Answer:

c. a DNA template and ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs)

Explanation:

Primase is an enzyme that makes short RNA fragments using DNA as a template. For the purpose, the primase enzyme uses the ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs) and makes an RNA copy of the existing DNA template.

The enzyme is DNA primase as it uses the DNA template strand. The newly formed short RNA fragments are called primers. Primers are required by DNA polymerases which in turn are the enzymes of elongation only and can not start the de novo synthesis of new DNA strand.

The free 3' OH end of the RNA primer is extended by DNA polymerase by adding deoxyribonucleotides.

which roles belong to decomposers in the eco system

Answers

B. Decomposers break down waste and dead organisms.

E. Decomposers recycle nutrients in the environment.

Decomposers play a crucial role in ecosystems by breaking down organic matter like dead plants and animals, returning essential nutrients to the soil. This process, known as decomposition, is vital for nutrient recycling, ensuring that essential elements like carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus remain available for living organisms. While plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis, decomposers do not directly contribute to oxygen production; instead, they aid in the cycling of nutrients required for plant growth and other ecological processes. By breaking down complex organic molecules into simpler forms, decomposers enable these nutrients to be reused by plants and other primary producers, forming a vital link in the food chain.

The correct question is:

Which roles belong to decomposers? Check all that apply.

A . Decomposers kill harmful microorganisms.

B. Decomposers break down waste and dead organisms.

C. Decomposers provide oxygen to the atmosphere.

D. Decomposers convert sunlight into food energy.

E. Decomposers recycle nutrients in the environment.

Which of the following diseases is more likely to occur through contact with contaminated water in industrialized countries than in non-industrialized countries?
a. hepatitis A
b. typhoid fever
c. legionellosis
d. hepatitis B
e. tuberculosis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option b, that is, typhoid fever.

Explanation:

Typhoid refers to an infection caused by bacteria, which can cause high fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. It can be deadly. It is caused by the bacteria S. typhi. The infection generally passes due to consumption of contaminated water and food. It is more common in places where maintenance of hygiene is less frequent.  

The condition generally causes due to the spreading of the bacteria via drinks, food, and drinking water, which gets contaminated with fecal waste. The condition also spreads if contaminated water is used for washing vegetables and fruits.  

Draw the amino acids alanine ( R group-CH3) and serine
(RgroupCH2OH) and then show how a dehydration
reactionwill form a peptide bond between them.

Answers

Answer:

As shown in figure.

Explanation:

The dehydration reaction implies the appearance of water as a residue after the bond is formed.

The reaction is carried on in various steps, as shown in the figure below.

First, the oxigen in the carboxilic acid takes the pairing electron an debonds from the molecule, after which the amino in the other aminoacid attacks this positive charge and attachs to the first molecule.

The negatively charged hydroxyl group remaining attacks the hydrogen in the amino removing the positive charge ballancing the reaction and forming water, remaining a peptide bond between both aminoacids and lefting water as a residue.

Final answer:

To draw alanine and serine amino acids and show how a dehydration reaction forms a peptide bond between them.

Explanation:

To draw the amino acids alanine and serine, we start by representing the central carbon atom, known as the alpha carbon, with four groups bonded to it. In the case of alanine, one of the groups is a methyl group (CH3) and in the case of serine, one of the groups is a hydroxyl group (CH2OH).



To form a peptide bond between alanine and serine, we remove a molecule of water. The carboxyl group of alanine will react with the amino group of serine, resulting in the formation of a peptide bond. The structure would be:



CH3-CH(NH2)-CO-NH-CH2OH

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Which of these is an example of chemoprevention?
A. Research into a phytochemical from a plant which might inhibit cancer development.
B. Research into cancer prevention in animals other than humans.
C. Research into the use of chemotherapy to cure cancer.
D. Research into chemotherapy which might prevent cancer.
E. Research into the use of diet to cure cancer.

Answers

Answer: A. Research into a phytochemical from a plant which might inhibit cancer development.

Explanation:

The chemoprevention is a process of utilization of chemical formulations such as medication, supplements and vitamins to the stop the growth of cancer cells. This is necessary and important for people which are at high risk of developing cancer.

