Answer:
Option-C
Explanation:
Traditional ecological knowledge is the knowledge acquired and adapted by the local or native people living in a particular area.
The traditional knowledge is gained by the holistic approach of gaining the knowledge that is which benefits survival and increases the chances of well being.
The approach aims at learning by making direct contact with the surrounding environment, learning its ways, understanding the relationship between the various factors and then adapting to the condition and utilizing the available information.
The traditional way aims at looking at the environment in whole but the modern way of understanding the environment aim by learning the environment in the components.
The traditional knowledge is always shared by the local people in their local language but since the ideology of gaining the knowledge differ in both the ways and TEK is shared in local language therefore sometimes the knowledge does not prove useful in the contemporary world.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
Traditional ecological knowledge (TEK) is a body of understanding about ecosystems developed by Indigenous and local communities. It is transmitted orally through generations and is increasingly recognized by conservation biologists for its valuable contributions to sustainability and conservation outcomes.
Explanation:Traditional ecological knowledge, often abbreviated as TEK, refers to the comprehensive understanding of ecosystems that Indigenous and local communities accumulate over generations through direct contact with their environment. This experiential knowledge is passed down orally and is not solely focused on conservation, but it also informs sustainable practices that have been used for millennia. While traditional ecological knowledge may not be widely acknowledged in Western societies due to language barriers and geographic specificity, it is gaining recognition among conservation biologists for its invaluable contributions to understanding local ecosystems and species.
Moreover, TEK encompasses knowledge not just about the environment but also includes uses such as the treatment of maladies. It provides a valuable complement to scientific approaches, especially in areas where little scientific data exist. TEK can lead to conservation outcomes through practices that have evolved to sustainably manage local resources, such as the designation of sacred groves, and it shapes scientific methods in fields like regenerative agriculture and natural resource management.
Identify the function of the following different types of RNA molecules:
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
Answer:
Explanation:
mRNA is used to produce proteins from genes. rRNA, along with protein, forms the ribosome, which translates mRNA. tRNA is the link between the two other types of RNA.
If two traits among flowers, dwarfism and stem color, were on the same pair of chromosomes, would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross? Use Mendel’s laws and your understanding of meiosis to explain your answe
Answer:
Yes, there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a ratio 9:3:3:1
Explanation:
According to Mendel's law of segregation, alleles of a gene pair separate at the time of game formation.
According to the Law of independence, the alleles sort independently into the gametes.
Even if the two traits under study are located on the same chromosome, they will segregate and assort independently at the time of gamete formation.
Also, at the time of meiosis, one of the alleles will arise from each parent hence there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
Crossing over and independent assortment depends on how distant genes are from each other. In the exposed example, if genes are not linked, the phenotypic ratio among the progeny is expected to be 9:3:3:1.
-----------------------------------
⇒ Independent Assortment
Independent assortment law establishes that during gamete formation, the alleles from two or more different genes distribute independently from each other.
In other words, a gamete can receive alleles from different genes that do not depend nor influence each other during segregation.
Each gamete receives alleles that were randomly distributed.
Independent assortment law only applies to independent genes, not linked genes.
⇒ Independent Genes
These genes segregate independently after crossing over because they are located far away from each other in the same chromosome, or they are at different chromosomes.
⇒ Linked Genes
These genes are too close to each other in the same chromosome, that they do not segregate independently.
They are placed so close, that they can not distribute independently from each other, and they inherit together more frequently.
Crossing-over between linked genes that are very close to each other in the chromosome is not that common.
⇒ Crossing over events
Crossing-over during meiosis occurs randomly in different positions all along the chromosome.
Its occurrence frequency in the area between two genes depends on the distance between them.
A short distance between genes is a very little target for crossing-over to occur, which means that only a few of them will happen, compared with the number of events between genes that are more separated from each other.
There are few chances of crossing over and recombination events between two linked genes. These genes are strongly bounded.
