Answer:
1.Poor coordination.
2.Unsteady walk
3.Difficulty with fine motor tasks,
4.back-and-forth eye movements
5.Difficulty swallowing.
Explanation:
Ataxia or lesion of the cerebellum shows a lack of muscle control, such as walking or picking up objects, coordination of voluntary movement. It can affect movements, eye movement, creating difficulties with speech, and swallowing.
persistent lesion of the cerebellum usually causes damage to the part of your brain cerebellum that controls movement and coordination.
Thus, the mentioned symptoms are given above.
Lesions of the cerebellum can cause symptoms such as ataxia, sensory deficits, gait and station problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty maintaining balance.
Explanation:The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, so lesions in this area can cause various symptoms. Some common symptoms caused by lesions of the cerebellum include:
Ataxia: Loss of coordination in voluntary movementsSensory deficits: Problems with balance and proprioceptionGait and station problems: Difficulty with walking and maintaining a stable postureMuscle weakness: Difficulty moving and performing tasks that require muscle strengthDifficulty maintaining balance: Trouble staying upright and steadyLearn more about Symptoms of lesions in the cerebellum here:https://brainly.com/question/12993500
#SPJ12
It is believed that at least 1/5 of all pregnancies ends in spontaneous abortion before the end of the second month.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
The claim that at least 1/5 of all pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion before the two-month mark is generally accepted as true. This is due to numerous studies suggesting a similar miscarriage rate.
Explanation:The statement 'At least 1/5 of all pregnancies ends in spontaneous abortion before the end of the second month.' is generally considered to be true. A spontaneous abortion, also known as a miscarriage, is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. Most miscarriages occur before the 12th week of pregnancy. The rates of miscarriage can vary, but many studies suggest that approximately 20% (1 in 5) of recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage.
Learn more about Spontaneous Abortion here:https://brainly.com/question/35900160
#SPJ2
How would you explain the application of social network theory to a group of teenagers who smoke cigarettes.
Answer:
Social Network Theory, is a theory that arose in the 1960´s and which began to explain an alternative viewpoint to how people related to each other, not on the basis of their individual characteristics, but rather, on the relationships they formed, and what was brought into that relationship. It has been characterized because it is always diagramed as a series of points (individuals), and connecting lines between them (relationships).
Social Network Theory is used to explain the appearance of certain mass behaviors in people, and trends, even if individually, the person does not display a specific characteristic that would explain the behavior.
In the case of smoking, especially in teenagers, this theory applies perfectly, as it is known that teenagers, as they are still in the process of forming their own identity, tend to depend on social networking, and especially, the acceptance by peers. This means, usually, that they will adapt to whatever the social group where they are is doing, in order to form a positive relationship with the others, and feel a part of it. This means, that even if personally the teenagers in the group did not have specific characteristics that would explain why they took smoking as an activity, they still did it because it was the social behavior of the group, and this activity strengthened the relationship among the members of the group.
Final answer:
Social network theory explains how social connections and interactions can influence the smoking behavior of teenagers.
Explanation:
Social network theory can be applied to a group of teenagers who smoke cigarettes to understand how their social connections and interactions influence their smoking behavior. According to social network theory, individuals are influenced by the people they are connected to in their social network. In the case of teenage smokers, their peers who also smoke can play a significant role in shaping their smoking habits. Teenagers may experience social pressure to smoke in order to fit in with their smoking friends or to be part of a specific social group.
For example, if a group of teenagers forms a close-knit peer group where most members smoke, there is a higher chance that non-smokers within the group may start smoking in order to conform to the group norm. This can be explained by the concept of social contagion, which suggests that behaviors, attitudes, and beliefs can spread through a social network.
Furthermore, the reach and influence of social media platforms among teenagers can amplify these social connections and social pressure. Teenagers who follow influencers or celebrities on social media who promote smoking may be more likely to perceive smoking as socially desirable. This perception can reinforce their own smoking behavior or motivate them to start smoking.