The research for the phytochemical derived from the plants can be an example of chemoprevention as this will help in inhibiting the cancer development.

The correct answer is A. Chemoprevention involves the use of substances to inhibit cancer development, specifically through research into phytochemicals. Other options either address treatment or general prevention unrelated to chemoprevention.

The correct answer is A. Research into a phytochemical from a plant that might inhibit cancer development.

This is an example of chemoprevention as it involves the study of substances that prevent or inhibit the development of cancer.

Why other options are incorrect:

B. Research into cancer prevention in animals other than humans: This does not specifically relate to chemoprevention but rather to general cancer prevention studies.C. Research into the use of chemotherapy to cure cancer: Chemotherapy is a treatment for existing cancer, not a preventive measure.D. Research into chemotherapy that might prevent cancer: Chemoprevention typically involves the use of non-chemotherapeutic agents to prevent cancer; chemotherapy is generally used to treat established cancer.E. Research into the use of diet to cure cancer: This focuses on curing cancer through diet, not on preventing it through specific chemicals or medicines.

Fresh water fish have the same osmoregulatory mechanisms as the marine fish.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The osmoregulatory mechanisms in fishes are the gills, In freshwater, the gills pump in sodium ions, but in the ocean, they need to pump sodium and chloride ions out; to keep the osmoregulation.

The marine fishes gills have a particular type of cells called chloride cells.  The membrane of these cells has a sodium and potassium pump that regulates the amount of sodium and potassium that comes and goes inside the cell.

Why are there villi in the small intestine? How do they improve absorption?

Answers

Villi provides absorption of nutrients and it's important to have that in the small intestine. As the small intestine mostly collects of nutrients of digested food. They improve absorption by providing surface area and where nutrition can be collected

Answer:My answer is in the picture

XD

Explanation:Hope this help

How might protein synthesis execute differently if a mutation occurs?

Answers

Answer:

The kind of mutation that would affect protein synthesis is one that causes a change in the position of the stop or start codon on the mRNA. This would cause either an incomplete translation or overlengthening of the required proteins on the ribosome. Nonetheless, other mutations such as substitutions would still be translated in the ribosomes to a complete polypeptide. The only implication is that the changes in amino acid content on the polypeptide, due to mutations, will affect how the polypeptide folds into secondary or tertiary proteins which would eventually affect its function.

The nurse is caring for a client after insertion of an implanted insulin pump. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
a. " I should expect to gain less weight with this pump."
b. " I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat".
c. "This will help me to have better control of my blood sugar ".
d. "This pump delivers a continuous infusion of insulin throughout the day ".

Answers

Answer:

" I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat".

Explanation:

Insulin pumps are devices that deliver insulin to the body through a thin tube which is called an infusion set. The insulin pump delivers insulin into the body throughout the day and hence, for people who struggle with high blood sugar levels, it helps replace the need for insulin injections. The statement " I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat" indicates that the client needs further instructions as the client is not very clear with the fact that the pump continuously delivers the insulin in the body and he is thinking of taking insulin before his meals which is not required.

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:
a. water
b. carbon dioxide
c. oxygen
d. NAD and FAD

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-C.

Explanation:

Cellular respiration is a slow process which oxidizes food to form energy molecules like ATP.  The process proceeds in four steps: Glycolysis, pyruvate decarboxylation, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain.

During the electron transport chain, the electrons from the reducing equivalents like NADH and FADH₂. The electrons move downhill by electron acceptors which gets reduced and lose the energy. The electron is finally accepted by an oxygen molecule which forms metabolic water after reacting with free hydrogen atoms.

Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.

Final answer:

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is oxygen, which allows for the efficient production of ATP and water as byproducts.

Explanation:

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is oxygen (O₂). When aerobic respiration occurs, high-energy electrons carried by NADH and FADH₂ are passed to the electron transport chain, and this process leads to the production of ATP. The oxygen molecule accepts these electrons and, together with hydrogen, forms water as a byproduct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. oxygen.

In contrast, if aerobic respiration does not occur, other mechanisms such as fermentation or anaerobic respiration may take place, which involve different final electron acceptors. However, these processes are less efficient at producing ATP compared to when oxygen is present in aerobic respiration.