The more distant two genes are, the higher chances of recombination events over there are.
The closer they are, the fewer chances of recombination there are.
⇒ Distances in Map Units
When the distance between genes is inferior to 50 Map Units, genes are considered to be linked, and they do not assort independently.
When the distance between two genes equals or exceeds 50 Map Units, genes are not linked and they distribute independently from each other.
**************************************
Would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross?
According to this framework, we could say that the probability of getting a phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 among the F2 depends on how distant genes are from each other.
We already know that they are placed in the same chromosome.
If the distance between them is inferior than 50 MU,
They are linkedNo crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among the progeny different from 9:3:3:1If the distance between them equals or exceeds 50 MU,
They are not linkedThere are higher probabilities of crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among progeny 9:3:3:1----------------------
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The kidney is referred to as an excretory organ because it excretes ______ wastes. It is also a major homeostatic organ because it maintains the electrolyte _________, and _______ balance of the blood.
Answer:
Nitrogenous;Acid-Base and Fluid
Explanation:
The kidney is referred to as an excretory organ because it excretes nitrogenous wastes. It is also a major homeostatic organ because it maintains the electrolyte Acid-Base, and fluid balance of the blood.
Answer:
Nitrogenous wastes, acid-base, fluid balance.
Explanation:
Kidneys are bean shaped organs present in pairs i vertebrates. These are an excretory organ. Nephron is the basic structural and functional unit of kidneys. It excretes the nitrogenous wastes in the form of urine which is continuously formed. Kidneys are also play major role in body homeostasis by maintaining the electrolyte, acid-base and fluid balance of the blood. Kidneys are act as a hormone because it produces the erythropoietin hormone which help in the formation of red blood cells in the human body.this organism is a single cell that was isolated from the human body has no nicleus and was causing the patient to be ill
I think the organism ii bacteria
Radiation
Definition: (type here)
3 additional examples of radiation (besides the pictured) (type here)
Which of the following represents how Ebola spreads in a community?
(Choice A)
A
Ebola is airborne and spreads quickly in large congregations (e.g. movie theaters, airplanes).
(Choice B)
B
Ebola is waterborne and can spread through infected rivers and lakes.
(Choice C)
C
Ebola is foodborne and can infect individuals that don’t thoroughly wash their fruits and vegetables.
(Choice D)
D
Ebola is spread when body fluids (e.g. blood) from a sick individual enter a healthy individual.
Answer:
D
Ebola is spread when body fluids (e.g. blood) from a sick individual enter a healthy individual.
Explanation:
i took the question and got it correct. please like and rate my answer. brainliest please?
What are the subcomponents of DNA?
Answer:
Featured snippet from the web
It consists of a 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose), phosphate group, and nitrogen bases. ... DNA's nitrogen bases are called: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.
Describe five cultural or societal values (anything to do with humans except
economy) of an estuary.
Answer:
Explanation:
Estuary is a part of a coastal body where the fresh water and stream meet with the ocean.
1. Recreation: estuary is important for recreation activities ( i.e the activities done in our leisure time) like boating, fishing surfing and bird watching.
2. Scientific knowledge: it serves as a basis for laboratories for scientists, for poets to learn, painters to be inspired and acquire knowledge, bird watchers.
3. Education: It provide quality lessons and inspired ideas in biology,geology, chemistry, physics, history , social studies e.t.c.
4. Aesthetic values. It provide aesthetic values and enjoyment for humans.
5. Food: some of the product gotten from estuary like lobsters are consumed as food by humans.
True Or False?
It is possible for gases in the atmosphere to change the behavior of energy on Earth.
