Answer:
C
Explanation:
Cirrhosis of the liver causes scar tissue to gradually replace your healthy liver cells, it heavily affects the platelets. "Initially patients may experience fatigue, weakness, and weight loss. During later stages, patients may develop jaundice (yellowing of the skin), gastrointestinal bleeding, abdominal swelling, and confusion." It also increases clotting. But it does not affect the plasma.
The signs that would not expected to observe in Tony is decrease in plasma protein production. The correct option is C.
What is liver cirrhosis?The scarring (fibrosis) of the liver that results from chronic liver injury is called cirrhosis. The liver cannot function correctly because of the scar tissue.
Because it develops after earlier stages of liver damage from illnesses like hepatitis, cirrhosis is sometimes referred to as end-stage liver disease.
The most common causes of cirrhosis are prolonged alcohol consumption or diseases like hepatitis B or C that cause liver damage. Usually, the harm caused by cirrhosis cannot be reversed.
However, if it is identified early enough and treated appropriately, there is a potential of delaying the progression.
Jaundice, a longer clotting time, ascites, portal hypertension, and increased clotting time are the symptoms that one may anticipate seeing in Tony.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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A 16-year-old client is highly disruptive in class and has been in trouble at home. The parent recently found the adolescent torturing a cat. When questioned, the adolescent laughed. What condition might the client be suffering from?
Based on the given information, the 16-year-old client may be suffering from conduct disorder. Conduct disorder is a mental health disorder characterized by persistent and repetitive behaviors that violate the rights of others or societal norms.
Children with conduct disorder (CD) exhibit persistent patterns of violence towards others as well as flagrant disregard for social norms at home, school, and among peers. These rules infractions may constitute criminal offences and lead to arrest.
These behaviors may include aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, lying, theft, and other forms of deceitful and disruptive conduct.
The a cat and laughing when questioned about it is a concerning sign of conduct disorder. It is important for the adolescent to receive appropriateact of torturing treatment and therapy to address their behavior and prevent any further harm to themselves or others.
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The nursing care plan for a client in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a client's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Increased warmth of the calfB) Decreased circumference of the calfC) Loss of sensation to the calfD) Pale-appearing calf
Answer:
A) Increased warmth of the calf
Explanation:
Other signs include:
rednessswellingcalf tenderness.Symptoms not included are:
decreased circumference of the calfloss of sensation in the calfpale-appearing calf.During pregnancy, folate requirements increase to 150% of non-pregnant needs in order to Multiple Choice aid in energy metabolism. prevent oxidative damage from increased free radical production. support increased DNA synthesis. deposit bone minerals.
Answer:
support increased DNA synthesis
Explanation:
Folic acid (folate) is a complex B vitamin. Along with vitamin B12, folic acid is required for the formation of normal red blood cells and for the synthesis of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), the genetic material of cells. Folic acid is also necessary for the normal development of the fetal nervous system.
Pregnant women or women of childbearing age should take folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of having a baby with a birth defect, especially neural tube defects. The folate serves to ensure a healthy pregnancy and good development of the baby. If a pregnant woman has folic acid deficiency, there is an increased risk of having a baby with a congenital spinal cord or brain defect (neural tube defect).
The pharmacology instructor is discussing the differences among the various diuretic agents. Which would the instructor cite as a difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?
a. potassium losses are greater with spironolactone than with hydrochlorothiazide.
b. Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.
c. Spironolactone is more likely to be taken with a potassium supplement.
d. The two diuretics act in different parts of the nephron
The correct answer is B: Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.
Further Explanation:
When a patient is given the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide they will lose more potassium in their body than if they were given the diuretic spironolactone. A diuretic medication is used when a person is having urinary issues.
Potassium is important in the body and a needed vitamin for the body to work correctly. It is important that a pharmacist knows a patients history before dispensing medications. If the patient has a history of low potassium the patient should not be given hydrochlorothiazide.
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The most significant difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide is that they function in different sections of the nephron. In addition, potassium loss is higher with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Explanation:The pharmacology instructor would cite multiple differences between the diuretic agents spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide. The most significant difference, however, lies in that these two diuretics act in different parts of the nephron (option d). Specifically, spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and works in the distal tubules and collecting ducts, while hydrochlorothiazide works in the distal convoluted tubule.
Besides, it is important to note that potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone (option b). This is because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Patients often have to take a potassium supplement when on hydrochlorothiazide, but less so with spironolactone (refuting option c).