What is the fastest way to administer nicotine to the brain?
a. Intravenous route (IV)
b. Snorting
c. Chewing
d. Smoking
e. IV and smoking are equally fast

Answers

Answer:

d. Smoking

Explanation:

Nicotine is a chemical found in many plants such as tobacco. It is one of the 4000 chemicals that tobacco presents and the main component that acts in the brain.

This chemical is absorbed through the skin and lining of the mucosa of the nose and mouth, or in the lungs by prior inhalation. Nicotine can quickly reach the bloodstream and brain and reach maximum levels. The action of smoking cigarettes causes nicotine to reach the brain in just 10 seconds after inhalation. Although the acute effects dissipate in a few minutes, they cause the need to continue the intake of the substance (addiction)

What process was given as an example of the violation of Mendel's second law?
a. disjunction
b. nondisjunction
c. linkage
d. deletiorn
e. insertion

Answers

Answer:

Linkage.

Explanation:

The Mendel's second law is also known as the law of independent assortment. According to this law, the assortment of two different genes are independent of each other.

The law of independent assortment is applicable only when the two genes are on the different chromosomes. If the two genes are on the same chromosome, they undergo the process of linkage and do not assort independently. The linkage will result in the formation of recombinant progeny.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

Spermatogenesis takes place within the ________________

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - seminiferous tubules.

Explanation:

The seminiferous tubules are part of the reproductive organ which is present within the testes in males. It is the site of production, development, maturation of the sperm or the procedures spermatogenesis. In this reproductive organ, meiosis takes place to make sperm or male gametes.

The spermatogenesis is a three-stage process of producing mature spermatozoa from the stem cells or germ cells. The first phase is spermcytogenesis in which germ cells go under mitotic division followed by the second phase which is meiosis of the cell of the first phase and in the last phase is spermiogenesis.

Thus, the correct answer is - seminiferous tubules.

Final answer:

Spermatogenesis takes place within the seminiferous tubules. It begins with spermatogonia that produce primary spermatocytes through mitosis, which then go through meiosis to become sperm.

Explanation:

Spermatogenesis takes place within the seminiferous tubules. The process begins with spermatogonia, which are stem cells that undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes. These primary spermatocytes then undergo meiosis to become secondary spermatocytes, which eventually develop into sperm.

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Which of the following is a plant adaptation to living in a cold climate?
a. Requiring burning
b. Vernalization
c. Seed coat
d. Endosperm

Answers

Answer:

b. Vernalization

Explanation:

Vernalization is a phenomenon in which plants require low temperature for the flowering. There is either qualitatively or quantitatively dependent on exposure to very low temperature. This process is known as vernalization. Vernalization defines especially to the promotion of flowering by a period of  low climate. For example; Vernalisation occurs in biennial plants. Biennials are monocarpic plants which normally flower and may die in the second season. Some common examples of biennials are carrots, Sugarbeet, cabbages, etc.

Discuss the meaning and significance of the fact that the
genetic code is degenerate.

Answers

Answer:

When a single amino acid is encoded by more than one codon.

Explanation:

Degeneracy is when a single amino acid is encoded by more than one codon. This pehonomenon was first described by Lagerkvist where there are more codons than amino acids that could be encoded.

What are index fossils used to determine?

Answers

Answer:

Index fossil that is also known as indicator fossil is used to determine the age of the layers of the rocks. It says that the new layer of sedimentary rocks lie over the old layer.

The deeper we go, the older the rocks we will find. Index fossil of animals that lived or survived only for a short period of time are very useful. An example of index fossil can be Ammonites that were found in Mesozoic era that was about 25-35 million years ago.

Final answer:

Index fossils are used by geologists and palaeontologists to determine the relative age of rock layers and identify different geological periods. They are effective markers of time because they appear in a consistent, limited time span.

Explanation:

Index fossils are a powerful tool used by geologists and palaeontologists. Specifically, these fossils are used to determine the relative age of a layer of rock and identify geological periods. This is possible because index fossils are found to occur in a particular time span, and not beyond that.

For example, let's suppose a fossil of a creature that we know lived about 100 million years ago is found in a rock layer. This suggests that the rock layer would also probably be of the same period. Thus, index fossils serve as benchmarks or points of reference to determine the age of the surrounding materials.