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Answer:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Explanation:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Water-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, and excess intake is generally excreted. Fortification of foods in the United States has reduced the incidence of deficiencies for many of these vitamins, but inadequate intake is still possible. Toxicity is less likely since these vitamins are not stored in the body, but excessive intake can still cause undesirable symptoms in some cases.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate options.1. --------------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin causes beriberi, which is characterized by weakness, swelling, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.2. ------------------------------------ : A severe deficiency of this vitamin causes the disease pellagra.3.------------------------------ : A deficiency of this vitamin is very rare, but those with inadequate intakes can experience numbness, muscle cramps, and difficulty walking.4. ----------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to sore tongue, skin inflammation, depression, confusion, or anemia.5. -------------------------------: Neural tube defects, like spina bifata, can occur if this nutrient is not consumed in adequate amounts during pregnancy.6. ------------------- : Those who follow a vegan diet without supplementation are at increased risk of deficiency for this vitamin.7. --------------------------- : Scurvy symptoms, caused by a deficiency of this nutrient, include rough skin rash and wounds that will not heal.
Options:a. vitamin B6b. vitamin B12c. niacind. folatee. thiaminf. vitamin Ce. pantothenic acid
Answer:
1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C
Explanation:
1. Beriberi is a disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin 1, also known as thiamine. The symptoms of beriberi includes swelling, weakness, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.
2. Pellagra is caused by lack of the vitamin niacin Symptoms include inflamed skin, dementia, diarrhea and sores in the mouth.
3. Vitamin B5 or pantothenic vitamin deficiency include symptoms such as insomnia, numbness, irritability, stomach pains, burning feet, muscle cramps and difficulty in walking.
4. Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes skin inflammation, sore tongue, depression and anemia.
5. Folate regulate the neural system and deficiency of folate causes defects in neural tube such as spina bifata during pregnancy.
6. Vitamin B12 is found in animal products such as meat, fish, poultry, milk, eggs, and milk products. This vitamin is absent in plant or vegan diet and are more prone to its deficiency.
7. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C. Its symptoms include include depression, fatigue and connective tissue defects .
Hence, the correct answer for the blanks is 1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C.
The presence of a beard on some goats is determined by an autosomal gene that is dominant in males and recessive in females. Heterozygous males are bearded, while heterozygous females are beardless. What type of inheritance is exhibited by this trait?
Answer:
Explanation:
Some autosomal genes may affect the phenotypes of individuals of one sex more than individuals of the other but they play no part in the development of being a male or being a female. this type of gene is thus a sex influenced autosomal gene. The type of inheritance exhibited by this trait in the male goat follows the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance meaning the for the trait to be expressed, it has to be the dominant allele form on the X chromosome. In the females, this trait follows the autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance such that for a female goat to be bearded, the trait must be inherited as a homozygous recessive trait, while an heterozygous or a homozygous dominant female will be beardless.
The presence of a beard on some goats is determined by an autosomal gene that is dominant in males and recessive in females, exhibiting autosomal inheritance.
Explanation:This trait exhibits autosomal inheritance. The presence of the beard trait is determined by a gene located on an autosomal chromosome, not on the sex chromosomes. It is dominant in males, which means that even if they have only one copy of the gene, they will exhibit the trait. In females, the gene is recessive, so they must have two copies of the gene to have the trait.
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As an aspiring undergraduate researcher, you want to identify the gene responsible for bacterial virulence of your favorite pathogenic microbe. After subjecting your favorite microbe to random mutagenesis (i.e. forward genetics), you identify a mutant strain that has completely lost its virulence properties. Partial sequencing of your favorite pathogen’s genome reveals a mutation in the DNA sequence encoding gene X. You are excited, and rush to write a paper proclaiming your exciting result that gene X is responsible for the virulence of your favorite pathogen, which you hope to publish in a top journal. However, your cautious lab-mate encourages you to not to be too hasty, and convinces you to generate and test the exact same mutation in gene X by directed mutagenesis (i.e. reverse genetics). Much to your horror, when you test the effects of the directed gene X mutation in your animal model, the strain containing the directed mutation in gene X was fully virulent relative to the wild type strain of your favorite pathogen. Based on these data alone, what is the most likely reason that the strain generated by random mutagenesis had fully lost virulence, while the same mutation introduced by directed mutagenesis resulted in a strain of your favorite pathogen that was fully virulent?
