Answer:
Pharmacological doses
Explanation:
In our bodies the hormones and other regulators that are present usually operate in small quantities that range from pico to microgram/ml of blood and this level of hormone and other regulators is referred to as the physiological level.when treatments are given then it may lead to the production of these hormones or regulators that may exceed the physiological levels, and the levels may increase up to milligram range. Such treatments levels that lead to the excess production fo circulating levels that surpass the natural or optimal levels are termed as pharmacological doses.Differentiate between primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins.
Answer:
Biologists describe the structure of protein at four levels: Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary.
Explanation:
1. Primary structure: It is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. It only gives us the positional information of amino acids within a protein like which one is first, which one is second and so on. We can see only peptide bonds in primary structure.
Also the first amino acid is known as N-terminal and the last as C-terminal.
2. Secondary structure: The protein thread folds either in the form of helix or beta pleated sheet to form the secondary structure.
In alpha helix, there is hydrogen bonding between every fourth amino acid. Example keratin protein of hair.
In beta pleated sheets, two or more polypeptide strands are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
3. Tertiary structure: The long polypeptide chain usually folds upon itself like a hollow wollen ball. This is termed as tertiary structure. Involves several linkages like hydrogen bond, hydrophobic bond, ionic bond, covalent bond, van der walls forces. Active sites are formed and protein gains functionality. Example: myoglobin
4. Quaternary structure: Quaternary structure is formed when there are more than one polypeptide chains. For example: hemoglobin has four helical polypeptide chains.
Proteins have four levels of structure essential to function: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding into α-helices or β-pleated sheets), tertiary (three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain), and quaternary (arrangement of multiple subunits).
Explanation:Differences Between Protein Structure LevelsThe structure of protein is essential for its function and is organized into four distinct levels: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. The primary structure of a protein consists of its unique sequence of amino acids. As for the secondary structure, it is characterized by local folding into patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets. The tertiary structure represents the further three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain, resulting in a complex globular shape. When a protein consists of more than one polypeptide chain, they associate to form the quaternary structure, which is the arrangement of these multiple subunits.
Each level of protein structure is critical to the protein's ultimate function. Disruption of these structures, such as through denaturation, can result in loss of function. The structure is maintained by various interactions including hydrogen bonding, ionic bonds, disulfide linkages, and dispersion forces.
What is an example of a cell that has specialized domains of plasma membrane?
Answer:
Epithelial cell
Explanation:
A typical epithelial cell is characterized by the presence of special domains of the plasma membrane. An epithelial cell has an apical domain and a basolateral domain.
The apical domain of the epithelial cells is present towards the lumen of the organ while its basolateral domain covers the rest part of the cell.
The two domains differ from each other structurally and perform specific functions. Specialized appendages such as cilia are mostly present in the apical domain of the epithelial cells.
The specific distribution of proteins and lipids is maintained by tight junctions that do not allow the passage of substances between the two domains.
Koch's postulates are the established rules for determining that a specific pathogen causes a specific disease.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
Explanation: These postulates were formulated by Robert Koch as a result of his experiments with healthy and infected mice. The postulates are often used to determine if a phatogen causes a disease. These are:
The pathogen must be present in sick individuals but not in healthy ones. The pathogen must be isolated from individuals and cultivated in a pure culture.The pathogen cultivated must cause sickness when it's injected in suceptible inviduals.The pathogen must be isolated from the injected individuals and must be exactly as the first one.
Two normally pigmented parents have an albino child. What are the parents' genotypes?
Final answer:
Two normally pigmented parents with an albino child each carry one dominant allele for pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism, giving them the heterozygous genotype Aa.
Explanation:
When two normally pigmented parents have an albino child, the genetic inheritance involved follows a recessive pattern. Albinism is a condition characterized by a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes and is caused by a recessive allele. If a child expresses this recessive trait, it means that both parents must have provided a copy of this recessive allele for albinism. Thus, the genotypes of each parent must be heterozygous, meaning they each carry one dominant allele for normal pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism. This can be represented as Aa, where 'A' is the dominant allele for normal pigmentation, and 'a' is the recessive allele for albinism.