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Rowena is a 15-year-old adolescent who has become shockingly thin. She barely eats and, when she does, she compensates by exercising excessively. Rowena is MOST likely suffering from _____ nervosa.
rsnotes that _____.
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A client admitted to the hospital with elevated blood glucose is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What characteristics commonly differentiate type 2 diabetes mellitus from type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
Check below for your answer.
Explanation:
While type 1 diabetes is a genetically predisposed condition and is usually discovered at a young age, type 2 affects obese people and is not genetically predisposed.
When type 2 occurs, the pancreas reduces insulin production while in the case of type 1, the pancreas does not produce insulin at all.
Both of these types require dietary change as well as a healthier and more active lifestyle, but it is type 2 that can progress and become worse.
What is the most important nutrition concern for the person with Alzheimer's disease? prevention of weight loss elimination of dietary aluminum supplementation with zinc treatment with the medicinal herb ginkgo biloba
Answer:
A
Explanation:
alxheimers
Sarah Buchanan is a nursing student who is doing a home health care nursing clinical. She is assigned to visit Ted Wall, a 50-year-old black man who is in the late stage of AIDS. His wife Sheri is also 50 years old and is raising their daughter’s two children who are 3 and 5 years of age. Sheri does not work outside the home. Ted is receiving Social Security benefits. The mother of the children is in jail for dealing drugs. The children’s father has not been involved with them at all. Sarah determines that this is an example of what type of family?
Answer:
Alternative Family
Explanation:
Alternative family is a relatively new evolved type of family structure that include family life types that are entirely different from the usual traditional family that consists of a father, a mother and the children. Alternative family is a non—traditional family type that embraces models of family life, such as lesbian/gay families, single—parent households, adopting individuals, women—headed families, IVF etc.
In the traditional family model or nuclear family, the man is meant to be the main provider of the needs of the family, and to be supported by the wife, while the wife is to provide home care to the children and the husband. In the case cited in the question, the family life seen in Ted’s family is in contrast with what an ideal traditional family model should look like. It is an example of an alternative family.
Final answer:
Ted Wall's family, being cared for by Sarah Buchanan, is an example of C. Extended family, where multiple generations provide mutual support and share responsibilities.
Explanation:
Sarah Buchanan has determined that Ted Wall's family is an example of an extended family. This family structure includes at least three generations sharing a household or providing support to each other, even if they do not live under the same roof. In this case, Ted and Sheri are caring for their grandchildren while their mother is in jail, and the family is possibly reliant on Ted's Social Security benefits. Extended families often share the economic and child-rearing responsibilities, which is seen in Ted and Sheri's situation with their daughter's children.
The term sexually transmitted infection is more accurate than sexually transmitted disease because it is a sexually transmitted pathogen may colonize host tissues without causing further damage to the host.
The correct answer is "True."
Further Explanation:
Several sexually transmitted diseases do not have any symptoms and the person who has the disease may never know they have contracted anything. Some of the sexually transmitted diseases that do not have symptoms are;
ChlamydiaHPVGonorrheaHerpesGonorrheaThese sexually transmitted diseases could be called a sexually transmitted infection since they cause no symptoms in many cases. Women and men should be tested for STD's yearly and after having unprotected sexual encounters.
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When evaluating information taught about conception and fetal development, the patient verbalizes understanding about transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube and into the cavity of the uterus with which statement?
Answer:
"It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus."
Explanation:
Hi! The answer to your question is "It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus." This is because the transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube is 3 days.
Fabrizio Benedetti found that _____ injections of placebos were more effective in reducing pain than _____ injections.
a. predictable; unpredictable
b. visible; hidden
c. hidden; visible
d. unpredictable; predictable
A federal qualification of HMOs is __________, and those that are federally qualified must provide or arrange for basic services for members as needed and without limitations on time, cost, frequency, extent, or nature of services provided.
HMOs must provide basic services to members without service limitations, offering a viable alternative to fee-for-service systems by reimbursing providers based on patient numbers and reducing moral hazard and adverse selection concerns.
Explanation:A federal qualification of HMOs is that they must provide or arrange for basic services for members as needed and without limitations on time, cost, frequency, extent, or nature of services provided. In contrast to the fee-for-service health financing system, Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs) reimburse medical care providers based on the number of patients rather than the cost of services. This approach aims to reduce moral hazard and combat adverse selection in insurance markets, where the likelihood of care needed is unevenly known between insurance buyers and the company. Healthcare providers, thus, have the incentive to allocate resources efficiently and prevent overutilization while ensuring the quality of care.