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the ___________.
Answer:
Hepatic portal vein , is responsible for the transport of blood from the intestine to the liver.
Explanation:
The Hepatic portal vein also called the portal vein ,
The blood vessel carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract , pancreas , gallbladder and spleen to the liver .
The blood in the blood vessel contains toxins and nutrients absorbed from the digested contents.
Around one third of the total blood of liver flows via Hepatic Portal Vein.
Hence,
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the Hepatic Portal Vein.
which of the following x-ray procedures involves Injecting contrast media into the ureters to visualize the renal pelvis?
A. intravenous pyelogram
B. cystourethrogram
C. retrograde pyelogram
D. renal arteriogram
Answer:
The correct option is A. Intravenous pyelogram
Explanation:
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is a radiology technique and a type of X-ray which is used to visualize any abnormality present in the urinary system. The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters and the bladder.
This method involves intravenously injecting a contrast media to highlight the urinary tract. After the contrast media is injected, it travels to the ureters, renal pelvis and then into the bladder.
Therefore, making the urinary system and thus the renal pelvis visible on the X-ray by injecting contrast media in the ureters.
Sometimes the spinal cord can be damaged in an accident. Depending on the location and severity of the injury paralysis may occur. Define the following:
a. Monoplegia:
b. Paraplegia:
c. Hemiplegia:
d. Quadriplegia
Answer:
see below
Explanation:
Monoplegia
Monoplegia is the paralysis of one part of the body, generally one limb. People suffering monoplegia generally preserve control of the rest of the body, but are unable to move or feel sensations in the damaged limb.
The main cause for this is a cerebral palsy, and other common causes are: nerve damages either from injurie or diseases,
Hemiplegia
Hemiplegia affecting an arm and a leg on the same side of the body, and similarly with monoplegia, a common cause is cerebral palsy. With hemiplegia, the degree of paralysis varies from person to person, and may change over time. Hemiplegia often begins with a sensation of pins and needles, progresses to muscle weakness, and escalates to complete paralysis. However, many people with hemiplegia find that their degree of functioning varies from day to day, and depending on their overall health, activity level, and other factors.
Paraplegia
Paraplegia refers to paralysis below the waist, and usually affects both legs, the hips, and other functions, such as sexuality and elimination. Though stereotypes of paraplegia hold that people with this condition cannot walk, move their legs, or feel anything below the waist, the reality of paraplegia varies from person to person—and sometimes, from day to day.
Thus paraplegia refers to substantial impairment in functioning and movement, not necessarily a permanent and total paralysis. Rarely, people with paraplegia spontaneously recover. This may be due to brain or spinal cord functions that are not yet understood, such as regeneration of neurons. More typically, paraplegics are able to regain some functioning with physical therapy, which works to retrain the brain and spinal cord to work around limitations while strengthening muscles and nerve connections.
Quadriplegia
Quadriplegia, which is often referred to as tetraplegia, is paralysis below the neck. All four limbs, as well as the torso, are typically affected. As with paraplegia, though, the degree of disability and loss of function may vary from person to person, and even from moment to moment. Likewise, some quadriplegics spontaneously regain some or all functioning, while others slowly retrain their brains and bodies through dedicated physical therapy and exercise.
The hormone released from the hypothalamaus in response to low blood pressure or loow blood volume is:
a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin II
c. renin
d. ADH
e. ACTH
Answer:
D. ADH
Explanation:
ADH also known as the antidiureitc hormone is secretated in response to low production. The angiotensin II (produced in the lungs) increase the volumen os ADH. As its name says this hormone avoids the water losses in the kidneys in order to do that ADH associates with the AVPR1A recpetors, those receptors open calcium compartiments inside the cells, once opened the vessel constrictions starts avoiding the water losses. Those receptos also stimulates platelet aggregation and coagulation factor VIII, by this way the ADH also avoid hemorrhages.
