Answer:
This approach is now under scrutiny because of our understanding of
human microbiomes.
Answer:
Because of our understanding of human microbiomes.
Explanation:
The human microbiome, set of bacteria, fungi and viruses that make up our body play an important role in the body, including reproduction.
We received about 23,000 genes from our parents, an insignificant number compared to the 3.3 million genes belonging to the bacteria housed in our bodies. Do not imagine that they are poor parasites waiting for an opportunity to invade the organism. Among other noble functions, bacteria release essential micronutrients, energy for daily consumption, regulate the immune system and protect us against virulent germs.
For this reason, we begin to question the real need for the use of antibacterial soaps because they decrease the population of beneficial and necessary bacteria to our body.
In the case of driving in bad weather, at night, or behind trucks or motorcycles, you should _____. A. maintain a two-second following distance B. maintain a four-second following distance C. increase your following distance to at least four seconds D. increase your following distance to at least five seconds
Answer: it’s d. Atleast 5 seconds
Explanation:
In the case of driving in bad weather, at night, or behind trucks or motorcycles, you should increase your following distance to at least four seconds. C.
To stop your car, you must first have time to react, and then it takes some time for the car to slow down. Both of these times contribute to the distance you will travel before you can stop. Because the stopping distance increases more and more rapidly as you go faster, the rule of one car length per 10 m.p.h. of speed is not conservative enough at high speeds.
Increasing the distance allows more time to react and brake safely, especially in bad weather or low-visibility conditions. Bad weather such as rain, snow, or fog, and nighttime driving conditions reduce visibility and affect your ability to see hazards. When following trucks or motorcycles, maintaining a safer distance provides better visibility and reaction time.
being a safer driver requires _____.
A. a frame of mind focused on safety
B. a frame of mind focused on your passengers
C. more knowledge
D. more maturity
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Yes driving does include lots of knowledge but the most important part of driving is being focus on your safety as well as safety of others around you. Maturity and your passengers have nothing to do with this.
Being a safer driver requires a frame of mind focused on safety.
Why is safety important in driving?Defensive driving techniques reduce the likelihood of a collision or incident and can even save costs related to vehicle maintenance and fuel consumption, by driving smoothly and steadily.
Why is driver safety so important?The reason a safe driving attitude is so important is that you will make many choices as you drive, and your driving choices have consequences.
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The insurance that helps pay hospital, surgical, medical, and other bills with a low deductible is known as a(n): a) Basic health insurance policy. b) Individual policy. c) Comprehensive major medical policy. d) Hospital indemnity policy. e) Dread disease policy.
Answer:
The correct answer is c) Comprehensive major medical policy
Explanation:
Comprehensive major medical policy is that type of health insurance,which gives a policy holder benefits of both traditional health care coverage and also cover other basic medical expenses and that too at a very affordable price. Not only this insurance gives a coinsurance feature to its policy holders, but in this policy a insured can choose any health care provider he or she wants.
A student titrates a sample of the water used to cook a cabbage sample in Part D. A significant amount of vitamin C is found in the titrated sample. Which of the following statements about the mg of vitamin C per gram of cabbage is consistent with this titration result? a. Raw and cooked cabbage have the same mg/g. b. Raw has more mg/g than cooked. c. Raw has less mg/g than cooked.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-raw has more mg/g than cooked.
Explanation:
Cabbage is a modified leafy vegetable crop which consists of thick leaves in superimposed compact layers. Many varieties of cabbage is cultivated around the globe like red cabbage, napa, bok-choy.
Fresh cabbage is a rich source of natural antioxidant that is vitamin c (ascorbic acid) with other minerals. Anti-oxidant like vitamin c protect the body from free-radicals which can destroy the cells.
Raw cabbage has more vitamin c content than cooked cabbage as the heat or increased temperature increase the oxidation rate of vitamin c, a highly unstable product due to which it gets degraded and dissolves in water.
Thus, raw cabbage has more mg/g vitamin than cooked.