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The achoo syndrome (sneezing in response to bright light) and trembling chin (triggered by anxiety) are both dominant traits in humans. a. What is the probability that the first child of parents who are heterozygous for both the achoo gene and trembling chin will have achoo syndrome but lack the trembling chin? b. What is the probability that the first child will not have achoo syndrome or trembling chin?

Answers

Answer:

a. 18.75% (3 of 16)

b. 6.25% (1 of 16)

Explanation:

o answer this kind of question you need to make a Punnet square, this kind of diagrams is used to predict the probability of an outspring having a particular genotype. In this case, you need to predict two different traits, I added an image for you to see how this square is done.

First, you need to assign a letter for your traits, I used A for the achoo syndrome and T for the trembling chin, now you need to determine alleles for the parents since both of them are heterozygous both of them will have AaTt (one dominant allele and one recessive allele). Now you are going to take the first allele of you your first trait and combine it with the first allele of your seconds trait (AT), now with the second allele of your second trait (At), now you take the send allele of your first trait and combine it with the first allele of your second trait (aT) and then with the second (at), this is going to be the same for both parents, finally you cross one pair from the mother with one from the father following the order of your square.

Now you'll have 16 combinations, observing them you can find that for your question a. 3 of 16 combinations have at least one dominant allele for achoo syndrome and receive for trembling chin and b. only 1 of 16 with both recessive traits

Final answer:

The first child of parents who are heterozygous for both the achoo gene and trembling chin has a 50% chance of having achoo syndrome but lacking the trembling chin. The probability that the first child will not have achoo syndrome or trembling chin is 25%.

Explanation:

In this case, the first child of parents who are heterozygous for both the achoo gene and trembling chin will have a 50% chance of having achoo syndrome but lacking the trembling chin. Since these traits are both dominant, if the child inherits the dominant allele for achoo syndrome from one parent and the recessive allele for trembling chin from both parents, they will have achoo syndrome but lack the trembling chin.

The probability that the first child will not have achoo syndrome or trembling chin can be calculated by multiplying the probability of not having achoo syndrome (1 - 0.5) and the probability of not having trembling chin (1 - 0.5), which equals 0.25 or 25%.

All of the following are correct descriptions of photosynthesis except:
A) The Calvin Cycle is endergonic.
B) Electrons are supplied to the reaction center via the splitting of water, which yields O2 as a byproduct
C) Chlorophyll and accessory pigments capture energy from the sun in the form of electrons, which they use to drive the electron transport chains of photosystems I and II.
D) ATP and NADPH generated in the light-dependent reactions are used to power CO2 fixation via the Calvin cycle in the light-independent reactions.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

The chlorophyll and the accessory pigments captivate energy from the Sun in the form of light. This energy is used to dissociate water known as photolysis to generate electrons, protons, and oxygen.  

The oxygen is produced as a by-product of the process, while the electrons are provided to the reaction centers, and the protons are further used in the process of building up of proton gradient.  

Answer:

The correct answer will be option- C.

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is a complex process which synthesizes the glucose molecules by converting sunlight energy into chemical energy.  Photosynthesis proceeds in two phases: light-dependent and light-independent reaction.  

The light-dependent reactions take place in the thylakoid membrane where the photo-system chlorophyll absorbs the sunlight photons which excites the electrons of the chlorophyll.

Chlorophyll transfers the electron to antenna molecules and finally to reaction center form where it enters the electron transport chain.  

This creates instability which causes the photolysis of water molecules and release of oxygen as a byproduct. The light reaction produces intermediates like ATP and NADPH which are utilized during the Calvin cycle.

Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.

Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?
a. habitat isolation
b. temporal isolation
c. behavioral isolation
d. gametic isolation

Answers

Answer: The correct answer is option c.

Explanation:

Behavioral isolation is a type pre-zygotic reproductive isolation, that is, it prevents the formation of zygote.

It includes all the differences the organisms of different species have in choosing a mate.

It includes all the rituals followed by the organisms before reproduction.

For example, pattern of mating dance, voice (singing) pattern, fighting rituals, et cetera.

So, if the two species follow different rituals or behavior then they do not tend interbreed.