What are the different types of vegetarianism? Veganism?
a. Recommendations for nutrients vegans to potentially supplement?
Answer:
Vegetarianism, as well as veganism, are defined as diets in which in one way or another, there is either a restriction in the type of animal products that are consumed, or no consumption of these products. However, in veganism, there is even more restriction, as essentially, vegans of different types will eat some types of plant foods, while not others. In vegetarianism, there is absolutely no consumption of animals flesh, but there can be consumption of dairy products and eggs. In veganism, depending on the type, there may be restrictions to some types of meat, or all types, consumption of dairy and eggs, or limitations in these consumptions as well.
As such, the vegetarians are just that, people who do not consume animal flesh of any kind, but can eat dairy and eggs. There are no further groups here
But in Vegans, there are several groups, and their name depends on what they eat, and do not eat. As such we have: Strict Vegan, Lacto-Ovo-Vegan (will eat eggs and dairy), Lacto-Vegan (Only dairy), Fruitarian (only fruits, nuts and certain plants), Flexitarians (sometimes eat meat), Pescatarians (will eat fish), and Raw Foodists (Only fruits, nuts and plants on their raw state)
The types of nutrients that will be lacking, especially for strict vegans and strict vegetarians are: Vitamin B-12, Folic Acid, Calcium, Iron and Zinc. These are all nutrients that must be supplied through supplements on these diets.
Vegetarianism has various forms including veganism which excludes all animal products. Vegans should ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients and may benefit from supplements like vitamin B12. Plant-based diets can offer health benefits and environmental advantages, but cost savings vary.
Explanation:There are various types of vegetarianism, including lacto-vegetarianism (includes dairy), ovo-vegetarianism (includes eggs), lacto-ovo vegetarianism (includes both dairy and eggs), pescatarianism (includes fish), and veganism, where no animal products are consumed at all. Vegans need to pay special attention to their diet to ensure they receive all essential nutrients, particularly protein, iron, zinc, omega-3, and vitamin B12. To get all essential amino acids, vegans can combine different plant sources of protein, as no single plant food contains all essential amino acids.
A plant-based diet has numerous health benefits, including the potential for reducing the risk of chronic diseases like cancer, heart disease, and Type 2 diabetes. It can also assist with weight maintenance and may reduce the environmental impact compared to omnivorous diets. However, financial savings are variable and depend on food choices and local prices. Vegans may need to supplement their diet with specific nutrients such as vitamin B12, which is predominantly found in animal products.
A polarized cell:
a. has a charge imbalance across its membrane
b. includes most cells of the body
c. exhibits a membrane potential
d. includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential
e. all of these choices are correct
Answer:
e. all of these choices are correct
Explanation:
A cell in human body becomes polarized by storing and moving different types of the electrically-charged molecules on the different sides of cell membrane.
Cell polarity corresponds to the spacial differences in structure, shape, and the function within the cell. All types of the cell almost exhibit some polarity, that enables the cells to accomplish specified and specialized functions. Some examples of the polarized cells are epithelial cell with the apical-basal polarity, neurons in which the signals propagate, etc.
Polarization is existence of the opposite electrical charges on the either side of a cell membrane. Hence, a polarized cell has a charge imbalance across its membrane which is also responsible for some membrane potential which is the difference in electric potential between interior and exterior of a cell.
Hence, option e is correct which states that all the options are correct.
Final answer:
the correct answer to the student's question would be e. A polarized cell has a charge imbalance that creates a membrane potential, which is a feature of most cells in the body, particularly nerve and muscle cells. All the choices stated in the question are correct regarding a polarized cell.
Explanation:
A polarized cell has some key characteristics:
It has a charge imbalance across its membrane, which results in a membrane potential.This membrane potential is due to the separation of charges across the cell membrane, with negatively charged ions inside the cell and positively charged ions outside, typically resulting in a resting potential of about -70mV to -90mV.The majority of cells in the body are polarized and exhibit a membrane potential, including nerve and muscle cells which have larger membrane potentials.Active transport mechanisms, like the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump, contribute significantly to the maintenance of the membrane potential.Therefore, the correct answer to the student's question would be e. all of these choices are correct because a polarized cell exhibits all the stated features.