What does a stress fracture in foot feel like?
Answer:
Hairline or stress fractures are tiny cracks on a bone that often develop in the foot or lower leg. It is common for hairline fractures to occur as a result of sports that involve repetitive jumping or running.
Hairline fractures may also occur in the upper limb and are often related to falls or accidents.
Explanation:
You observe a high proportion of malarial infections in a small village located in Angola. Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium and is spread through the female Anopheles mosquito, a biological vector for this disease. Which of the following is a basic strategy that would help to break the epidemiological triangle of malaria? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. You observe a high proportion of malarial infections in a small village located in Angola. Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium and is spread through the female Anopheles mosquito, a biological vector for this disease. Which of the following is a basic strategy that would help to break the epidemiological triangle of malaria? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Increasing the availability of anti-bacterial drugs to the community Controlling the biological vector through chemical larvicides Relocation of the entire village to a neighboring village Instructing residents on personal protective measures, such as bed netting and use of DEET repellent
Answer:
To control or break the epidemiological triangle of malaria, 'the biological vector can be controlled through chemical larvicides', Chemical larvicides are chemicals that kill the larva mostly used for killing mosquitoes and here in case of malaria too vector is mosquito so it can be controlled by chemical larvicides.The relocation of village to nearby village is somehow a hectic work, but could be done if no other repellent of malaria is available.'Instructing the residents on personal protective measures, such as bed netting and use of DEET repellent' is also an effective measure to break this epidemiological triangle of malaria. Apply repellents on skin and use of netted beds keep the vectors away for as much time as possible, so it would prove to be effective.A 60-year-old man has scheduled a follow-up appointment with his primary care provider stating that the omeprazole (Prilosec) which he was recently prescribed is ineffective. The patient states, “I take it as soon as I feel heartburn coming on, but it doesn't seem to help at all.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?
Answer:
"Prilosec will help your heartburn but it's not designed to provide immediate relief of specific episodes of heartburn."
Explanation:
Omeprazole is indicated for treating reflux esophagitis, gastritis, gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer. It also works as a gastric protector for those who will use medicines that "hurt" the stomach.
This medicine has been shown to be effective in relieving the sensation of heartburn, however this relief is not immediate and the patient must wait for the medicine to act. It is correct to take Omeprazole 15 minutes before a meal because it will serve as a stomach protector throughout the day, preventing excessive release of hydrochloric acid as soon as the food reaches the stomach.
Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract. True or False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
What are the four processes of pharmacokinetics?
A. Absorption, distribution, hydration, and synthesis
B. Metabolism, excretion, synthesis, and absorption
C. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
D. Distribution, metabolism, excretion, and hydration
The answer is c. absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
The four processes of pharmacokinetics are Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion shortly called as ADME.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics are two major processes involved in the action of the drug.
The former describes the effect of the drug on the body whereas the latter describes the effect of the body on the drug.
The pharmacokinetics occurs in 4 steps namely:
1. Absorption: It is the process through which the drug enters the blood stream from the site of administration.
2. Distribution: As soon as the drug enters the blood stream it gets distributed throughout the body by process called distribution.
3. Metabolism: The process through which the drug shapes itself for easy excretion through the kidney it is called as metabolism.
4. Excretion: Being the last phase of the process through which unused drugs is sent outside the body.
Which statement is true of body mass index? (a) It correlates with disease risks. (b) It decreases by 1 unit for every 10 years of life. (c) It provides an estimate of the fat level of the body. (d) It is defined as the person's height divided by the square of the weight. (e) Its absolute value is less important than the rate at which it changes.
Hi !
a. It correlates with disease risks
The statement that is true of body mass index is A) It correlates with disease risks.
What are the symptoms of an gastroesophageal reflux disease with esophagus?