Under HMOs, providers receive a fixed payment per person enrolled, encouraging them to limit unnecessary services while managing care responsibly. As healthcare provision shifts, many doctors are now compensated through a combination of managed care and fee-for-service, which includes a flat amount per patient with additional payments for specific health conditions.
If this person did not have class I occlusion but had class III, which tooth or teeth would contact the maxillary second premolar?
a. mandibular canine and 1st premolarb. mandibular 1st and 2nd premolarsc. mandibular 2nd premolar onlyd. mandibular 2nd premolar and 1st molare. mandibular 1st molar only
Answer: the answer is option e
Explanation:
Anterior Maxillary dentition rest posterior to the mandibular anterior teeth. This makes the Posterior teeth to cross bite.
Wally is allergic to cat fur and it makes him sneeze violently. Anita has several cats and her clothes often have fur on them. After three dates with Anita, Wally has begun to sneeze violently as soon as he sees her. What is sneezing in this example?
The correct answer would be, both unconditioned response and a conditioned response.
After three times, Wally has begun to sneeze violently as soon as he sees her. Sneezing is both unconditioned response and a conditioned response.
Explanation:
Classical conditioning is a learning process in psychology which sees a relation between the stimulus and the response generated due to that stimulus.
There are further categories of stimulus and response. Response can be of two types, one is Conditioned response and the other is unconditioned response.
In the given example, sneezing of Wally is both conditioned and unconditioned response. Wally didn't learn to sneeze because of the presence of cat's fur, this is unconditioned response, but he actually sneezed after seeing Anita, which is a conditioned response.
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Shelly just found out she is pregnant and is 5'4" and weighs 185 lbs. How many pounds should Shelly weigh at most when she delivers if she gains the recommended amount of weight based on her starting weight?a. 205 lbs.
b. 215 lbs.
c. 225 lbs.
d. 230 lbs.
Answer:
A. 205
Explanation:
205 because Underweight women who become pregnant are at a higher risk for delivery of low birth weight (LBW) infants, fetal growth, and
perinatal mortality. Pre Pregnancy underweight is also associated with
a higher incidence of various pregnancy complications, such as
antepartum hemorrhage, premature rupture of membranes, anemia,
endometriosis, and cesarean delivery.
The goal in prenatal nutritional counseling provided by WIC is to
achieve recommended weight gain by emphasizing food choices of
high nutritional quality; and for the underweight woman, by
encouraging increased consumption and/or the inclusion of some
calorically dense foods.
Binge drinking is defined for men as drinking ___________ or more drinks in one sitting; for women, who tend to weigh less and whose bodies absorb alcohol less efficiently, binge drinking is defined as ___________ drinks in one sitting.
Answer:
5 drinks for men and 4 drinks for women
Explanation:
Binge drinking can be seen as a usual situation when having fun with your friends or enjoying a social activity of any kind; however, it does not mean that the person who binge drinks is an alcoholic.
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, binge drinking is considered when a man drinks 5 or more drinks and women 4 or more drinks in around 2 hours giving as a result an alcohol concentration of 0.08 grams or more.
Answer:
5 drinks for men and 4 drinks for women
Explanation:
How Can Disorders Be Treated in Children and Adolescents? Which of the following are positive effects associated with using central nervous system stimulants, such as Ritalin, to help treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children?
A. They decrease distractibility and overactivity.
B. They are associated with increased happiness, social adeptness, and academic success.
C. They cause a small increase in positive behaviors and a small decrease in negative behaviors.
D. They increase attention and ability to concentrate.
Answer:
- Disorders can be treated with psychotherapy and also with medicine.
- The possitive effects of using central nervous system stimulants such as Ritalin, are:
A. They decrease distractibility and overactivity.
D. They increase attention and ability to concentrate.
Explanation:
Ritalin is a medicine that is sometimes recomended for treating ADHD, as a stimulants for the nervous system, it can help kids concentrate and be able to focus in particualr activities. Kids or adolescents that suffer from this disorder find it hard to concentrate, and to control their impulsivity or constant need to move. This help kids performance better at school, because it decreases overactivity and for instance also distracatibility and help them be seated and concentrate in school activities.