An 82-year-old preoperative patient expresses anxiety and a premonition of possible death in the surgical suite. The surgical technologist should:
A. ask the supervisor to cancel the case immediately
B. request more sedation for the patient
C. communicate this to the physician.
D. disregard the information if the patient's condition is stable.
Explanation:
disregard the information if the patient's condition is stable.
What is the neurotransmitter used by the SNS
a)Ach
b)NE
c)E
d)Serotonin
e)GABBA
Answer:
B) Norepinephrine
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system uses norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. The neurons originate in the locus ceruleus in the pons of the medulla oblongata. Norepinephrine modulates attention, sleep-wake cycle, learning, anxiety, and pain.
Which of the following does NOT apply to an enzyme:
a. Catalyst
b. Inorganic
c. Protein
d. All of the above apply to an enzyme
Answer:
Inorganic
Explanation:
Enzymes are bio catalyst that increase the rate of a biochemical reaction occurring in living organisms. Enzymes lowers the activation energy of the reaction and increases the rate of formation of product
Enzymes are organic molecules and works at optimum temperature and pH. Inorganic cannot apply to the enzymes because they are made upof protein.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Enzymes are organic molecules and do not contain inorganic elements. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
Explanation:A. Catalyst: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in cells by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.
B. Inorganic: Enzymes are organic molecules, composed mainly of proteins, and do not contain inorganic elements.
C. Protein: Enzymes are proteins, which are long chains of amino acids that fold into complex three-dimensional shapes.
D. All of the above apply to an enzyme: This statement is incorrect as enzymes are not inorganic, but rather organic molecules.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
Learn more about Enzymes here:https://brainly.com/question/31561117
#SPJ6
Which of the following structures are gonads?
A) seminal vesicles.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate gland .
D) testes.
E) A, B and C are correct
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
Gonad is also known as a sex gland or a reproductive gland. It is a gland that primarily produces both sex cells and sex hormones.
In females,
The reproductive cells are egg cells that are produced by the ovary.
In males,
The reproductive/sex cells are the sperms that are produced by the testes in the form of spermatozoa.
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate gland are parts of male reproductive system and are not gonads. They do not produce sperms.
Option D is correct.
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is the:
a. bundle of HIS
b. AV bundle
c. SA node
d. AV node
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is:____, would be, C: The SA node.
Explanation:
The heart has an autonomic, and automatic, electrical system that is responsible for the heart being able to perform its functions. This structure, known as the conducting system of the heart, is formed by a series of specialized neural cells capable of generating and conducting electrical charges that stimulate the myochardial cells, and activate them, so that they will contract and relax during a heart cycle. The starting point of this conducting system, is the SA node, at the atria of the heart. It will be the neural cells in the SA node which will autonomically, and automatically generate an electrical current that will move downwards in the same way as it happens in the nervous system, towards the AV node at the top of the ventricles, then down towards the bundle of His and finally to the Purkinje fibers. Therefore, the SA node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.
In this type of diabetes, target cells do not respond normally to insulin.
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Both type1 and type 2
Answer:
(b). Type 2
Explanation:
Type 2 diabetes or adult-onset diabetes can be defined as a type of diabetes, characterized by increased level of blood glucose. Common symptoms include frequent urination, increased thirst, sudden weight loss, and abnormally increased sugar level.
It is caused by development of insulin resistance, in which cells loss sensitivity to insulin hormone as insulin receptors for become unresponsive to the hormone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Type 2 diabetes is characterized by the target cells not responding normally to insulin.
Explanation:The correct answer is b. Type 2. In Type 2 diabetes, the target cells in the body do not respond normally to the insulin that is produced. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When the target cells are resistant to the effects of insulin, it leads to high blood sugar levels.