Answer:
GERD
a burning sensation in the chest after you eat (heartburn)
chest pain
difficulty in swallowing
regurgitation of food or sour liquid
sensation of a lump in your throat
More server symptoms includes:
chronic cough
laryngitis
new or worsening asthma
disrupted sleep
Explanation:
GERD with the esophagus is characterized by heartburn, acid reflux, and discomfort due to the failure of the gastro-esophageal sphincter to close properly, allowing stomach acids to escape into the esophagus. Other symptoms might include nausea, bloating, and weight loss. If untreated, it can lead to ulcers and bleeding.
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with the esophagus is a medical condition caused when the gastro-esophageal sphincter, a ring-like muscle located at the stomach end of the esophagus, doesn't fully close, allowing stomach acids to escape into the esophagus. This leads to symptoms such as heartburn (a burning sensation in the chest), acid reflux, and discomfort. Additionally, other symptoms may include nausea, lack of appetite, bloating, burping, and weight loss. In severe cases, if left untreated, ulcers can develop, possibly leading to bleeding and dark stools.
It is important to remember that this sphincter's normal function is to open in response to swallowing, allowing the bolus of food to enter the stomach, and close when there is no swallowing action to prevent the stomach's content from rising back up the esophagus. However, for individuals suffering from GERD, this mechanism is compromised.
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Petechiae and purpura are common signs of
Answer:
Petechiae are tiny, circular, non-raised patches that appear on the skin or in a mucous or serous membrane. They occur as the result of bleeding under the skin.
...
These include:
loss of consciousness.
confusion.
a high fever.
extreme bleeding.
a severe headache.
Explanation:
John has sudden attacks of intense fear in which his heart races, he feels faint, and he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to die. From this description, it sounds like John suffers from _____.
Answer: panic attacks or anxiety
Explanation:
Cpr stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. true or false
CPR stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, which is a lifesaving procedure used in emergencies when a person's heartbeat or breathing has stopped.
Explanation:The statement is True. CPR indeed stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation. This is a lifesaving technique that is used in emergencies when a person's heartbeat or breathing has stopped. This might happen during instances of drowning, smoke inhalation, or heart attacks. The procedure involves chest compressions and rescue breaths that help to keep blood and oxygen circulating to the brain and other vital organs until further treatments can restore regular heart and breathing actions. CPR stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation.
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Diuretics are given regularly in the acute care setting. Which of the following clients is not a good candidate for diuretics? Client with pulmonary edemaClient with hypercalcemiaClient with hypokalemiaClient with kidney stone formation
Hi !
Answer:
Client with hypokalemia (diuretics = loss in potassium.)
(dangerous for the heart/heart rhythm disorder)
Normal sinus rhythm is a regular rhythm found in healthy people. What is sinus arrhythmia?
Answer: Normal increase in heart rate that takes place during a person breathes in.
Explanation:
Sinus arrhythmia can be defined as medical condition in which the hear rate of a normal human being increases during inspiration.
This is a normal response of body which is usually seen in children. This is a response that is generated either during the exercise conditions or during the time of hypoxia.
Thus, the abnormal heart beat in an human being is known as sinus arrhythmia.
A 22-year-old female who adheres to a vegan diet has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following components of her diagnostic blood work would be most likely to necessitate further investigation?
Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant
Answer:
Place 2 fingers on the middle of the breastbone just below the nipples. Give up to 5 quick thrusts down, compressing the chest one third to one half the depth of the chest. Continue 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts until the object is dislodged or the infant loses alertness (becomes unconscious)
Explanation:
If the choking child is not responding, it is best to position the child on a rigid surface with the belly up. Open your mouth: If you are seeing the choking object, try pulling it out with your fingers. If you do not see it, do not blindfold your fingers as this may push the object. In the two situations described, if the child is not breathing, tilt the child's head back slightly and position his or her mouth so that it forms a seal around the child's mouth. Pinch the child's nose with the fingers of the hand closest to the head and perform 2 rescue breaths (enough to raise the child's chest). If you are unable to breathe, begin chest compressions.
