Two pea plants heterozygous for the characters of pod color and pod shape are crossed. Draw a Punnett square to determine the phenotypic ratios of the offspring.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

I will attach a file with the punnett square

Explanation:

You have to write every possible combination of gametes for each individual. In this case, both individuals will have the same possible combination of gametes because they both are heterozygous for both traits. Then you have to make the crossing between each gamete and you get the punnett square.

Two Pea Plants Heterozygous For The Characters Of Pod Color And Pod Shape Are Crossed. Draw A Punnett
Answer 2
Final answer:

A cross between pea plants heterozygous for pod color and shape produces a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio, as predicted by a dihybrid cross Punnett square. This indicates 9 offspring would be green and round, 3 would be green and wrinkled, 3 would be yellow and round, and 1 would be yellow and wrinkled.

Explanation:

In this cross scenario, we're considering two characters i.e., pod color and pod shape and the pea plants are heterozygous for both traits. A heterozygous plant can be denoted as GgRr, where 'G' and 'R' are dominant alleles for green color and round shape, and 'g' and 'r' are recessive alleles for yellow color and wrinkled shape.

To examine all possible combinations of these traits in the offspring, we use a type of Punnett square called a dihybrid cross. This square is 4x4 and it helps predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring. The phenotypic ratio for a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous for both traits is typically 9:3:3:1. This means 9 offspring will be green and round, 3 will be green and wrinkled, 3 will be yellow and round, and 1 will be yellow and wrinkled.

However, actual results can vary from these predicted ratios because the distribution of traits among offspring is determined by chance.

Learn more about Dihybrid Cross here:

https://brainly.com/question/30239727

#SPJ3


Related Questions

Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?
a. chlorophyll b
b. cellulose in cell walls
c. sexual reproduction
d. alternation of multicellular generations

Answers

Answer: d. alternation of multicellular generations

Explanation:

The gametophytic as well as the sporophytic generations are alternative in the life cycle of the multicellular plants. This can be seen among the land plants. This feature cannot be seen in the algal species as they are unicellular in nature. Thus cannot be seen in the relatives of charophyta algae.

Alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.

Vascular plants have a haplodiplont biological cycle with antithetical alternation of generations, this means that there are only two generations that develop in different nuclear phases:

A sporophytic generation in the diplophase responsible for producing spores (n) by meiosis.

A gametophytic generation in the haplophase culminating in the production of gametes (n).

This cycle differs from the haplonte cycles where the generation or generations develop in the haplofase or from the diplontes when the generation or generations develop in the diplophase; these types of cycles occur in more primitive plants.

When more than one generation alternate within the same phase, it is called homogenesis, as opposed to antigensis (mentioned for higher plants) where there is only one generation in each phase.

However, among charophyte algae there is only isomorphic alternation in ulvophyceae; the rest, including caroficeas, have a haplonte cycle in which the zygote undergoes meiosis.

Therefore, we can conclude that alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/15194725

Each stage of community change during the process of succession is known as a ___________ stage.
a. biome
b. community
c. seral
d. trophic
e. successional

Answers

Answer: Seral stage

Explanation:

The seral community commonly known as sere. It is an intermediate stage which is found during the ecological succession in an ecosystem.

This is an intermediate stage that comes before every stage of ecological succession advancing towards its climax community.

It starts with the pioneer species and keeps on evolving until climax community is attained.

Hence, the correct answer is option C

Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?
a. There is heritable variation among individuals.
b. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
c. Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
d. Only a fraction of an individual’s offspring may survive.

Answers

Answer: B. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring

Explanation:

Natural selection is a theory that states organisms adapts to its environment due to differences in their phenotypes. So, individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce. It is a key mechanism of evolution, which is the change in traits of a population over generations.

Populations respond to natural selection if they contain heritable variation among them, wich means that individuals differ in the traits they transmit to their offspring.

Because of the environmental selection pressures, individuals produce more offspring than their environment can support. The pressure determines which individuals will survive and reproduce, while others will die because of predation or diseases. So, natural selection is based on the observations of adapted individuals.