The same is given in the question the two species of fruit fly follow different courtship rituals due to which they do not interbreed.

Thus, it is an example of behavioral isolation.

Propose a hypothesis for the evolution of life on earth from single-celled organisms to multicellular organisms. What is the most significant step in the evolution of multicellularity?

Answers

Answer:

there are tree hypothesis

Explanation:

There are several mechanisms by which multicellularity could have evolved:

1. A group of cells were added in a slug-shaped mass called grex, which was moved as a multicellular unit, as the Myxomycota do.

2. The primitive cell suffered an incomplete division of the cell nucleus generating a cell with multiple nuclei or syncytium. Next, membranes formed around each nucleus and the space was occupied by organelles. This resulted in a group of cells connected in an organism, an observable mechanism in Drosophila.

3. Daughter cells did not separate after cell division, resulting in a conglomeration of identical cells in an organism, which later developed specialized functions. This is observed in embryos of plants, animals and colonial cyanoflagellates.

Should read more about the topic here, google it:

Multicellular development in a choanoflagellate; Stephen R. Fairclough, Mark J. Dayel and Nicole King

In a Single-Cell Predator, Clues to the Animal Kingdom’s Birth

Using at least two examples, explain how the process of evolution is revealed by the imperfections of living organisms.

Answers

Answer:

Evolution is driven by rare mutations that occur in the DNA of organisms. These mutations  could be lethal, neutral and some advantageous. The lethal mutations cannot exist in a population because the offspring is unable to survive to term in pregnancy or dies just after birth. The neutral are ones that do not considerably affect the organisms – though they could result in a disadvantage. The beneficial ones are the one that is kept in the population by natural selection because they confer an advantage e.g in the fight for resources or escaping predation and etcetera. Therefore, it's like a game of chances by nature. Paleontologists discover many species of organisms some of which are imperfect  because nature produced them but they died off because their mutations gave them a disadvantage against better-adapted individuals.

The Tiktaalik fish from 375 million years ago became extinct because it did not well-developed eardrum for detecting vibrations in water which is significant in survival.

Dinosaurs during development of feathers had many imperfect species before the right wings for flight were conjured up by nature. An imperfect species is the Tianyulong confucius had stiff feathers that lacked vanes hence were not ideal for flight

Final answer:

Evolution is revealed by an organism's imperfections, such as vestigial structures like the human appendix or suboptimal adaptations such as the panda's “thumb,” which demonstrate that evolution does not lead to perfection but rather sufficient adaptation for survival.

Explanation:

The process of evolution is often revealed through the imperfections of living organisms. Two examples that illustrate this are vestigial structures and suboptimal adaptations.

Vestigial structures are anatomical features or behaviors that have lost their original function through evolutionary change. The human appendix, for instance, is considered a vestigial structure. It is a remnant of an organ that was likely larger and more functional in human ancestors who had diets rich in cellulose. Over time, changes in diet and other factors have rendered the appendix largely useless, although it can still become inflamed, causing appendicitis.

Another imperfection is seen in suboptimal adaptations. For example, the panda's “thumb,” which is actually an enlarged wrist bone, allows the animal to grasp bamboo stems. This adaptation is not as efficient as a true opposable thumb but demonstrates how natural selection can produce workable, albeit imperfect, solutions.

These imperfections indicate that evolution is not a process leading to perfection but rather to sufficient adaptation that allows organisms to survive and reproduce within their environments. As environments change, so too do the pressures of natural selection, often retaining or modifying structures that are no longer ideal.

If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what will occur?
a. Additional substrate will be formed.
b. The reaction will change from endergonic to exergonic.
c. The free energy of the system will change.
d. Nothing; the reaction will stay at equilibrium.

Answers

Answer:

d. Nothing; the reaction will stay at equilibrium is the correct answer.

Explanation:

If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, the reaction will stay at equilibrium it will not affect the equilibrium point because there is no change in the free energy and equilibrium constant both stay the same.

When Enzyme is added to a solution where the substrate and product are in equilibrium it may decrease the activation energy but the enzyme will not change the equilibrium as they cannot alter the overall energy production.

Final answer:

When an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, the reaction remains at equilibrium. The enzyme increases the rate of reaction but does not alter the equilibrium state. The concentration levels of substrate and product remain the same.