In the context of Mendelian genetics and monohybrid crosses, such as the cross that would involve the two heterozygous parents, a Punnett square predicts that there is a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the second filial (F2) generation. However, in the first generation (F1), all offspring would display the dominant phenotype. In cases like the one presented, albinism reveals the underlying genotype of the parents due to its recessive nature. The appearance of the recessive phenotype in their offspring unequivocally indicates that both parents were carriers of the albinism trait.
Genotype determination from offspring phenotypes can similarly be applied to other recessively inherited disorders, like alkaptonuria mentioned in Figure 12.6, or examples of epistasis in mice coat color inheritance. Understanding parental genotypes using offspring phenotypes is a foundational concept in genetics and illustrates the predictive power of monohybrid crosses.
Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?
a. carbon fixation
b. oxidation of NADPH
c. release of oxygen
d. regeneration of the CO2 acceptor
Answer:
Release of oxygen. (Ans. C)
Explanation:
Calvin cycle is the set of chemical reaction which it takes place in chloroplast during photosynthesis. It is a light-independent cycle ( where carbon fixation occurs) because it takes place after the energy has been taken from sunlight. These are the steps includes in this cycle:
1) Calvin cycle adds carbon from CO2 present in the atmosphere to a 5 carbon molecule, known as ribulose bisphosphate catches 1 molecule of carbon dioxide and form a 6 carbon molecule.
2) The enzyme RuBisCo breaks the 6 carbon molecule into two equal parts with the energy of ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH) molecules.
3) One trio of carbon molecule leave and become sugar and another trio of carbon molecule move to the next steps.
4) The 3 carbon molecule changing into a 5 carbon molecule, using ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH), and the cycle starts over again.
The Calvin cycle is responsible for carbon fixation and the production of glucose during photosynthesis. It involves several reactions, but the release of oxygen does not occur during the Calvin cycle.
c is correct
Explanation:The Calvin cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the stroma of chloroplasts during photosynthesis. It is responsible for converting carbon dioxide into glucose, a process called carbon fixation. In the Calvin cycle, several reactions take place, including the oxidation of NADPH, the regeneration of the CO2 acceptor, and the synthesis of carbohydrate molecules from G3P using ATP and NADPH.
Out of the given options, the one that does not occur during the Calvin cycle is c. release of oxygen. In photosynthesis, the release of oxygen occurs during the light-dependent reactions, specifically in photosystem II.
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A patient is admitted to hospital with a suspected bacterial illness. Describe two immunological techniques that may be used in diagnosing the patient.
Answer:
For the diagnosis of patients having bacterial infection, many immunological tests can be performed by the doctor's like agglutination test and enzyme immunoassays.
Agglutination test: This test confirms the bacterial infection based on antigen-antibody interaction. In this test, patient serum is taken which contains antibody, and latex beads with attached specific antigens are added into it. Agglutination of blood serum confirms the infection of that bacteria whose antigen is used in the test.
Enzyme immunoassays: In this test, the antibody is used which has attached enzyme. This antibody binds to the antigen and the enzyme converts some substrate into a product which have fluorescence. Higher the fluorescence higher is the amount of antigen.
What do we mean when we refer to a cell as differentiated?
Answer:
We mean that a cell changes to another type of cell.
Explanation:
Stem cells are a type of cell that has the potential to become a specialized cell, this change or differentiation, is possible thanks to the activation or deactivation of certain genes that promote (or inhibit) the expression of certain proteins that origins different types of cells (fmuscle cells, osteocytes, neurons). This differentiation happens when the cells receive cues internally ( through signals or contact between a group of cells and another or through transcription factors) or externally.
Then, a differentiated cell is a cell that had gone under the previously described process.
I hope this information is useful to you!
Gene expression in eukaryotes can be regulated at many different levels. List the different levels of regulation, and explain what each means.
Answer:
Transcription, mRNA (processing, transport, localization and stability), translation.