Answer:

i think it is b but i ill let you know since im taking the test rn

Explanation:

k i took the test and re edited this it is b poorly adapted one so yeah have a great day

Organisms that live in virtually every environment on Earth belong to the Domain Archaea.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The organisms in Domains Bacteria and Archaea are able to thrive in every possible environment present on the earth. They are found in oceans, air, fresh water, soil, inside the body of living beings, hot water springs and even in hydrothermal vents.

Some of these organisms can thrive in the absence of oxygen as they perform anaerobic metabolism. For example, the enteric bacteria are anaerobic as oxygen is not available to them.

The evolution of unique ability to withstand the extremes of the conditions allows the archaeans to thrive under extreme climatic conditions. It includes halophiles, thermophiles, etc.

Which of the following is not transmitted by water contaminated with human fecal material?
a. hepatitis A
b. toxoplasmosis
c. polio
d. typhoid fever
e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner

Answers

Answer:

e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner

Explanation:

All the diseases mentioned above can be transmitted by water or food infected with human fecal material, so it is important to always know the origin of the foods that are consumed, as well as promote the cooking and efficient cleaning of these foods.

As stated above, these diseases can be transmitted by water contaminated by faecal material from a human who has the disease, this shows the importance of promoting a basic sanitation system in cities, so that everyone has a guarantee of clean and free water. of contaminants. It is also important to avoid bathing in rivers and lakes of suspicious places and always taking available vaccines to fight disease.

P.S.  vaccines do not cause health problems, on the contrary, they are designed to protect humans from possible parasites

All of the events listed below occur in the energy-capturing light reactions of photosynthesis except
A) oxygen is produced.
B) NADPt is reduced to NADPH.
C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.
D) ADP is phosphorylated to yield ATP
E) light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll

Answers

Answer:

C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.

Explanation:

Light reactions of photosynthesis include splitting of the water molecule in presence of sunlight and release of electrons and oxygen gas, generation of electrochemical gradient during electron transfer from PSII to NADP+ via PSI and synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

The ATP and NADPH are used in the light-independent phase of photosynthesis which includes the Calvin cycle.

The first stage of the Calvin cycle is carbon fixation during which carbon dioxide is fixed into 3-PGA (3-phosphoglyceraldehyde). Carbon fixation is followed by reduction and regeneration of RuBP.

What are the benefits of photosynthesis?
a. all answers are correct
b. it begins all food chain
c. it makes organic molecules like sugar
d. it produces oxygen gas

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is 'a': All the answers are correct.

Explanation:

Since plant's are abundant and can manufacture their own food hence they serve as the beginning of all the food chains hence option 'b' is correct.

In the process of photosynthesis the plants make use of carbon dioxide, sunlight , water, in presence of a pigment called chlorophyll present in plant cells in organelles called as plastids to yield glucose which is a carbohydrate or simplest sugar and release oxygen into the atmosphere. Hence options 'c' and 'd' are also correct.

Transgenic animals are lines of animals produced by inserting copies of a specific gene or genes into a fertilized egg or early embryo.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Transgenic animals are lines of animals produced by inserting copies of a specific gene or genes into a fertilized egg or early embryo.

Which of the following combinations is most likely to result in digestion?
a. amylase, starch, water, body temperature, testing immediately
b. amylase, starch, water, body temperature, testing after 30 mins
Explain.

Answers

Answer:

Option (b).

Explanation:

Digestion may be defined as the process of breakdown of large food particles into smaller substances. The product of digestion must be absorbed in the blood stream.