Explanation:

If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, the reaction will not change; it will remain at equilibrium; this is option (d). According to the Le Chatelier's principle, the system at equilibrium will react so as to minimize the effect of a disturbance, in this case, introducing an enzyme. However, assuming the enzyme is not saturated with the substrate, the enzyme-mediated reaction rate will increase, because enzymes lower the energy barrier for a reaction. But, once a new equilibrium is reached, the reaction will cease to progress until there is again a disturbance to the system. However, the concentration levels of the substrate and product will not change because the forward and reverse reactions are still happening at the same rate. So, in essence, addition of enzyme doesn't alter the equilibrium state of the reaction.

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We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
a.mass c. number of atoms.
b.volume d. number of molecules

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option d, that is, the number of molecules.

Explanation:

Mole is illustrated as the given mass of the substance divided by the molecular mass of that substance. A mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are not equivalent in mass. Volume is directly equivalent to mass. Mass can be different, thus, the volume can also be different.  

The vitamin C and sugar are the compounds, which are formed of distinct elements combined in the particular molecular ratio. Thus, the number of atoms cannot be similar, also the mass and volume will not be similar for both vitamin C and sugar.  

One mole of a substance comprises 6.023 * 10^23 molecules. This is called Avagadro's number. This is similar for all the components, hence, one mole of vitamin C and one mole of table sugar comprise a similar number of molecules.  

Which of the following proteins is vital to the process of recombination?
a. RecA
b. CroA
c. HemA
d. Gyrase
e. Topoisomerase

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A.

Explanation:

Recombination is a process in which the DNA sequences get exchanged between two homologous chromosomes. It occurs during gamete formation and is the basis of genetic diversity.

The process requires many enzymes, the key enzyme of which is Recobinase A or RecA protein which catalyzes the homologous recombination using ATP as an energy molecule.

RecA binds to the single-stranded DNA at the break site and forms pre-synaptic structure. Thus, it initiates the reaction of strand exchange and is the correct answer.

why does the x axis of a dose-response curve use log units?

Answers

Applying logarithm to the x axis of the dose response curve is a math trick that will linearize the middle zone of the curve and will allow you to visualize better  the  EC50 of the drug. Also the numbers on the x axis are easier to write since they are larger when you apply the logarithm to the concentrations.

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs during
a. The electron transport chain
b. Formation of NADH
c. Formation of FADH2
d. Formation of CoA from acetyl CoA

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A.

Explanation:

Oxidative phosphorylation is a process which leads to the formation of ATP molecule.  During oxidative phosphorylation, the transfer of electrons from reducing equivalents like NADH and FADH₂ formed during cellular respiration to oxygen leads to the formation of ATP.

Since oxidative phosphorylation involves the transfer of electrons from these equivalents through the electron transport chain which takes place in the inner membrane space of mitochondria. Therefore, oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport chain are interlinked.

Thus, option-A is the correct answer.

The antibiotic rifampin inhibits the bacterial RNA polymerase, preventing it from binding to the promoter region. This inhibits ___________
a. translation
b. transcription
c. transposition
d. transduction
e. transformation

Answers

Answer:

b. transcription

Explanation:

Transcription is the process by RNA is synthesized from DNA. It is carried out by RNA Polymerase enzyme which uses DNA as template. It builds new RNA strand in 5' to 3' direction from the template strand. A gene to be transcribed has a promoter region in front of it. RNA Polymerase is required to bind to this region to begin transcription. Once it binds to this region, the two DNA strands separate locally starting the process of transcription.

Rifampin inhibits RNA transcription by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA Polymerase. It binds to the beta sub unit of RNA Polymerase which does not allow it to properly bind to the promoter region thus halting transcription process.  

What are the four factors that determine a population's growth rate?
a. Birth rate, death rate, doubling time, and carrying capacity
b. Birth rate, death rate, doubling time, and compounding
c. Birth rate, death rate, carrying capacity and emigration rate
d. Birth rate, death rate, immigration rate, and emigration rate
e. Birth rate, death rate, compounding, and immigration rate

Answers

Pick the one that gets to your heart

Answer:

I think it's d

Explanation:

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