Answer:
When directed mutagenesis which is also called reverse genetics is used, only a single mutation per genome is introduced. In contrast, the number of mutations per genome introduced by random mutagenesis is usually difficult to control. It is likely that the strain you obtained with a mutation in gene X after random mutagenesis contained an additional mutation or perhaps multiple mutations which ultimately was/were responsible for loss of virulence in your favorite pathogen.
Which two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants?
Two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants are :
muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
The fuzzy millipede, Polyxenus fasciculatus, is found in Texas and is preyed upon by most species of ants. Most millipedes defend themselves with a variety of chemicals secreted from pores along the body, although the tiny bristle millipedes are covered with tufts of detachable bristles. Due to their lack of speed and their inability to bite or sting, millipedes' primary defence mechanism is to curl into a tight coil – protecting their delicate legs inside an armoured exoskeleton.Reproduction in most species is carried out by modified male legs called gonopods, which transfer packets of sperm to females.Millipedes overwinter, so they may hide in cracks or crevices throughout the whole winter and emerge in the spring.These insects live in dark, damp places and feed on decaying plant life, sometimes damaging crops. But they can serve a good purpose too.To protect itself against the ants, it ejects fibers from a tuft located at the tail end of its body. When an ant attacks, the millipede flexes its back end toward the ant and wipes the tufts against it.
Answer:
Muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
I just did it
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
Answer:
Seen on the explanation.
Explanation:
Glandular tissues are a mixture of both endocrine (ductless, hormones are secreted directly into the blood) and exocrine (have ducts, hormones are secreted into surfaces) glands.
The pancreas and salivary glands are both exocrine glands although the pancreas has an endocrine function via the islets of Langerhans, both aid in the digestion of food.
The pancreas lacks striated ducts and the intralobular duct is similar to the intercalated duct of salivary glands. It often has a collapsed lumens and the cells are cuboidal with little cytoplasmic staining in contrast to acinar cells.
The pancreas can also be distinguished from the parotid gland by the presence of the pancreatic islet (islets of langerharns) which has an endocrine function.
The correct feature unique to the pancreas that would help distinguish it from the salivary gland is the presence of both exocrine and endocrine functions.
The pancreas is a unique organ in that it has both exocrine and endocrine functions, which is a key feature that distinguishes it from the salivary gland. The exocrine function of the pancreas is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes that are secreted into the duodenum to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. These enzymes are produced by the acinar cells and are transported through a system of ducts, eventually emptying into the pancreatic duct and then into the duodenum.
In contrast, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the production of hormones such as insulin and glucagon by the islets of Langerhans. These hormones are secreted directly into the bloodstream and are crucial for the regulation of blood glucose levels.
On the other hand, the salivary gland is primarily an exocrine gland, composed of serous and mucous cells that produce saliva. Saliva contains enzymes like salivary amylase, which begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth, and it also contains mucus to lubricate food for swallowing. However, the salivary gland does not have an endocrine function.
Therefore, the presence of both digestive enzyme-secreting exocrine tissue and hormone-secreting endocrine tissue is the distinguishing feature of the pancreas that sets it apart from the salivary gland.
The complete question - contain a image added below-
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
Cells that live in the ocean are often starved for phosphate and so their growth is P limited. Cells that need less P to grow will have an advantage over cells that needs lots of P to grow. Which of the following might provide an evolutionary advantage to a bacterium growing in an environment where P is scarce. Check all possible answers which apply: a. the cells evolve to have very few proteins per cell b. the cells evolve to have a very small number of ribosomes c. the cells evolve to have a very small genome d.the cells evolve to have a very small diameter e. the cells evolve a cell wall that lacks peptidoglycan
Complete the following statement. Cellulose and amylose are ________. 1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage 1,6' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage polymers of D-glucose which are structurally isomeric polymers of D-galactose which are structurally isomeric synonyms for the only polymeric form of D-glucose
Answer:
The correct answer is: 1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage.