The digestion process can be seen in laboratory as well. Starch, water, body amylase,temperature, testing after 30 mins result in the process of digestion. The digestion takes time to digest the starch by the enzyme amylase and result of digestion will be seen after 30 minutes rather than testing immediately.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Mammals are diphyodont which refers to the fact that
a. in adulthood, the post canine teeth can be replaced twice
b. they have a variety of tooth shapes that allow for them to process a wider variety of foods.
c. adults only have two types of teeth and so can process food differently in the front of the mouth and the back of the mouth
d. they have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth
e. they have a set number of incisors, premolars, and molars

Answers

The correct answer is D. They have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth

Explanation:

In biology, a diphyodont is an animal that has two different sets of teeth, this often means the animal has a set of baby teeth that are later replaced by permanent teeth, this occurs in most mammals including humans. Additionally, diphyodont differ from other types of animals that have either only one set of teeth (monophyodonts), for example, toothed whales or change their teeth permanently (polyphyodont), for example, crocodiles. Thus, mammals are diphyodont because "they have two successive sets of teeth including milk teeth and permanent adult teeth".

Alzheimer's disease is characterized by __________
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
b. extreme mood swings
c. loss of energy and suicidal thoughts
d. increased energy and extreme talkativeness

Answers

Answer:

a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes

Explanation:

This disease is common in the elderly, and is a common form of dementia. It affects the parts of the brain that control thinking, memory and language. People may have difficulty remembering things that happened recently.

People may not recognize their family members. They may have difficulty speaking, reading or writing.

What is an example of a cell that has specialized domains of plasma membrane?

Answers

Answer:

Epithelial cell

Explanation:

A typical epithelial cell is characterized by the presence of special domains of the plasma membrane. An epithelial cell has an apical domain and a basolateral domain.

The apical domain of the epithelial cells is present towards the lumen of the organ while its basolateral domain covers the rest part of the cell.

The two domains differ from each other structurally and perform specific functions. Specialized appendages such as cilia are mostly present in the apical domain of the epithelial cells.

The specific distribution of proteins and lipids is maintained by tight junctions that do not allow the passage of substances between the two domains.

Why does sodium react so easily with chloride to make sodium chloride?
A. Both atoms have incomplete outer orbitals and they complete each other's when they combine
B. Sodium chloride is table salt, one of the most reactive molecules in living things.
C. Opposites attract.
D. Both atoms have outermost shells full of electrons.
E. Sodium chloride is highly explosive.

Answers

I think the answer is C because the sodium ion has a +1 charge and chloride has a -1 charge so they are attracted by their charges, which creates an ionic bond

Koch's postulates are the established rules for determining that a specific pathogen causes a specific disease.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: a. True

Explanation: These postulates were formulated by Robert Koch as a result of his experiments with healthy and infected mice. The postulates are often used to determine if a phatogen causes a disease. These are:

The pathogen must be present in sick individuals but not in healthy ones. The pathogen must be isolated from individuals and cultivated in a pure culture.The pathogen cultivated must cause sickness when it's injected in suceptible inviduals.The pathogen must be isolated from the injected individuals and must be exactly as the first one.

All the following are characteristics of vitamin D except
a. It is activated by the liver and kidney
b. it causes the kidney to excrete less calcium in the urine.
c. its synthesis is enhanced by use of sunscreen.
d. it facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine

Answers

c. it’s synthesis is enhanced by use of sunscreen
- there are concerns that sunscreen might actually inhibit the body’s production of vitamin d

Final answer:

The synthesis of vitamin D is reduced by sunscreen, not enhanced. Vitamin D is critical for calcium absorption and bone health, and it is activated by the liver and kidneys.

Explanation:

The characteristic of vitamin D that is not accurate is that its synthesis is enhanced by the use of sunscreen. In fact, the synthesis of vitamin D is reduced with the use of sunscreen because it blocks ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, which is necessary for the skin to produce vitamin D3, or cholecalciferol. The liver and kidneys then activate the vitamin by converting cholecalciferol to its active form, calcitriol. This activation process facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine, promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and assists in bone tissue rebuilding. Therefore, the correct answers from the given options would be it is activated by the liver and kidney (a), it causes the kidney to excrete less calcium in the urine (b), and it facilitates calcium absorption from the small intestine (d).

Differentiate phloem from xylem.

Answers

Answer:

Xylem function is to transport water and minerals.

phloem function is to transport food to different parts of plants.