Stand next to the child lying down; place one hand over the chest bone where it intersects with the imaginary line between the nipples (another hand is allowed over the first). Start 30 rhythmic compressions without allowing your hand to come off the child's chest. Open its mouth and see if the object has become visible. If so, remove it with your fingers. If you do not see the object, or if the child is not breathing, take 2 more breaths and continue the cycles for 2 minutes. Then, if no one has done it yet, call 191 and ask for help. Return and continue the cycles until the rescue team arrives.
The fatty acids now considered most hazardous to health are theA.polyunsaturated fatty acids.B.trans-fatty acids.C.high density lipoprotein acids.D.monounsaturated fatty acids
Answer: B. trans-fatty acids.
Explanation:
The trans fatty acids are the unsaturated fatty acids. These are obtain from the milk and meat fat. They are also present in the vegetable and fish oils. The trans fatty acids causes an elevation of bad cholestrol (LDL) and it lower the levels of the good cholestrol (HDL). The deposition of cholestrol in the arteries or other blood vessels may cause blockage of blood vessels. This can disturb the blood circulation. It may cause a disease called as coronary artery disease, strokes and diabetes.
It is the reduced ability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissues.
Hi !
It is the reduced ability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissues.
- anemia (it is a decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.)
Describe the impact of Cystic fibrosis during childhood.
Answer: Repeated lung infection.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system of child. Kids that suffer from this disease are susceptible to repeated lung infections.
Recent high tech technology and medicines have improved the life of children suffering from this order.
in this disorder the ability of the epithelial cells to produce defective form of protein known as CFTR which is found in the lungs, sweat glands and digestive tract of body. This disrupts the normal electrolyte balance of the body and makes the mucus thick and hard to move.
This makes the child more susceptible and repeated to respiratory disorders.
Final answer:
Cystic fibrosis dramatically affects childhood with recurrent lung infections and malabsorption due to thick mucus caused by a faulty CFTR gene. Treatments have improved, enabling longer lifespans, but the disease still requires ongoing management and can progress to the point of needing a lung transplant.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a serious genetic disease that impacts children in several ways, primarily affecting the lungs and digestive system. The thick, sticky mucus associated with CF clogs respiratory and digestive organs, leading to frequent lung infections and difficulties in digesting food properly. The disease is caused by a mutation in the CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene, which results in faulty membrane ion channels and thereby impaired transport of Cl- ions and other electrolytes. This malfunctioning of the ion channels is responsible for the production of the abnormal mucus.
Children with CF may have a compromised quality of life due to chronic respiratory infections and malabsorption of nutrients. Although there is no cure, treatments have significantly improved, which include the use of antibiotics to prevent lung infections and other medications to help digest food, as well as pulmonary rehabilitation. Despite the progression of the disease that may lead to a lung transplant, medical interventions allow individuals with CF to live into middle adulthood, which is a significant improvement from the previous life expectancy of less than 10 years.
Mr. Smith loves ice cream but he stopped eating it years ago due to lactose intolerance. When his friend Bob told him about lactaid he was so excited to try it that he went out right away and purchased a box of lactaid and a gallon of ice cream. The next day Mr. Smith called Bob and told him that lactaid doesn’t work because he took one pill before he ate the gallon of ice cream and he still ended up with all the symptoms of lactose intolerance. Considering what you’ve learned about enzyme function in this lab, what should Mr. Smith have done to prevent the symptoms of lactose intolerance? Include in your explanation relevant data from the lab.
How to tell if you have a stress fracture
Hi !
This is a fracture that does not appear as a result of an accident, shock or trauma.
A scanner or an MRI to see the problem faster.
A prism who’s sides and faces are all congruent squares is a
A prism whose edges are congruent squares is called a cube.
Explanation:
Cube is a three dimensional shape which has six faces. All the six faces of the cube are squares. Thus all the edges of a cube will have the same length which will be equal to the side of the square faces.
If we have to calculate the surface area of the cube we have to add up the areas of all the six square faces. Let the side of the square faces be a.