Explanation:
Transcription is regulated in two levels, though chromatin regulation (methylation and acetylation) to loose or increase histone's affinity to DNA and through cis and trans elements such as promoters, enhancers, and silencers (cis) to active/deactivate and RNA polymerase and transcription factors and co-factors (trans).mRNA can be regulated using poly-A tails or 5'-caps to shorten or give them more time before they degrade, it could also be spliced to eliminate introns. In the translation stage, the regulation occurs during the initiation through a scanning procedure that ensures the 40s ribosomal subunit bind correctly to the untranslated portion of RNAHope this information is useful to you!
All the following are characteristics of vitamin D except
a. It is activated by the liver and kidney
b. it causes the kidney to excrete less calcium in the urine.
c. its synthesis is enhanced by use of sunscreen.
d. it facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine
Final answer:
The synthesis of vitamin D is reduced by sunscreen, not enhanced. Vitamin D is critical for calcium absorption and bone health, and it is activated by the liver and kidneys.
Explanation:
The characteristic of vitamin D that is not accurate is that its synthesis is enhanced by the use of sunscreen. In fact, the synthesis of vitamin D is reduced with the use of sunscreen because it blocks ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, which is necessary for the skin to produce vitamin D3, or cholecalciferol. The liver and kidneys then activate the vitamin by converting cholecalciferol to its active form, calcitriol. This activation process facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine, promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and assists in bone tissue rebuilding. Therefore, the correct answers from the given options would be it is activated by the liver and kidney (a), it causes the kidney to excrete less calcium in the urine (b), and it facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine (d).
Describe the three main steps of each cycle of PCR amplification and what reactions occur at each temperature.
PCR involves the repeated cycling through denaturation, annealing, and extension stages at varying temperatures, which doubles the quantity of DNA molecules each time. The process can amplify a target DNA sequence dramatically after multiple rounds.
Explanation:The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) includes three main cycles that result in repetitively doubling the number of DNA molecules. Each cycle consists of three steps: denaturation, annealing, and DNA synthesis that occur at different temperatures. The first step, denaturation, occurs at high temperatures, approximately 95 °C, where the double-stranded DNA template is separated. The next step, annealing, happens at a lower temperature, around 50 °C, where the DNA primers anneal or stick to the template strands, with each primer annealing to each strand. Lastly, in the DNA synthesis step, the temperature is raised to 72 °C, which is the optimal temperature for the heat-stable DNA polymerase to add nucleotides to the primer using the single-stranded target as a template. Repeating these cycles 25-40 times results in the amplification of the target DNA sequence by tens of millions to over a trillion.
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Which of the following combinations is most likely to result in digestion?
a. amylase, starch, water, body temperature, testing immediately
b. amylase, starch, water, body temperature, testing after 30 mins
Explain.
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Digestion may be defined as the process of breakdown of large food particles into smaller substances. The product of digestion must be absorbed in the blood stream.
The digestion process can be seen in laboratory as well. Starch, water, body amylase,temperature, testing after 30 mins result in the process of digestion. The digestion takes time to digest the starch by the enzyme amylase and result of digestion will be seen after 30 minutes rather than testing immediately.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The vegetative cell that forms an endospore is geneticallyidentical
to the vegetative cell that emerges from thatendospore.
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Formation of endospore (sporulation) occurs in some organisms such as bacteria. Sporulation occurs during unfavourable environmental conditions. Sporulation is a process to preserve genetic material during unfavourable environmental conditions. The vegetative cell forms a thick-coated, dormant and resistant spore called endospore.
Endospore was discovered by John Tyndall. It is a resting spore and helps bacteria to overcome the unfavourable environmental conditions.
On the return of favourable environmental conditions, the endospore germinates to form new bacteria cell. Since this process does not involve meiosis, the new bacterial cell is genetically identical to the original vegetative cell.
What female organ is homologous with the male's scrotum?
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. corpus luteum
d. ovary
e. labia major
Answer: E
Explanation:
Organisms that live in virtually every environment on Earth belong to the Domain Archaea.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The organisms in Domains Bacteria and Archaea are able to thrive in every possible environment present on the earth. They are found in oceans, air, fresh water, soil, inside the body of living beings, hot water springs and even in hydrothermal vents.
Some of these organisms can thrive in the absence of oxygen as they perform anaerobic metabolism. For example, the enteric bacteria are anaerobic as oxygen is not available to them.