Explanation:

We can Differentiate phloem from xylem by following ways

Xylem function is to carry water from the root region to leaves, whereas phloem function is to transport the food prepared in the leaves to the other parts of the plants.Xylem is composed of dead cells, whereas phloem is composed of living cells.cell wall present in the xylem is thick and made of lignin, whereas in the phloem cell wall is thin and made of cellulose.xylem tissue moves in unidirectional whereas in phloem tissue movement occur in bi-direction.

Gene expression in eukaryotes can be regulated at many different levels. List the different levels of regulation, and explain what each means.

Answers

Answer:

Transcription, mRNA (processing, transport, localization and stability), translation.

Explanation:

Transcription is regulated in two levels, though chromatin regulation (methylation and acetylation) to loose or increase histone's affinity to DNA and through cis and trans elements such as promoters, enhancers, and silencers (cis) to active/deactivate and RNA polymerase and transcription factors and co-factors (trans).mRNA can be regulated using poly-A tails or 5'-caps to shorten or give them more time before they degrade, it could also be spliced to eliminate introns. In the translation stage, the regulation occurs during the initiation through a scanning procedure that ensures the 40s ribosomal subunit bind correctly to the untranslated portion of RNA

Hope this information is useful to you!

List the constituents of plasma. List the components of the cellular part of the blood. What percentage of each makes up your blood?

Answers

Answer:

Blood contains both solid an liquid components in it. On centrifugation blood shows- 45% solid portion called formed elements and 55% liquid components called blood plasma.

Blood plasma is programmed to carry the nutrients and other important particles to organs whereas cellular components play roles in carrying oxygen and providing immunity.

The major components of blood plasma shows:

1. water: 90%

2. proteins-albumin, globulin and fibrin-7-8%  

3. salts: 1%

The composition of the formed elements shows:

1. Erythrocyte (RBC)

2. Leukocyte (WBC)

3. Thrombocytes (platelets)

Describe the three main steps of each cycle of PCR amplification and what reactions occur at each temperature.

Answers

Final answer:

PCR involves the repeated cycling through denaturation, annealing, and extension stages at varying temperatures, which doubles the quantity of DNA molecules each time. The process can amplify a target DNA sequence dramatically after multiple rounds.

Explanation:

The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) includes three main cycles that result in repetitively doubling the number of DNA molecules. Each cycle consists of three steps: denaturation, annealing, and DNA synthesis that occur at different temperatures. The first step, denaturation, occurs at high temperatures, approximately 95 °C, where the double-stranded DNA template is separated. The next step, annealing, happens at a lower temperature, around 50 °C, where the DNA primers anneal or stick to the template strands, with each primer annealing to each strand. Lastly, in the DNA synthesis step, the temperature is raised to 72 °C, which is the optimal temperature for the heat-stable DNA polymerase to add nucleotides to the primer using the single-stranded target as a template. Repeating these cycles 25-40 times results in the amplification of the target DNA sequence by tens of millions to over a trillion.

Learn more about Polymerase Chain Reaction here:

https://brainly.com/question/33457347

#SPJ12

Two normally pigmented parents have an albino child. What are the parents' genotypes?

Answers

Final answer:

Two normally pigmented parents with an albino child each carry one dominant allele for pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism, giving them the heterozygous genotype Aa.

Explanation:

When two normally pigmented parents have an albino child, the genetic inheritance involved follows a recessive pattern. Albinism is a condition characterized by a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes and is caused by a recessive allele. If a child expresses this recessive trait, it means that both parents must have provided a copy of this recessive allele for albinism. Thus, the genotypes of each parent must be heterozygous, meaning they each carry one dominant allele for normal pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism. This can be represented as Aa, where 'A' is the dominant allele for normal pigmentation, and 'a' is the recessive allele for albinism.