A client with a diagnosis of hemolytic anemia has gone to a community-based laboratory for follow-up blood work. The lab technician confirms with the client that hematocrit is one of the components of the blood work. The client replies, "I thought the point of the blood work was to see how many red blood cells I have today." How could the technician best respond to the client’s statement?A) "This result will tell your care provider about the number of red blood cells in a given quantity of your blood plasma."
B) "Your hematocrit measures the average size of your red blood cells and indirectly measures your oxygen-carrying capacity."
C) "The result will indicate how many of your red blood cells are new and young and will indicate your body's production rate of red cells."
D) "The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood."
Answer:
D) "The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood."
Explanation:
When going for a blood work, people diagnosed with anemia usually check their hematocrit.
The hematocrit is a test that reveals the mass of red blood cells in a person's blood count. It is used to determine whether or not a person has anemia. If the percentage of red blood cells is abnormally low, a person is diagnosed with anemia. The symptoms of anemia are paleness and weakness as well as fast heart rate and sensitivity to the cold.
The hematocrit specifically measures the proportion of one's blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, helping to determine if the body has an appropriate number of these critical oxygen-carrying cells.
Explanation:The best explanation that the technician could provide to the client's question would be option D: 'The hematocrit measures the mass that your red blood cells account for in a quantity of your blood.'
Hematocrit is a measure of the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells. It is typically measured as part of a complete blood count (CBC).
In essence, it provides information about the number and size of red blood cells and can help determine if the body has too many or too few red blood cells, which are essential for carrying oxygen throughout the body.
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Many of Joe's signs and symptoms can be related to the loss of glucose in his urine. Normally, urine does not contain glucose. When plasma glucose levels are elevated, however, some of the glucose from the plasma passes into the urine. Apply the principle of osmosis to explain why Joe was getting up all night to use the bathroom and why he has low blood pressure and signs of dehydration.
Choose the most accurate explanation for Joe's problem.
A. The frequent urination is happening because the urine contains a large volume of glucose. The loss of glucose from his plasma has decreased his blood volume.
B. The frequent urination is happening as part of a feedback loop to regulate his blood volume. It does not have anything to do with his plasma glucose.
C. The frequent urination is happening because his kidneys have stopped working. The kidney failure leads to low blood pressure.
D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
The option correct is D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
Principle of Osmosis: Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.Glucose in Urine: Normally, glucose is reabsorbed in the kidneys and does not appear in urine. However, when blood glucose levels are very high (as in uncontrolled diabetes), the kidneys cannot reabsorb all the glucose, leading to its presence in the urine (a condition known as glucosuria).Water Follows Glucose: Due to osmosis, the presence of glucose in the urine creates a high solute concentration in the urine. Water moves from the blood plasma (lower solute concentration) into the urine (higher solute concentration) to balance the solute levels.Increased Urination: The movement of water into the urine increases the volume of urine produced (polyuria), leading Joe to get up frequently during the night to urinate.Decreased Blood Volume: As water is drawn into the urine, it reduces the overall volume of water in the bloodstream, leading to a decrease in blood volume.Dehydration and Low Blood Pressure: The loss of blood volume results in dehydration. Dehydration can cause low blood pressure (hypotension) because there is less fluid circulating in the blood vessels.Thus, Joe's symptoms of frequent urination, low blood pressure, and signs of dehydration can all be explained by the osmotic effects of glucose in his urine drawing water out of his bloodstream.
Tubuloglomerular feedback, What are the smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole that are adjacent to the macula densa?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Juxtaglomerular cells or the granular cells
Explanation:
In the juxtaglomerular apparatus which is formed by the distal convoluted tubule and the glomerular afferent tubule contains specialized epithelial cells which detect the concentration of the sodium ions in the fluid and contract the afferent arteriole.
The juxtaglomerular cells are derived from the smooth muscle cells of the afferent arterioles present adjacent to the macula dense which is involved in the production of the renin when the blood pressure falls and thus increases the blood pressure.
Thus, Juxtaglomerular cells are the correct answer.
One of the most important race tracks in north america originally built in 1894. what race track is this
Answer:Saratoga Race Track
Explanation:
A race track is a facility built solely for the purpose of racing. For example car racing, horse racing, and so on.
One of the famous race tracks in the Eighteens, is the Saratoga race tracks. It is located in the city of Saratoga Springs, New York.