Learn more about Type 2 Diabetes here:https://brainly.com/question/32174319
#SPJ11
Type 2 diabetes is associated with target cells not responding normally to insulin, a condition known as insulin resistance. This is different from Type 1 diabetes where the body fails to produce adequate insulin.
Explanation:In the context of diabetes, when target cells do not respond normally to insulin, this condition is typically associated with Type 2 diabetes. Unlike Type 1 diabetes, wherein the body fails to produce adequate insulin, with Type 2 diabetes the body does produce insulin but the cells in the body do not use insulin properly.
This condition of the cells not responding to insulin is referred to as insulin resistance. Over time, the demand for insulin in the body overtakes the amount of insulin that the body can produce leading to the build-up of glucose in the bloodstream.
Learn more about Type 2 diabetes here:https://brainly.com/question/32174319
#SPJ6
There are seven processes that project from the vertebral arch. Which one articulates with the vertebra above it?
a. inferior articular process
b. superior articular process
c. transverse process
d. spinous process
e. lamina
Answer:
The correct option is : a. inferior articular process
Explanation:
One of the seven processes that project out from the vertebral arch is the articular processes. The articular processes serve the purpose of fitting with the adjacent vertebra.
There are two types of articular processes: the inferior and the superior.
The inferior process articulates with the vertebra above it.
Compare and contrast the two thienopyridines: clopidogrel and parasugrel. Why would one drug be better suited for the clinic than another?
Answer:
Clopidogrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{12}[/tex] ADP receptors. Clopidogrel inhibits the platelets aggregation and activation. This drug can reduce the rate of myocardial infarction in the patients. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with serotonin.
Parasugrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{21}[/tex] ADP receptors. Parasugrel inhibits the platelets activation by the irreversible binding with its receptor. This drug can reduce the rate thrombotic cardiovascular events. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with warfarin.
Parasugrel is better suited than clopidegrol in case of stent thrombosis because this drug works faster and can easily be absorbed in the small intestine.
Of the following cell types, which are found patrolling areas exposed to harmful bacteria?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Chrondroblasts
Answer:
C. Macrophages
Explanation:
Macrophages are derived from monocytes of the bone marrow. They migrate to connective tissue and are in charge of phagocytosis of foreign particles. They also participate in the enhancement of inmunological activities of lymphocytes. Macrophages can be found in infection sites, since they detect, phagocytose and destroy bacteria and other harmful organisms.
Macrophages are the immune system cells that patrol areas exposed to harmful bacteria, engulfing pathogens and cellular debris.
Macrophages are the cells found patrolling areas exposed to harmful bacteria. These cells are part of the immune system and play a vital role in engulfing infectious agents and cellular debris. Macrophages release cytokines that recruit other immune cells to infected sites.
A muscle that reduces the angle of a joint is called a:
a. pronator.
b. tensor.
c. flexor.
d. depressor
e. levator
Answer:
The Muscle that reduces the angle of the joint is called Flexor.
Explanation:
Flexion is the joint movement which reduces the angle between the bones that converges at the joint. Flexion is determined by muscle contractions.
A muscle that flexes the joint is known as a flexor.
Several muscles of the hands and feet are named for this function as it reduces the angle of the joint .
Describe the tests you would use to assess a patient's hearing acuity. What results would you expect if the patient's ability to hear and localize sounds was suspected to be below normal?
Answer:
An audiometry that assesses the airway and nerve at the same time.
When a person has hearing impairment, will be seen a fall in the audiometric graph both at the level of the bone or neurological pathway above 30 decibels and 250 hertz.
Audiometry is the key test for assessing hearing acuity. Increased dB measurements on the audiogram indicate below-normal hearing ability.
Audiometry is the primary test used to assess a patient's hearing acuity. This test measures the hearing threshold in decibels (dB) relative to the normal threshold across various frequencies, depicted in an audiogram.