Explanation:
Cellulose and amylose are both polysaccharides and polymers of glucose (which means that they are composed of glucose molecules). While cellulose is mostly found on the cell wall of plants and algae, amylose (along with amylopectin) form the main carbohydrate in humans' diets: starch.
While the glucose molecules in amylose are linked by α(1-4) glycosidic bonds, the glucose molecules in cellulose have β(1-4) glycosidic bonds. This particularity is what makes amylose and cellulose compounds differ from one another.
Answer:
1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage
Explanation:
Cellulose and amylose are polymers of glucose. Amylose's monomeric units are linked by alpha α-1,-4-glycosidic bonds and cellulose monomeric units are joined by β 1-4 glycosidic bonds. These two substances are carbonhydrates; polysaccharides in particular: polymeric carbohydrates composed of monosaccharide units linked toghether by glcosidic bonds.
If a diploid cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes (2n = 8) during G1, how many DNA double helices will be present in G1? in G2? in metaphase? in each daughter cell after cell division is complete?
Answer:
At G1- 8
At G2 - 16
At metaphase - 16
In daughter cells - 8
Explanation:
In the G1 phase which is the growth phase before the S phase (DNA synthesis), the number of DNA double helices present will be 8 double helices.
In the G2 phase, which is the phase after the S phase i. e. doubling of the chromosomes, the number of DNA double helices here increases by which which makes it sixteen and the chromosome number is still 8 because each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids which occurs after replication.
In metaphase there is still sixteen double helices which is eight chromosomes with 2 sister chromatids each lying on the metaphase plate.
After cell division, each daughter cell will have eight double helices each just like the parent.
Choose a plant tissue. Write an explanation of
how that tissue's structure relates to its function.
Be specific and detailed.
Answer:
Dermal Tissue
Dermal Tissue: a group of cells that make up the outermost layer of a plant and function as protection
Location
Outer layer of plant
Function
Protection
Dermal Tissue-Important Structures
Cuticle
Protects from injury
Prevents water loss
Guard cells
Controls gas exchange
Prevents water loss
Explanation:
trust
Answer:
Answer:
Dermal Tissue
Dermal Tissue: a group of cells that make up the outermost layer of a plant and function as protection
Location
Outer layer of plant
Function
Protection
Dermal Tissue-Important Structures
Cuticle
Protects from injury
Prevents water loss
Guard cells
Controls gas exchange
Prevents water loss
Explanation:uoij0
Which clas does honey bee belong too?
Answer:
Insect
Explanation:
Are you looking for class or kingdom?
Answer:
The honey bee belongs to the INSECT class
Explanation:
A woman has a condition where all of her gametes undergo nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in meiosis II, but meiosis I proceeds normally. She mates with a man who produces all normal gametes. What is the probability that the fertilized egg will develop into a child with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Answer:
1/4.
Explanation:
If the nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II, 4 gametes are formed in which types of gametes are 3. Out of the 4 gametes, 2 are normal, 2 will have aneuploidy as shown in the diagram attached. Out of the 2 aneuploid gametes, one will have 2 haploid chromosomes while another one will not have any chromosome at all.
Now when this female will mate with a man who has produced normal gametes, each of the gamete produced by this female will have the probability to receive 1 haploid gamete from the male. After fusion/fertilization, total 4 zygotes which are of 3 types may form. One of the zygotes will have 3 chromosomes i.e. will have trisomy (which will develop into Down's syndrome), one of them will have 1 chromosome i.e. will have monosomy while 2 zygotes will be normal i.e. will be diploid.
So, the probability of a child being born with Down's syndrome will be 1/4.