In the 1980's Saratoga Springs was the home of many wealthy Americans and a great centre for tourism as well as gambling.
During the America Civil war(1861-1865), people from cities like New York and Boston came to settle in Saratoga Springs.
August 3, 1863, marked the beginnig of a new 'era' for Saratoga Springs and its inhabitabts. A casino owner, ex-and future congressman John Morrissey organized Saratoga's first ''thoroughbred meet'' a month after the Battle of Gettysburg. The first racing venue was on Union Avenue, later known as Horse Haven. Over 5,000 people came to watch and wager on the eight races.
A pregnant mother recently had an ultrasound that indicated massive defects in the formation of her unborn baby’s heart. Other oddities were noted in the spinal cord region, the kidneys, and the formation of the facial features. She had an amniocentesis to examine the baby’s karyology, and it was noted that there was a deletion of a small piece of one chromosome. The doctors advised her that she would likely miscarry. The devastated parents consult you as a genetic advisor on the likelihood that a future pregnancy would end similarly. What advice do you give this unfortunate couple?
The mutation was probably a germ line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children
The advice that can be given to the couple is that the mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children. The correct option is D.
What is germ-line mutation?A gene change in a body's reproductive cell (egg or sperm) that becomes incorporated into the DNA of the offspring's cells. Parents pass on germline mutations to their children.
Endogenous factors such as cellular replication errors and oxidative damage frequently cause germline mutations.
This damage is rarely repaired imperfectly, but it can occur frequently due to the high rate of germ cell division. Endogenous mutations in sperm are more common than in ova.
The couple can be advised that the mutation was most likely a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
The mutation was probably a somatic mutation that occurred only in the cells of the baby’s heart, so they should try to have more children.The mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that occurs in all of the mother’s egg cells, so they should NOT try to have more children.The mutation was probably a somatic mutation in the mother that she passed on to her baby, so they should NOT try to have more children.The mutation was probably a germ-line mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children.The mutation was probably a somatic mutation that only affected a single egg or sperm, so they should try to have more children.Most of the oxygen in the atmosphere results from the process of
Answer:
photosynthesis
Explanation:
plants and other organisms convert sunlight into oxygen
Final answer:
Most atmospheric oxygen comes from photosynthesis, a process by which plants and bacteria convert CO₂ and water into oxygen, facilitated by sunlight. Oxygen accumulation started about 2.4 billion years ago, and the process supports life by creating the ozone layer.
Explanation:
Most of the oxygen in the atmosphere results from the process of photosynthesis, which is performed by plants and photosynthetic bacteria. This essential process operates through the conversion of carbon dioxide and water into organic materials and molecular oxygen (O₂) using sunlight. The general reaction for photosynthesis is CO₂ + H₂O + hv (light energy) → (CH₂O) + O₂. Through this process, not only is oxygen produced, but we also get the creation of the ozone layer, which consists of ozone (O₃). This layer protects Earth from the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation, making the planet hospitable for life.
The accumulation of free oxygen in our atmosphere began around 2.4 billion years ago. Prior to that time, Earth's atmosphere contained little to no free oxygen, and geological processes alone would have resulted in an atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide, much like Venus. The presence of free oxygen in Earth's atmosphere is a direct result of the activity of photosynthetic organisms over billions of years, altering the composition of our atmosphere significantly.
Which clinical manifestation in a 6-month-old infant is most diagnostic for Tay–Sachs disease?a. Anemia and bruising.b. Enlarged liver and spleen.c. Cherry red spot on the retina.d. Progressive cognitive impairment
Answer:
The clincal manifestation that is most diagnostic for Tay-Sachs disease is c. Cherry red spot on the retina.
Explanation:
The Tay Sachs is a degenerative disease that affects the nervous system and the syntoms have to do with movemnt lost, cognitive impediments, lost of eye sight and finally death.
The presence of different syntoms are caused of the disease, but the doctor would examine the eye and most likely would determine the so called cherry red spot on the retine, that would suggest strongly the diagnose for this disease.
An explosion of a fuel tanker has resulted in melting of clothing on the driver and extensive full-body burns. The client is brought into the emergency department alert, denying pain, and joking with the staff. Which is the best interpretation of this behavior?
A, The client is in hypovolemic shock.B, The client has experienced extensive full-thickness burns.C, The paramedic administered high doses of opioids during transport.D, The client has experienced partial-thickness burns.