If a patient's ability to hear and localize sounds is suspected to be below normal, the results on the audiogram would show an increase in dB measurements, indicating a loss of hearing acuity, especially at higher frequencies.
Please explain what is a seizure.
Answer: hola i am marissa and im here to help !:)
a seizure happens when a surge of abnormal electrical activity happens in the brain, there are multiple types of seizures, the most common types are
"tonic" ,"clonic" "tonic,clonic"
Explanation:
first-aid for seizures
note:if the siezure lasts longer than for minutes call 911
move all objects out of the victims paths to prevent them form injuring themselves, provide head support(do not try to hold them down it could lead to further injury of the victim or yourself)
once the seizure has ended roll them on to there side and tilt the victims head back to prevent choking in case the victim vomits the vomit r acid that comes up can block the air ways
do not offer food or water until the victim is completely aware of there surroundings.
brainliest?
You have a patient who has a very strange disorder. In this disorder, ADP sticks permanently to the myosin head. From your knowledge of excitation contraction coupling, describe how this patient will present.
Answer:
one thing might be muscle contractions
Explanation:
Why do you have to test reflexes on both sides?
What are the 3 hallmarks of diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
The three hallmarks of diabetes mellitus, are: polyuria, polyphagia and polydipsia. Polyuria, is the excessive production of urine and it is seen when people constantly need to pee. Polyphagia, is excessive hunger, in which, people constantly express their need to eat something. And finally, polydipsia, is excessive thirst, present in diabetics, who constantly feel the sensation of thirst and tend to drink a lot of fluids. When these hallmarks are present, even sometimes without a test, it can be ascertained that a person suffers from diabetes mellitus, or simply, diabetes.
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus was the term used to define diabetes in general. Diabetes is defined as a metabolic disorder in which, usually, sugar levels are very high in the blood, due to a problem either with production of insulin, or the insulin present being incapable of performing its function. There are three types of diabetes mellitus: diabetes type 1, with onset in youth, and also called insulin-dependent diabetes, type 2, with onset in the adult, also known as non-insulin dependent diabetes, and type 3, which is gestational diabetes. In all three cases, the three symptoms mentioned above appear, and they are the clearest signs of a possible diabetes.
What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The main function of the respiratory system is the exchange of oxygen from the atmosphere for carbon dioxide produced by the cells of the body. Other functions of the respiratory system include participation in the acid-base balance of the body, phonation, pulmonary defense, and metabolism.
Explanation:
The exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the lungs is the primary purpose of the respiratory system.
What is the respiratory system?Since other structures such as the nose, trachea, and throat just transfer gases to the alveoli so that they may carry out their role, the alveoli are the sole structure that performs this function.
These are one-celled thick, facilitating simple absorption of carbon dioxide and oxygen from breathed air into the bloodstream (from the bloodstream to exhaled air).
Additionally, they have an abundance of blood capillaries that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide from the cells, respectively.
Therefore, the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the lungs is the primary purpose of the respiratory system.
Learn more about the respiratory system, here:
https://brainly.com/question/1589540
#SPJ12
The coronary circulation receives its blood supply from vessels that arise from the:
a. right ventricle
b. left atrium
c. left ventricle
d. pulmonary trunk
e. base of the aorta
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B-left atrium.
Explanation:
The coronary circulation is the circulation of blood and nutrients to the myocardium of the heart on both sides.
The coronary system consists of coronary arteries and coronary sinus(vein) in which coronary arteries arise from the main artery of the circulatory system called aorta. This aorta arises from the left atrium of the heart which supplies oxygenated blood. These coronary arteries divide into left and right arteries which supply oxygenated blood to the heart.
Thus, option B-left atrium is the correct answer.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL, and PCL:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
Knee.
Explanation:
Knee joins the legs with the thighs. Knee consists of patellofemoral joint and tibiofemoral joint. Knee helps in the process of extension and flexion.