Amoeba sister: video recap- pedigrees
Explanation:
Pedigree is like a recorded family tree with its past generations. In the pedigree, Circles represent females and Squares represent males. Now, the Roman numerals represent the generations. The long line (-) represents the marriange line and the bottom line under the parents, represent the line to the children. The shaded shapes are traits that are being tracked in the pedigree. An example of this are earlobes. Attached earlobes means that the recessive trait took over. Free unattached earlobes mean that the dominant trait took over.
That's as much as I can help with... Although, I do hope that this is helpful...
A video recap by Amoeba Sisters explaining pedigrees, summarizing essential concepts related to family inheritance patterns and genetic traits.
In the video recap on pedigrees, they likely delve into the understanding of pedigrees as a visual tool used in genetics to trace the inheritance of traits within a family.
A pedigree is a diagram that shows the occurrence and relationships of a particular genetic trait or disease across several generations in a family. It uses standardized symbols to represent individuals and their relationships, allowing for a clear representation of genetic patterns.
In the video, the Amoeba Sisters would likely cover how to interpret the symbols in a pedigree, like squares for males, circles for females, shaded symbols for affected individuals, and so on.
They may explain how pedigrees can demonstrate whether a trait is dominant or recessive, and how it can provide insights into the likelihood of a child inheriting a particular trait.
Understanding pedigrees is crucial in fields like genetics and genetic counseling, where it helps professionals trace the occurrence of genetic diseases or traits in families.
By analyzing patterns within pedigrees, scientists can make predictions about the inheritance of specific genes and provide information about potential genetic risks.
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A strand of DNA that is 36 nucleotides long codes for how many amino acids?
Answer:
See answer below
Explanation:
Hi there,
Assuming this DNA strand is fully capable of being mature mRNA (5' m7G cap and PolyA tail), nucleotides lead to an mRNA codon, which is 3 nucleotides per codon. In turn, 1 codon leads to 1 amino acid. However, as a single strand, it must be capable of terminating translation, which always requires a stop codon, and thus 3 nucleotides. Hence, we must subtract this from the total amount of codons first.
[tex]36 \ ncltd \ \frac{1 \ codon}{3 \ ncltd} = 12 \ codon\\12 \ codon - 1 \ codon \ = 11 \ codon\\11 \ codons\ \frac{1 A.A.}{1 \ codon} = 11 \ A. A.[/tex]
Hence, only 11 amino acids will be coded by a single DNA strand 36 ncltd long.
thanks,
Sequence the events that take place when a motor neuron's action potential triggers a muscle contraction.
a) The motor neuron's action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
b) Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.
c) The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes in response to the arrival of acetylcholine.
d) Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed.
e) The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.
f) The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules.
Answer:
A,C,F,E,D,B
Explanation:
The is the sequence of action potential transmission at at the neuromuscular junction. Generally the arrival of action potential from the presynptic neuron caused influx of ca+ which causes migration and the release of the the acetycholine to the synaptic cleft.
The acetycholine binds with the receptors on the saccolemma to causes opening of Na+ , its influx to causes depolarizarion of the sacolemma. The depolarization of the latter spreads along the transverse tubules, This depolarization causes increases in the permeability of the sacorplasmic reticulum, with opening of ca+ channels and diffusion of Ca+ out of the S. reticulum.
The Ca+ binds to troponin,and tropomyosin exposed the myosin-binding sites on actin filament . The myosin head forms the cross bridges with the filament, and therefore the sacomere shortens leading causing muscle contraction.
A motor neuron is a specialized type of brain cell where the neurons are located in the spinal cord of the brain. They are differentiated into the upper and lower neuron cells.
A. The motor neuron's action potential takes place at the neuromuscular junction. C. The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes. F. The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules. E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.D. Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed. B. Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.Hence the correct options are A, C, F, E, D, and B.
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Biology shows us the fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows us that organic molecules can come from inorganic matter. Geology shows us that organisms that used to live together are found on separate continents due to continental drift. Which fields of science provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
All of this fields of science is very important that provide evidence for evolution. if we look at biology, it shows how the organism change over time. geology can get us information about the fossils, soil and other things and chemistry can show us every molecule in our body to environment.