In the context of Mendelian genetics and monohybrid crosses, such as the cross that would involve the two heterozygous parents, a Punnett square predicts that there is a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the second filial (F2) generation. However, in the first generation (F1), all offspring would display the dominant phenotype. In cases like the one presented, albinism reveals the underlying genotype of the parents due to its recessive nature. The appearance of the recessive phenotype in their offspring unequivocally indicates that both parents were carriers of the albinism trait.

Genotype determination from offspring phenotypes can similarly be applied to other recessively inherited disorders, like alkaptonuria mentioned in Figure 12.6, or examples of epistasis in mice coat color inheritance. Understanding parental genotypes using offspring phenotypes is a foundational concept in genetics and illustrates the predictive power of monohybrid crosses.

Sterile water is added to 2 grams of sodium chloride to make 100ml of solution.
a. whay is the concentration (stated as percent)?
b. is the solution hopotonic or hypertonic to human cells?

Answers

Answer:

2 % of NaCl concentration

The solution is hypertonic to human cells

Explanation:

% Concentration = (g solute / g solution) * 100

Therefore

% Concentration of NaCl = (2 g NaCl/ 100 g solution) * 100

The concentration of the solution equals 2 %

Isotonic solutions for human red cells have a concentration of 0.9 % of NaCl.  A concentration of 2 % of NaCl is above 0.9 %, so the solution is hypertonic, since you have more concentration of solute (NaCl) outside the cell, than inside the cell ( inside the side you have only 0.9 % NaCl). So the cell will shrink.

Differentiate between primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins.

Answers

Answer:

Biologists describe the structure of protein at four levels: Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary.

Explanation:

1. Primary structure: It is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. It only gives us the positional information of amino acids within a protein like which one is first, which one is second and so on. We can see only peptide bonds in primary structure.

Also the first amino acid is known as N-terminal and the last as C-terminal.

2. Secondary structure: The protein thread folds either in the form of helix or beta pleated sheet to form the secondary structure.

In alpha helix, there is hydrogen bonding between every fourth amino acid. Example keratin protein of hair.

In beta pleated sheets, two or more polypeptide strands are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

3. Tertiary structure: The long polypeptide chain usually folds upon itself like a hollow wollen ball. This is termed as tertiary structure. Involves several linkages like hydrogen bond, hydrophobic bond, ionic bond, covalent bond, van der walls forces. Active sites are formed and protein gains functionality. Example: myoglobin

4. Quaternary structure: Quaternary structure is formed when there are more than one polypeptide chains. For example: hemoglobin has four helical polypeptide chains.

Final answer:

Proteins have four levels of structure essential to function: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding into α-helices or β-pleated sheets), tertiary (three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain), and quaternary (arrangement of multiple subunits).

Explanation:Differences Between Protein Structure Levels

The structure of protein is essential for its function and is organized into four distinct levels: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. The primary structure of a protein consists of its unique sequence of amino acids. As for the secondary structure, it is characterized by local folding into patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets. The tertiary structure represents the further three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain, resulting in a complex globular shape. When a protein consists of more than one polypeptide chain, they associate to form the quaternary structure, which is the arrangement of these multiple subunits.

Each level of protein structure is critical to the protein's ultimate function. Disruption of these structures, such as through denaturation, can result in loss of function. The structure is maintained by various interactions including hydrogen bonding, ionic bonds, disulfide linkages, and dispersion forces.

Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
a. analyze genomes from different species.
b. simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
c. understand the behaviour of entire biological systems by studing interactions among its component parts.
d. build high-throughout machines for the paid acquistion for biological data.

Answers

The correct answer is C. Understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts.

Explanation:

Systems biology refer to a field of study that aims at understanding complex biological systems or network of biological factors and organizations using a holistic approach, which means systems are analyzed according to its components from different perspectives. Due to this, systems biology is widely used to understand the way biological system work and the ways these are affected if one of their component parts changes. According to this, the statement that shows the purpose of systems biology is "Understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts".

Final answer:

Systems biology is a field that aims to understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying the interactions among its components, integrating a variety of biological data for a more comprehensive understanding.