The evolution of unique ability to withstand the extremes of the conditions allows the archaeans to thrive under extreme climatic conditions. It includes halophiles, thermophiles, etc.
Differentiate phloem from xylem.
Answer:
Xylem function is to transport water and minerals.
phloem function is to transport food to different parts of plants.
Explanation:
We can Differentiate phloem from xylem by following ways
Xylem function is to carry water from the root region to leaves, whereas phloem function is to transport the food prepared in the leaves to the other parts of the plants.Xylem is composed of dead cells, whereas phloem is composed of living cells.cell wall present in the xylem is thick and made of lignin, whereas in the phloem cell wall is thin and made of cellulose.xylem tissue moves in unidirectional whereas in phloem tissue movement occur in bi-direction.Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
a. analyze genomes from different species.
b. simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
c. understand the behaviour of entire biological systems by studing interactions among its component parts.
d. build high-throughout machines for the paid acquistion for biological data.
The correct answer is C. Understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts.
Explanation:
Systems biology refer to a field of study that aims at understanding complex biological systems or network of biological factors and organizations using a holistic approach, which means systems are analyzed according to its components from different perspectives. Due to this, systems biology is widely used to understand the way biological system work and the ways these are affected if one of their component parts changes. According to this, the statement that shows the purpose of systems biology is "Understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts".
Systems biology is a field that aims to understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying the interactions among its components, integrating a variety of biological data for a more comprehensive understanding.
Explanation:Systems biology is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on understanding the behavior of entire biological systems through the study of interactions among its component parts, rather than studying components individually. Therefore, the best answer to your question would be:
c. understand the behaviour of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts.This approach integrates a wide range of biological data, including genomic, proteomic, and metabolomic, to develop a more comprehensive understanding of complex biological processes and systems.
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Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?
a. chlorophyll b
b. cellulose in cell walls
c. sexual reproduction
d. alternation of multicellular generations
Answer: d. alternation of multicellular generations
Explanation:
The gametophytic as well as the sporophytic generations are alternative in the life cycle of the multicellular plants. This can be seen among the land plants. This feature cannot be seen in the algal species as they are unicellular in nature. Thus cannot be seen in the relatives of charophyta algae.
Alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.
Vascular plants have a haplodiplont biological cycle with antithetical alternation of generations, this means that there are only two generations that develop in different nuclear phases:
A sporophytic generation in the diplophase responsible for producing spores (n) by meiosis.A gametophytic generation in the haplophase culminating in the production of gametes (n).This cycle differs from the haplonte cycles where the generation or generations develop in the haplofase or from the diplontes when the generation or generations develop in the diplophase; these types of cycles occur in more primitive plants.
When more than one generation alternate within the same phase, it is called homogenesis, as opposed to antigensis (mentioned for higher plants) where there is only one generation in each phase.
However, among charophyte algae there is only isomorphic alternation in ulvophyceae; the rest, including caroficeas, have a haplonte cycle in which the zygote undergoes meiosis.
Therefore, we can conclude that alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.
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List the constituents of plasma. List the components of the cellular part of the blood. What percentage of each makes up your blood?
Answer:
Blood contains both solid an liquid components in it. On centrifugation blood shows- 45% solid portion called formed elements and 55% liquid components called blood plasma.
Blood plasma is programmed to carry the nutrients and other important particles to organs whereas cellular components play roles in carrying oxygen and providing immunity.
The major components of blood plasma shows:
1. water: 90%
2. proteins-albumin, globulin and fibrin-7-8%
3. salts: 1%
The composition of the formed elements shows:
1. Erythrocyte (RBC)
2. Leukocyte (WBC)
3. Thrombocytes (platelets)
Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?
a. There is heritable variation among individuals.
b. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
c. Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
d. Only a fraction of an individual’s offspring may survive.
Answer: B. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring
Explanation:
Natural selection is a theory that states organisms adapts to its environment due to differences in their phenotypes. So, individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce. It is a key mechanism of evolution, which is the change in traits of a population over generations.
Populations respond to natural selection if they contain heritable variation among them, wich means that individuals differ in the traits they transmit to their offspring.