Then the area of a face=[tex]a^2[/tex]
Area of six faces=[tex]6a^2[/tex]
Thus the total surface area of a cube=[tex]6a^2[/tex]
44 year-old male with biplanar deformity, acquired limb length discrepancies and tibial nonunion has undergone deformity correction. He now requires exchange of an external fixation strut 45 days postoperatively. One of the struts for his multiplane external fixation device is removed and then replaced with an adjustable strut. The intraoperative mounting parameters, deformity parameters and initial strut settings are entered into the computer prior to Jim’s discharge and a daily schedule is generated for him to perform the gradual deformity correction necessary. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Answer:
the CPT code is 20697
Explanation:
General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System
Answer:
20697
Explanation:
CTP is a coding system, widely used in the medical environment. Developed by the World Health Organization (WHO), its main function is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases through universal standardization of diseases, public health problems, signs and symptoms, complaints, external causes for injuries and social circumstances, presenting a broad overview of the health situation of countries and their populations. CTP is used by physicians, other health professionals, health researchers and managers, companies, health insurance, and patient organizations to classify diseases and health problems in health records worldwide. Through this universal standardization, it is possible to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases and have an overview of the global health situation.
In the case shown in the question above, the CTP code that would be used would be: 20697
Child abuse and maltreatment is not limited to a particular age and can occur in the infant, toddler, preschool, and school-age years. Choose one of the four age groups (infant, toddler, preschool, or school age) and discuss the types of abuse that are most often seen in this age.
Answer:
Explanation: Neglection and refusal to take care of your child because you're busy partying. Not providing for your kid and even emotionally abuse. However, neglect may be the top choice.
Atresia, the degeneration of follicles that do not make it to the mature stage, otherwise known as the _______________________ stage.
Answer:
Graafian stage
Explanation:
Atresia, the degeneration of follicles that do not make it to the mature stage, otherwise known as the graafian stage.
Difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
Hi !
Osteoarthritis occurs when the smooth cartilage joint surface wears out. ( in an isolated joint.)
Rheumatoid arthritis ( autoimmune disease), the immune system malfunctions and attacks the body instead of intruders.
Osteoarthritis is caused by 'wear and tear' of cartilage, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that attacks joints. Treatments for both conditions focus on alleviating symptoms.
Explanation:Osteoarthritis is the most common type of arthritis and is associated with aging and 'wear and tear' of the articular cartilage. It occurs when the cartilage that covers the surfaces of bones at synovial joints gradually becomes thinner, leading to pain, joint stiffness, and inflammation. Treatments for osteoarthritis focus on alleviating pain and may include lifestyle changes, medications, or joint replacement surgery if necessary.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the synovial joints, causing inflammation, cartilage breakdown, and joint deformation. It primarily affects the hands, feet, and cervical spine, and is characterized by swollen, stiff, and painful joints. Diagnosis is based on symptoms, imaging tests, and blood tests. There is no cure for rheumatoid arthritis, but treatments aim to alleviate symptoms and may include exercise, medications, or surgery.
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Rheumatoid arthritis symptoms and treatment
Hi !
Answer:
The main symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis are:
- joint swelling, warmth and redness
- stiffness, especially first thing in the morning or after sitting still for a long time.
- tiredness and lack of energy
- a poor appetite
- weight loss
- a high temperature, or a fever
- sweating
treatment :
- drugs
- physical therapies
- surgery
When are paralytics most likely to be used as an adjunct to general anesthesia?
A) to ease a patient's disconfort during the recovery period
B) To achieve longer skeletal muscle relaxation with minimal CNS depression
C) To alleviate a patient's anxiety during induction
D) To help with the maintenance of general of anesthesia
E) To prevent increased salivary and brochial secreations
Hi !
When are paralytics most likely to be used as an adjunct to general anesthesia?
B) To achieve longer skeletal muscle relaxation with minimal CNS depression