Explanation:

Systems biology is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on understanding the behavior of entire biological systems through the study of interactions among its component parts, rather than studying components individually. Therefore, the best answer to your question would be:

c. understand the behaviour of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its component parts.

This approach integrates a wide range of biological data, including genomic, proteomic, and metabolomic, to develop a more comprehensive understanding of complex biological processes and systems.

Learn more about Systems Biology here:

https://brainly.com/question/34186645

#SPJ6

Autotrophic means organisms __________
a. do not produce light
b. produce their own food
c. do not produce their food
d. produce light energy using food

Answers

Answer:D

Explanation:

The vegetative cell that forms an endospore is geneticallyidentical
to the vegetative cell that emerges from thatendospore.

True or False?

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Formation of endospore (sporulation) occurs in some organisms such as bacteria.  Sporulation occurs during unfavourable environmental conditions. Sporulation is a process to preserve genetic material during unfavourable environmental conditions. The vegetative cell forms a thick-coated, dormant and resistant spore called endospore.

Endospore was discovered by John Tyndall. It is a resting spore and helps bacteria to overcome the unfavourable environmental conditions.

On the return of favourable environmental conditions, the endospore germinates to form new bacteria cell. Since this process does not involve meiosis, the new bacterial cell is genetically identical to the original vegetative cell.

What would happen to male fetus whose gonads could not produce testosterone
A. It would develop ovaries instead of testes
B. It would not develop male genitals
C. It could not produce Mullerian inhibiting hormone
D. It would produce estrogen
E. It would die

Answers

Answer:B. It would not develop male genitals

Explanation:

Testosterone is the male sex hormone. It is an anabolic steroid. It is responsible for the development and maturation of internal genitalia in males. Internal genetalia includes the testes and prostate gland development which aids in production of sperms and seminal fluid.

Thus in the abscenece of testosterone the gonads will not develop internal genitals.

Explain how regulation of gene expression can alter gene function.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The genetic information present in all cells can be  compared to a book of blueprints prepared for the construction  of a large, multipurpose building.

-At different times, all of the  blueprints will be needed, but only a small subset is consulted  during the work on a particular floor or room.

-Similarly in the case of cells all the necessary genetic information is present but but only a subset of genes is  expressed in any particular cell.

Regulation of gene expression alters the gene function in many ways.

For example in prokaryotes-

The lac operon is an  inducible operon, in which the presence of a key metabolic  substance which is lactose in this case, initiates  transcription of the  operon, allowing synthesis of the proteins encoded by the  structural genes.

In case of repressor operon: Transcription of the structural genes is controlled by a repressor  protein that is synthesized by a regulatory gene, which is also part of  the operon. It binds to the operon and blocks the movement of Rna polymerase.

Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?
a. carbon fixation
b. oxidation of NADPH
c. release of oxygen
d. regeneration of the CO2 acceptor

Answers

Answer:

Release of oxygen. (Ans. C)

Explanation:

Calvin cycle is the set of chemical reaction which it takes place in chloroplast during photosynthesis. It is a light-independent cycle ( where carbon fixation occurs) because it takes place after the energy has been taken from sunlight. These are the steps includes in this cycle:

1) Calvin cycle adds carbon from CO2 present in the atmosphere to a 5 carbon molecule, known as ribulose bisphosphate catches 1 molecule of carbon dioxide and form a 6 carbon molecule.

2) The enzyme RuBisCo breaks the 6 carbon molecule into two equal parts with the energy of ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH) molecules.

3) One trio of carbon molecule leave and become sugar and another trio of carbon molecule move to the next steps.

4) The 3 carbon molecule changing into a 5 carbon molecule, using ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH), and the cycle starts over again.

Final answer:

The Calvin cycle is responsible for carbon fixation and the production of glucose during photosynthesis. It involves several reactions, but the release of oxygen does not occur during the Calvin cycle.

c is correct

Explanation:

The Calvin cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the stroma of chloroplasts during photosynthesis. It is responsible for converting carbon dioxide into glucose, a process called carbon fixation. In the Calvin cycle, several reactions take place, including the oxidation of NADPH, the regeneration of the CO2 acceptor, and the synthesis of carbohydrate molecules from G3P using ATP and NADPH.