Because of the environmental selection pressures, individuals produce more offspring than their environment can support. The pressure determines which individuals will survive and reproduce, while others will die because of predation or diseases. So, natural selection is based on the observations of adapted individuals.
Answer:
i think it is b but i ill let you know since im taking the test rn
Explanation:
k i took the test and re edited this it is b poorly adapted one so yeah have a great day
What are the benefits of photosynthesis?
a. all answers are correct
b. it begins all food chain
c. it makes organic molecules like sugar
d. it produces oxygen gas
Answer:
The correct option is 'a': All the answers are correct.
Explanation:
Since plant's are abundant and can manufacture their own food hence they serve as the beginning of all the food chains hence option 'b' is correct.
In the process of photosynthesis the plants make use of carbon dioxide, sunlight , water, in presence of a pigment called chlorophyll present in plant cells in organelles called as plastids to yield glucose which is a carbohydrate or simplest sugar and release oxygen into the atmosphere. Hence options 'c' and 'd' are also correct.
What would happen to male fetus whose gonads could not produce testosterone
A. It would develop ovaries instead of testes
B. It would not develop male genitals
C. It could not produce Mullerian inhibiting hormone
D. It would produce estrogen
E. It would die
Answer:B. It would not develop male genitals
Explanation:
Testosterone is the male sex hormone. It is an anabolic steroid. It is responsible for the development and maturation of internal genitalia in males. Internal genetalia includes the testes and prostate gland development which aids in production of sperms and seminal fluid.
Thus in the abscenece of testosterone the gonads will not develop internal genitals.
Explain how regulation of gene expression can alter gene function.
Answer:
Explanation:
The genetic information present in all cells can be compared to a book of blueprints prepared for the construction of a large, multipurpose building.
-At different times, all of the blueprints will be needed, but only a small subset is consulted during the work on a particular floor or room.
-Similarly in the case of cells all the necessary genetic information is present but but only a subset of genes is expressed in any particular cell.
Regulation of gene expression alters the gene function in many ways.
For example in prokaryotes-
The lac operon is an inducible operon, in which the presence of a key metabolic substance which is lactose in this case, initiates transcription of the operon, allowing synthesis of the proteins encoded by the structural genes.
In case of repressor operon: Transcription of the structural genes is controlled by a repressor protein that is synthesized by a regulatory gene, which is also part of the operon. It binds to the operon and blocks the movement of Rna polymerase.
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by __________
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
b. extreme mood swings
c. loss of energy and suicidal thoughts
d. increased energy and extreme talkativeness
Answer:
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
Explanation:
This disease is common in the elderly, and is a common form of dementia. It affects the parts of the brain that control thinking, memory and language. People may have difficulty remembering things that happened recently.
People may not recognize their family members. They may have difficulty speaking, reading or writing.
Autotrophic means organisms __________
a. do not produce light
b. produce their own food
c. do not produce their food
d. produce light energy using food
Answer:D
Explanation:
50 years ago, pregnant women who were prescribed thalidomide for morning sickness gave birth to children with birth defects. Thalidomide is a mixture of two enantiomers; one reduces morning sickness, but the other causes severe birth defects. Today, the FDA has approved this drug for non-pregnant individuals with Hansen’s disease (leprosy) or newly diagnosed multiple myeloma, a blood and bone marrow cancer. The beneficial enantiomer can be synthesized and given to patients, but over time, both the beneficial and the harmful enantiomer can be detected in the body. Propose a possible explanation for the presence of the harmful enantiomer.
Answer:
I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one is that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.
Explanation:
Thalidomide (C13H10N2O4) is one of the most controversial drugs that exist nowadays due to the unfortunate error of prescribing this drug to pregnant women because its harmful effects were unknown at that time.
This drug possesses two enantiomers (optical isomers with mirror-image structures). Thalomide has a racemic mixture of both enantiomers, that is, an equal ratio of both 1:1. The R-enantiomer is a highly effective sedative with sleeping effects; whereas the S-enantiomer is teratogenic, i.e. it causes birth deffects by inhibiting the growth of new blood vessels.
After this disaster, researchers decided to prescribe this drug to patients with leprosy, cancer, and other diseases but, of course, not to pregnant women because as it turns out, the "good" enantiomer is also a great drug to treat them.