Explanation:
Biology, geology, and chemistry all the three field of science provide evidence for the evolution of species. Thus, all the options are correct.
What is Evolution?Evolution of a species can be defined as the gradual process of development. Evolution is the change in heritable traits of the biological populations of different species over successive generations. Evolutionary processes helps to give rise to diversity at every biological organization level. All the different life forms on earth shares a common ancestor known as the last universal ancestor.
Biology shows fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows the age of fossils and their nature. Geology shows that the organisms which live together have separated into different continents with time.
Therefore, all the options are correct.
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The tac promoter, an artificial promoter made from portions of the trp and lacUV5 promoters, has been introduced into a plasmid. It is a hybrid of the lac and trp (tryptophan) promoters, containing the −35 region of one and the −10 region of the other. This promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than either the trp or lac promoters. Why? Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
Answer:
reason is that it uses the -35 region of the trp promoter and -10 region of the lacUV5 promotor, the tac promotor more closely resembles the consensus -35 and -10 sequences than either trp or lac. Tac has 12 out of 12 identiies with the consensus sequences, whereas lac and trp have 9.
Tac promotor is a synthetic, 2hybrid promoter widely used in E.coli for protein production in E.coli using the same induction and repression systems of lac promotor.
Explanation:
The tac promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than the trp or lac promoters because it contains hybrid −35 and −10 regions that are more efficiently recognized by RNA polymerase.
Matching the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right:
Left column Right column
trp promoter contains the -10 region of the tac promoter
lac promoter contains the -35 region of the tac promoter
-35 region recognized by the α subunit of RNA polymerase
-10 region recognized by the σ subunit of RNA polymerase
transcription initiation the process of starting to synthesize an RNA molecule
consensus sequence a DNA sequence that is common to many promoters
The tac promoter is a hybrid of the lac and trp promoters, containing the 35 region of the lac promoter and the 10 region of the trp promoter.
The -35 region is recognized by the α subunit of RNA polymerase, and the -10 region is recognized by the σ subunit of RNA polymerase.
The tac promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than either the trp or lac promoters because it contains consensus sequences for both the -35 and -10 regions.
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There are several possible mutations in the trp operon:
1.
trpP - is a mutation in the promoter sequence that prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and initiate transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpOc is a mutation in the operator sequence that prevents the trp repressor protein from binding to the operator to block transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpR- is a mutation in the repressor protein that either prevents repressor protein from being made or produces a mutant repressor that cannot bind to the operator region.
trpRs is a mutation in the repressor protein that causes the repressor to be more sensitive to tryptophan levels. This mutant repressor binds the operator region even when tryptophan is low.
2. If you were to make a partial diploid with the genotype trp R+ trpOc / trpRs trpO+, what would happen? What is the dominance relationship between trpOc and trpRs?
a. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpRs is dominant to trpO c.
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpO c is dominant to trpR s.
c. trp genes will not be expressed; trpR s is dominant to trpOc.
d. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpO c is dominant to trpRs.
e. trp genes will be expressed normally (repressible); trpO c and trpRs cancel each other out.
3.The trp repressor binds to the operator region of DNA as a dimer (two repressor protein subunits bound together as a unit).
You isolate a new mutant E.coli strain that you call Rnovel. In this strain, the repressor protein cannot attach to DNA (it cannot bind trpO+), but it can make dimers.
In this strain, how is the expression of the trp operon regulated?
a. constitutive
b. inducible
c. repressible
d. noninducible
4. You make a partial diploid of this new strain by introducing a wild type F' plasmid.
trpRnovel trpO+ / trpR+ trpO +
Given what you know about the "novel" mutation, how will the expression of the trp operon be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. Expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
b. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
c. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
d. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
5. Now predict the outcome of a partial diploid of your novel dominant-negative mutation (trpR d-) and a trpR s mutation.
trpRd- trpO+ / trpRs trpO+
How would trp genes be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
b. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
c. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
d. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
Answer:
2b. 3a. 4d. 5a.