Cruciate ligamnets stabilize the knee structure. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are the intracapsular ligaments of knee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The ACL and PCL are intracapsular ligaments found in the knee joint, providing necessary stability by limiting certain movements.
Explanation:The intracapsular ligaments mentioned, the Anterior Cruciate Ligament ( ACL ) and the Posterior Cruciate Ligament ( PCL ), are found within the knee joint. So the answer to the question is: 'b. Knee'. These two ligaments are key structures contributing to stability in the knee joint. They prevent unwanted forward and backward movement as well as rotation within the knee.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament).
These ligaments are found in the knee joint, which is responsible for stabilizing the knee and preventing excessive movement.
They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the knee joint and are often injured during activities involving sudden changes in direction or impact.
Learn more about Intracapsular Ligaments here:https://brainly.com/question/32117319
#SPJ6
Inherited disease of the respiratory system include:
a. coryza
b. cystic fibrosis
c. pneumonia
d. SARS
e. tuberculosis
Answer:
The answer is B: Cystic fibrosis.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a SERIOUS hereditary disease, which not only damages the lungs but also the digestive system and is characterized by affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat and gastric juices. These fluids are altered in their composition, becoming thick and sticky which lead to an obstruction of the ducts.
Adhering junctions are based on two different types of cytoskeleton filament systems. Name those systems.
Answer:
Actin filament and intermediate filament.
Explanation:
Adhering junction is a type of cell-cell junction that is present in endothelial and epithelial cells. Cadherin, catenin and plakoglobin are the different proteins present in the adhering junction.
Adhering junction cytoplasmic face is attached with the actin filament of the cell. This junction also show attachment with the intermediate filament of the cell. Desmosomes joins the intermediate filament of adheren junction.
Thus, the answer is Intermediate filament and actin filament.
What are three major regions of the large intestine?
Answer:
The three major regions of the large intestine are the cecum, the colon and the rectum.
Explanation:
Large intestine, the last organ of the gastrointestinal tract and digestive system.
The main function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and storing the remaining waste material as feces, before removed it by defecation.
The three major regions of the large intestine are-
1. cecum
2. colon
3. rectum
Intrapulmonary pressure in the ________.
a. pressure within the pleural cavity.
b. pressure within the alveoli
c. negative pressure in the intrapleural space
d. difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
Answer:
The correct answer is option B- pressure within the alveoli.
Explanation:
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the lungs especially in the alveoli of the lungs so is also known as "intra-alveolar pressure".
This pressure helps in the breathing process as :
1. During inspiration - The thoracic cavity volume increases due to which the intra-pulmonary pressure becomes less than the atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to inhale about 500 ml of air.
2. During expiration- the thoracic volume decreases which cause the intra-pulmonary pressure larger than atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to exhale the air.
Thus, option B- pressure within the alveoli is the correct answer.
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli and fluctuates with breathing cycles, balancing against atmospheric pressure to enable gas exchange. It is subject to Boyle's law and influenced by transpulmonary pressure.
Explanation:The intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. It fluctuates during the phases of the breathing process, increasing as the alveoli fill with air during inspiration and decreasing during expiration. Intrapulmonary pressure is essential for gas exchange and is precisely regulated to ensure efficient ventilation in response to the body's oxygen demands. It is influenced by the volume of the gas in the lungs, as per Boyle's law, and the transpulmonary pressure, which is the pressure difference between the intrapulmonary pressure and the pressure within the pleural cavity, known as intrapleural pressure.
Atmospheric pressure is another crucial factor in breathing, as the intrapulmonary pressure tends to equalize with atmospheric pressure. Negative pressure, as described in pulmonary physiology, is pressure lower than atmospheric pressure, and it occurs within the pleural cavity, contributing to the lungs remaining inflated under normal conditions.
During pulmonary ventilation, air moves from areas of higher to lower pressure, moving through the airways until intrapulmonary pressure equilibrates with atmospheric pressure. This dynamic process is vital for the inhalation and exhalation of air, which allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide necessary for the function of the body's cells.