While they suggested the best way to prevent the presence of the "bad" enantiomer was to separate them into different drugs, they discovered that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.
Although there are still many research studies done because its mechanism is still not understood completely, I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one.
Thalidomide, with two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is given, both enantiomers will be present in the body due to 'racemization'. This is where the body's environment can convert some of the useful enantiomer into the harmful one.
Explanation:Thalidomide, a drug containing two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. This is a characteristic seen in many drugs, where one isomer can have the desired pharmacological effect, and the other isomer can cause detrimental side effects. In the specific case of thalidomide, one enantiomer helps reduce morning sickness, while the other is a teratogen, capable of causing birth defects.
Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is synthesized and administered to patients, both the harmful and beneficial enantiomers can be found in the body. This could be due to 'racemization' - a process where one enantiomer changes into the other. Studies have shown that in the body's environment, under physiological conditions, thalidomide can undergo racemization.
Racemization can be thought of as an equilibrium where, over time and under specific conditions, both enantiomer forms can be present. Essentially, the body's environment can convert some of the beneficial enantiomer into the harmful one, causing the secondary adverse effects. Despite only the beneficial form being given, the body's natural biochemistry facilitates the presence of both.
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Transgenic animals are lines of animals produced by inserting copies of a specific gene or genes into a fertilized egg or early embryo.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Transgenic animals are lines of animals produced by inserting copies of a specific gene or genes into a fertilized egg or early embryo.
Sterile water is added to 2 grams of sodium chloride to make 100ml of solution.
a. whay is the concentration (stated as percent)?
b. is the solution hopotonic or hypertonic to human cells?
Answer:
2 % of NaCl concentration
The solution is hypertonic to human cells
Explanation:
% Concentration = (g solute / g solution) * 100
Therefore
% Concentration of NaCl = (2 g NaCl/ 100 g solution) * 100
The concentration of the solution equals 2 %
Isotonic solutions for human red cells have a concentration of 0.9 % of NaCl. A concentration of 2 % of NaCl is above 0.9 %, so the solution is hypertonic, since you have more concentration of solute (NaCl) outside the cell, than inside the cell ( inside the side you have only 0.9 % NaCl). So the cell will shrink.
Mammals are diphyodont which refers to the fact that
a. in adulthood, the post canine teeth can be replaced twice
b. they have a variety of tooth shapes that allow for them to process a wider variety of foods.
c. adults only have two types of teeth and so can process food differently in the front of the mouth and the back of the mouth
d. they have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth
e. they have a set number of incisors, premolars, and molars
The correct answer is D. They have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth
Explanation:
In biology, a diphyodont is an animal that has two different sets of teeth, this often means the animal has a set of baby teeth that are later replaced by permanent teeth, this occurs in most mammals including humans. Additionally, diphyodont differ from other types of animals that have either only one set of teeth (monophyodonts), for example, toothed whales or change their teeth permanently (polyphyodont), for example, crocodiles. Thus, mammals are diphyodont because "they have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth".
Which of the following is not transmitted by water contaminated with human fecal material?
a. hepatitis A
b. toxoplasmosis
c. polio
d. typhoid fever
e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner
Answer:
e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner
Explanation:
All the diseases mentioned above can be transmitted by water or food infected with human fecal material, so it is important to always know the origin of the foods that are consumed, as well as promote the cooking and efficient cleaning of these foods.
As stated above, these diseases can be transmitted by water contaminated by faecal material from a human who has the disease, this shows the importance of promoting a basic sanitation system in cities, so that everyone has a guarantee of clean and free water. of contaminants. It is also important to avoid bathing in rivers and lakes of suspicious places and always taking available vaccines to fight disease.
P.S. vaccines do not cause health problems, on the contrary, they are designed to protect humans from possible parasites
Why does sodium react so easily with chloride to make sodium chloride?
A. Both atoms have incomplete outer orbitals and they complete each other's when they combine
B. Sodium chloride is table salt, one of the most reactive molecules in living things.
C. Opposites attract.
D. Both atoms have outermost shells full of electrons.
E. Sodium chloride is highly explosive.