Explanation:
1. Summary
trpP - Malfunction promotertrpOc - Malfunction operatortrpR - Malfunction repressor protein (non-working protein)trpRs - Repessor protein overworks2. Partial diploid: trpR + trpOc/ trpRs + trpOc
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpOc is dominant.A gene includes promoter, operator, and coding region, in which the promoter and operator play a role in controlling gene expression.Because trpOc makes the operator not to accept repressor protein. It means that whatever the repressor proteins, the gene will not be expressed. And thus, trpOc is more dominant.3. Rnovel: repressor protein cannot bind to DNA, but can make dimers.
a. constitutiveBecause repressor protein cannot bind to DNA and regulate gene expression. DNA gene expression is continued.4. trpRnovel & trpO+/ trpR+ & trpO+
d. The expression of trp genes will be constituted. trpRnovel is dominant.trpRnovel leads to repressor protein not binding to DNA, then it is dominant than the normal one.5. trpR d- & trpO+/ trpRs & trpO+
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd-is recessive.trpRd- is a negative mutation, so it does not affect the work of the protein.trpRs produces sensitive repressor protein, which will block the expression.Your answer is CORRECT. Archaea that live by black smokers at hydrothermal vents under the ocean are often A) anaerobic due to the low oxygen content of the water in these locations B) barophilic C) psychrophilic D) Only A and B are correct E) Only B and C are correct
Explanation:
Hydrothermal vents, also known as deep sea vents are the aftermath of a volcanic eruption due to shifting of the plates that form the Earth’s crustBlack smokers are formed due to the high pressure at this depth and temperature of the trapped water because of which there is low oxygen content of water The black smokers emit fluids and causing it to emit chemicals such as sulfide, iron, copper and zincBarophiles are organisms whose survival and reproduction is optimized to high pressures, such as those in deep sea environmentsPsychrophiles are microorganisms that can grow at 0 °C and below, have an optimum growth temperature close to 15 °C, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 °CThey are found in permanently cold environments such as the deep waters of the oceans and because they are active at low temperature, psychrophiles are important decomposers in cold climatesWhat is the name of the neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system
Answer:
i) Acetylcholine.
ii) Neurotransmitter which is released by postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system is Nor-epinephrine.
Four weather satellites are orbiting the Earth at a height of 825 kilometers. Some characteristics of the satellites are shown in the table below. Upon which satellite does the Earth’s gravity exert the greatest force?
Answer:
The satellite to which the Earth's gravity exert the greatest force is:
The fourth.
Explanation:
The reason behind this is that in the first place there is no correlation between gravity force and length of an object. In the second place, the distance between all o them and the earth is the same. Now in the third place, the mass of the fourth Satelite is bigger than the rest, therefore it is the one that is dragged to the earth's gravity with a stronger pull because with bigger mass bigger gravity force.
Answer:
Its D on study island
Explanation:
if you're not sure that its D these are the numbers that should be in the chart:
5.6, 825, 903
You hypothesize that a transcriptional regulator may control expression of specific genes in LB medium, and want to find out what these genes are. You have made a set of strains (i.e., library) in which a promoterless lacZ was inserted at varied chromosomal locations. Design an experiment to identify these genes using agar plates with LB and X-gal. Describe the steps in this procedure.
Answer:
if the promoterless lacZ is inserted close to any gene(s) or operon, then the laz gene will also be transcribed when the operon gets expressed. The polycystronic RNA will eventually produce a beta-galactosidase protein(product of lacZ gene) which will cleave X-Gal( structural analog to lactose), which will produce blue chromogenic substance.
prepare LB agar. Allow it to cool, add X-gal before it solidifies, pour to plates.
create grids and patch plate each strain on it. Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ and sequence it.
Explanation:
Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ, and sequence it.