The correct answer would be option B, The client has experienced extensive full thickness burns.
The client is brought into the emergency department alert denying pain, and joking with the staff. The client has experienced extensive full thickness burns.
Explanation:
Extensive Full thickness burns are the burns that are caused by heavy fire penetration in the body. These burns not only destroy the epidermis layer of the skin, but also the dermis layer of the body. It may also go to fat layer beneath the skin.
So when the driver who had the extensive full thickness burns was brought to the emergency, and he was denying pain and was joking with the staff, it means that the extensive burns has put his body in narcosis, in which the pain is so high that the person just can't feel that. Due to full thickness burns, the body goes into narcosis.
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A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
a) "You must have the second one in 1 year and the third the following year."b) "You must have the second one in 2 weeks and the third in 1 month."c) "You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d) "You must have the second one in 6 months and the third in 1 year."
Answer:
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."
Explanation:
When going for a hepatitis B vaccine, it comes in three doses. The firs dose is being shot in the arm ( usually ), then it's followed by a second does that comes a month later. The third dose is injected 5 months after the second dose. It all depends on person's age and the brand of injection, but it's usually safe to say that 3rd shot should occur at least 16 weeks after the 1st shot, and at least 8 weeks after the 2nd shot.
Pediatricians often recommend____ as the first solid food offered to an infant. a. iron-fortified infant rice cereal b. mixed baby food dinners c. french fries d. cooked egg whites.
Answer:
a. iron-fortified infant rice cereal
Explanation:
It's okay to feed babies with foods that are rich in iron, but rice cereal is not always the best option. Still, out of the given choices, this one is the healthiest alternative. The rice cereal that is rich in iron is a good way to provide your baby with it, since they are born with reserves of it, but they start to use them once they're 6 months and older. Babies that are breastfed, need an alternative, as formula is rich in iron and parents wouldn't have to worry about it. The iron found in cereal is not absorbed well and that's why expert suggest that once a baby starts to eat solid food, it's better to feed them with poultry, tofu, red meat, beans, pasta, etc.
According to a national survey of asthma: On May 1, 2010, the number of residents of Oklahoma who had been diagnosed with asthma at any time during their life was A. The population on June 30, 2010, was B. During the same year, the number of new cases of asthma was C. The incidence rate of asthma (per 100,000) would be expressed as__________.
Answer:
The answer is C/B X 100,000
Explanation:
Because that is how we calculate the immune fraction.
"Helena believes that people with psychological disorders are suffering from diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and sometimes even cured. Helena believes in the _____ model of psychological disorders"
Answer:
Helena believes in the medical model of psychological disorders"
Explanation:
The medical model of psychological disorders is based on psychiatry, which is a branch form medicine. Psychiatry has a therory that sustains that psychological dissorders have organic causes. There for the way they treat pacients is with medication. Medical vision of treatment belives in the possibility of curing someone with medication as other medical problem. There are medicine for anxiety or depression, or psycosis. This means medicine help treat the syntoms, so that they can be control or managed.
Helena believes in the biomedical model of psychological disorders, which approaches these disorders similarly to physical diseases, using medication and other physical treatments.
Explanation:Helena believes that people with psychological disorders are suffering from diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and sometimes even cured. Helena believes in the biomedical model of psychological disorders. The biomedical model treats psychological disorders as it would any physical disease, often relying on medication and other physical treatments to address these conditions. This model contrasts with other approaches that may include cultural systems, psychoneuroimmunology, and the biopsychosocial model, which consider psychological, social, and cultural factors in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders.
Cultural attitudes towards psychological disorders vary significantly across different societies. For example, the treatment and societal integration of conditions like schizophrenia and gender dysphoria can vary between cultures such as those in the United States, Thailand, and Japan. Understanding these cultural dynamics is an essential aspect of the field of medical anthropology.
Modifying your personal action plan can impede personal fitness goals. true or false
Answer: False
Explanation:
Changing one's self-action plan does not prevent you from reaching fitness goals, but on the contrary, it can even help you achieve them.
When you have goals related to sports performance, it is necessary to have a comprehensive plan to achieve it. That is, it is necessary to follow a plan that includes the necessary meals a day according to the person's goals, days and hours of training, what type of training is going to be followed, and how much time you have to rest for muscle recovery.
If a person commits and follows the plan for a few weeks, the results will begin to be visible and in a not too long time, fitness goals will be achieved.