Out of the given options, the one that does not occur during the Calvin cycle is c. release of oxygen. In photosynthesis, the release of oxygen occurs during the light-dependent reactions, specifically in photosystem II.

Learn more about Calvin cycle here:

https://brainly.com/question/40236880

#SPJ3

50 years ago, pregnant women who were prescribed thalidomide for morning sickness gave birth to children with birth defects. Thalidomide is a mixture of two enantiomers; one reduces morning sickness, but the other causes severe birth defects. Today, the FDA has approved this drug for non-pregnant individuals with Hansen’s disease (leprosy) or newly diagnosed multiple myeloma, a blood and bone marrow cancer. The beneficial enantiomer can be synthesized and given to patients, but over time, both the beneficial and the harmful enantiomer can be detected in the body. Propose a possible explanation for the presence of the harmful enantiomer.

Answers

Answer:

I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one is that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.

Explanation:

Thalidomide (C13H10N2O4) is one of the most controversial drugs that exist nowadays due to the unfortunate error of prescribing this drug to pregnant women because its harmful effects were unknown at that time.

This drug possesses two enantiomers (optical isomers with mirror-image structures). Thalomide has a racemic mixture of both enantiomers, that is, an equal ratio of both 1:1. The R-enantiomer is a highly effective sedative with sleeping effects; whereas the S-enantiomer is teratogenic, i.e. it causes birth deffects by inhibiting the growth of new blood vessels.

After this disaster, researchers decided to prescribe this drug to patients with leprosy, cancer, and other diseases but, of course, not to pregnant women because as it turns out, the "good" enantiomer is also a great drug to treat them.

While they suggested the best way to prevent the presence of the "bad" enantiomer was to separate them into different drugs, they discovered that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.

Although there are still many research studies done because its mechanism is still not understood completely, I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one.

Final answer:

Thalidomide, with two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is given, both enantiomers will be present in the body due to 'racemization'. This is where the body's environment can convert some of the useful enantiomer into the harmful one.

Explanation:

Thalidomide, a drug containing two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. This is a characteristic seen in many drugs, where one isomer can have the desired pharmacological effect, and the other isomer can cause detrimental side effects. In the specific case of thalidomide, one enantiomer helps reduce morning sickness, while the other is a teratogen, capable of causing birth defects.

Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is synthesized and administered to patients, both the harmful and beneficial enantiomers can be found in the body. This could be due to 'racemization' - a process where one enantiomer changes into the other. Studies have shown that in the body's environment, under physiological conditions, thalidomide can undergo racemization.

Racemization can be thought of as an equilibrium where, over time and under specific conditions, both enantiomer forms can be present. Essentially, the body's environment can convert some of the beneficial enantiomer into the harmful one, causing the secondary adverse effects. Despite only the beneficial form being given, the body's natural biochemistry facilitates the presence of both.

Learn more about Thalidomide Enantiomers here:

https://brainly.com/question/30471959

#SPJ3

What female organ is homologous with the male's scrotum?
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. corpus luteum
d. ovary
e. labia major

Answers

Answer: E

Explanation:

Other Questions
What was one of England's main goals in sending explorers to the Americas? A. conquering Dutch settlements B. blocking Spain's religious efforts C. stopping French expansion D. stealing Spanish gold write in standard form 100 + 30 )) A triangle has angle measurements of 34, 90, and 56. Is this triangle scalene?>yesno Pat is concerned about better knowing the cultural tendencies of her business partners and competitors in Europe and Asia. Pat would be interested in knowing this information because according to the GLOBE project, this can give her a strategic competitive advantage. Lucas is having a hard time selecting a topic for his Informative Speech so he decided to ask his classmates what topics they'd most like to learn about. What process of topic selection did he engage in? How do enzymes affect activation energy? Your grandmother is quite upset. She is 82 years old and has been having some serious vision problems. You have suggested quite a few times that she needs to see her doctor. She finally went and she was told that she has cataracts. She feels like she is the only one her age that does. What percentage of adults her age have cataracts? i need help with a math problem right now it says A car rental agency advertised renting a car for $27.95 per day and $0.28 per mile. If David rents his car for 3 days, how many whole miles can he drive on a $200 budget A common parameter that can be used to predict turbulence in fluid flow is called the Reynolds number. The Reynolds number for fluid flow in a pipe is a dimensionless quantity defined as Re = rhovd where rho is the density of the fluid, v is its speed, d is the inner diameter of the pipe, and is the viscosity of the fluid. Viscosity is a measure of the internal resistance of a liquid to flow and has units of Pa s. The criteria for the type of flow are as follows. If Re < 2,300, the flow is laminar. If 2,300 < Re < 4,000, the flow is in a transition region between laminar and turbulent. If Re > 4,000, the flow is turbulent. (a) Let's model blood of density 1.06 103 kg/m3 and viscosity 3.00 10-3 Pa s as a pure liquid, that is, ignore the fact that it contains red blood cells. Suppose it is flowing in a large artery of radius 1.25 cm with a speed of 0.0650 m/s. Show that the flow is laminar. (State the Reynolds number of the flow, which will be less than 2,300, indicating laminar flow.) (b) Imagine that the artery ends in a single capillary so that the radius of the artery reduces to a much smaller value. What is the radius of the capillary that would cause the flow to become turbulent? (Use the minimum Reynolds number for which flow is fully turbulent.) A rock is dropped from the top of a tall building. How high is the building if it takes 3.25seconds for the rock to strike the ground? Ignore the effects of air resistance. A) 169m B)15.9m C)51.8m D) 32.2m find 3 fractions between 2/8 and 3/8 Newtons first law of motion was a giant leap forward in scientific thought during Newtons time. Even today, the idea is sometimes difficult at first for people to understand.Which statement is the best example of an object and motion that would make it hard for people to believe Newtons first law?a. A rolling ball eventually slows down and comes to a stop.b. A wagon must be pushed before it begins to move.c. The heavier the load in a cart, the harder the cart is to turn.d. A box does not move when pushed equally from opposite sides. a patient who exhibits a weak pulse, shallow or absentbreathing, delirium or coma, and blue lips is most likely sufferingfrom which type of drug overdose? Which step of the scientific method involves obtaining resources for your question __________ play(s) an important role in both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.a. killer cytotoxic (CD8+) T cellsb. neutrophilsc. B lymphocytesd. Helper T cells (CD4+)e. all of the above play an important role in both humoral and cell-mediated immunity A runner of mass 51.8 kg starts from rest and accelerates with a constant acceleration of 1.31 m/s^2 until she reaches a velocity of 5.47 m/s. She then continues running at this constant velocity. How long does the runner take to travel 165 m? How might a bacterium resist thekilling effects of a phagolysosome? An object with a mass of 100 kg is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the velocity of the object before hitting the ground is 15 m/s, is there a loss of energy in the form of heat? If so, how much? Assume, g= 9.8 m/s^2 Suppose the transit system of a large city has a lost and found department that keeps detailed records, including the estimated value in dollars of each lost item. Each year the department publishes a report with a histogram showing the proportion of items lost in various price ranges.The bar on the histogram with endpoints 100 to 200 has a height of 0.11. What does this mean?(A) of the lost items, 11% cost $150.(B) Between 100 and 200 items had an estimated value of 11% of the total cost of all items.(C) Of the lost items, 11% cost between $100 and $200.(D) It is impossible to answer the question because it does not say what variable is displayed on the horizontal axis.(E) Of the lost items, 11% had an average cost of $150. Which is an example of how local environmental disasters can have a global impact?the buildup of greenhouse gases that lead to global warmingthe spread of SARS from Asia to North America and Europethe rising sea level and flooding of coastal areas worldwidethe incident at a nuclear power plant in Chernobyl, Russia