What are some consequences of not having emotional support? (Select all that apply.) Isolation Hearing loss Depression Loss of skin integrity Fear Dementia Decreased mobility Hopelessness

Answers

Answer 1

Final answer:

Lack of emotional support can result in isolation, depression, and hopelessness, leading to significant mental and physical health consequences. These can impact educational experiences through cognitive impairments, highlighting the importance of support systems. Option A, Option C.

Explanation:

The consequences of not having emotional support can lead to various significant issues that affect a person's mental and physical health. Some of these include isolation, which can lead to feelings of loneliness and detachment from others; depression, characterized by sadness, loss of interest, hopelessness, and changes in sleep and appetite; and hopelessness, which is a sense of despair that can affect a person's decision-making and motivation. Moreover, a lack of emotional support may contribute to increased stress, which can interfere with healthy neuron development, leading to potential cognitive impairments such as memory and focusing issues, thereby diminishing the quality of one's education or learning experience. Psychological harm can therefore have lasting effects on an individual's overall well-being, highlighting the importance of nurturing support systems within communities and educational environments.


Related Questions

A client with depression who is undergoing a colonoscopy tomorrow is receiving preoperative education regarding the procedure. Which nursing task best describes the explanation of the procedure and the associated risks and benefits?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - acquiring informed consent.

Explanation:

Nurses normally are assigned the task to explain the procedure of the treatment of the healthcare, This task is called as the acquiring informed consent. The purpose of this task is to be confirmed about patient autonomy.

Acquiring informed consent is a process that needs a detailed explanation regarding the risk and benefits of the particular treatment so that the patient can choose what is better for him.

Thus, the correct answer is - acquiring informed consent.

Imagine that you are part of a study that measures your heart rate and breathing throughout the day. For the most part, your heart rate and breathing only changes when you exercise or are very excited. However, it seems like every time you visit the researcher to get your equipment updated, your heart rate and breathing spike for seemingly no reason. This phenomenon is referred to as:

Answers

Answer:

White coat hypertension

Explanation:

This phenomenon is pretty curious and it happens when the patients experience an increment  in their tension level just because they are going through an anxiety situation probably due to the clinical setting or just because they are seeing the doctor and his white coat .

During orientation, an RN learns that LPN/LVNs in the facility receive additional training to perform some tasks such as hanging continuously infusing intravenous fluids that have no additives. It is important for the RN to understand that:

Answers

Answer:see explanation

Explanation:

LPN/LVNs in the facility receive additional training to perform some tasks such as hanging continuously infusing intravenous fluids that have no additives. It is important for the RN to understand the following;

(1). The scope of work of the LPN/LVN varies from one state to the other. The RN should know the LPN/LVN nurse practice act in the state in which they practice and should understand the legal scope of practice of the LPN/LVN.

(2). The RN should also know that the nurse practice act and state regulations related to delegation override the organization's policies.

A 49-year-old male was climbing on a truck at a construction site when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound to the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled and the skull can be seen through the wound. How should you document this injury on the prehospital care report?

Answers

Answer:

Laceration.

Explanation:

The wound may occur due to damage in the body tissue part.The climbing on the construction site might cause damage or accident that might be harmful for the individual. The wounds or bleeding is common during such accident. Platelets plays an important role in the blood coagulation.

The individual gets affected and has wound on his top head. The pre hospital care report can be made on the basis of laceration. Laceration is the open wound that might occur due to the damage in the soft tissue and deep tissues are injured.

Thus, the answer is laceration.

Years after he barely survived an attack that killed his wife and two children, Mr. Yousafzai suffers recurring flashbacks and frequent nightmares of the event. They render him incapable of holding a steady job. Mr. Yousafzai is most clearly showing signs of _____.

Answers

Answer:

PTSD

Explanation:

This are normal signs of ptsd.

Answer:

PTSD

Explanation:

America’s drug problem is expensive and ill-advised. In an effort to address the increasing number of drug-using offenders clogging the criminal justice system, ______ were established, especially in urban areas of the United States.

Answers

Drug treatment courts (DTC) were established to reduce the increasing number of drug using offenders clogging the criminal justice system.

Explanation:

Courts formed to stop drug abuse and related criminal activity of offenders through treatment and rehabilitation directed by the court. Eligible participants undergo treatment instead of punishment/imprisonment. The Court’s multi-disciplinary justice and healthcare systems team monitor their progress.

Compliance to rules is monitored by frequent substance-abuse testing. Successful completion may lead to, dismissal of the criminal case. Recidivism/ non-compliance leads to expulsion.  

Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by which cell-mediated immune response?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is cytotoxic T cells

Explanation:

Cytoxic T cells are cell-mediated immune response which are able to induce apoptosis in body cells in order to display epitopes or foreign antigen on their surface such as  cells with intracellular bacteria, virus infected cells and cancer cells displaying tumor antigens.

Final answer:

Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). They recognize viral proteins on the cell surface and subsequently kill these infected cells to prevent further viral multiplication.

Explanation:

Virus-infected cells are primarily detected and destroyed by the Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). These are a type of T cell which play an important role in the cell-mediated immune response. Cytotoxic T cells are especially effective against virus-infected or cancer cells. They are trained to recognize viral proteins on the surface of infected cells. Once identified, they kill the infected cells to prevent the virus from proliferating.

Learn more about Cytotoxic T cells here:

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A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?a. Related to visual field deficitsb. Related to difficulty swallowingc. Related to impaired balanced. Related to psychomotor seizures

Answers

Answer:c

Explanation:

It affects balance

The appropriate "related-to" phrase to complete the nursing diagnosis statement is  Related to visual field deficits. The correct option is a. The nursing diagnosis would be  Risk for injury related to visual field deficits.

Visual field deficits can occur with a cerebellar brain tumor and can lead to an increased risk of injury due to difficulties with spatial awareness .by identifying the risk for injury related to visual field deficits, the nurse can implement appropriate interventions to promote safety and prevent accidents during the client's hospitalization.

The nursing diagnosis "Risk for injury related to visual field deficits" means that the client's condition, characterized by impaired visual fields due to the cerebellar brain tumor, poses a risk for accidents or injuries. The nurse's role is to closely monitor the client, implement safety measures, and provide appropriate interventions to minimize the risk and ensure the client's safety during their stay in the acute care facility. These interventions might include using assistive devices, providing adequate lighting, ensuring clear pathways, and educating the client and their caregivers about safety precautions to prevent falls or other injuries.

To know more about visual field deficits:

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Natalie Burns has just arrived for her 1:00 p.m. appointment with Dr. Earl. She informs the healthcare professional that she is there for a follow-up of her hypertension. This is known as Natalie's____________.

Answers

Answer:

chief complaint

Explanation:

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Perform rapid extrication.
B) Administer high-concentration oxygen.
C) Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
D) Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.

Answers

Answer:

Administer high-concentration oxygen.

Explanation:

Respiratory distress may be defined as the medical condition when the fluid gets filled in the airsacs of the lungs. Respiratory distress indicates the medical emergency and shows life threatening situation.

The individual indicates the sign of respiratory distress and peanut allergy. The respiratory distress decreases the amount of oxygen in the organs and the allergy condition increases this reaction. The high concentration oxygen must be provided to the individual and oxygen deficiency can be overcome.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

Research into the memories of those claiming to suffer from dissociative identity disorder (DID) has found that information presented to one ""alter"" is usually available to the other. This finding has shed doubt on the concept of amnesia across alternate personalities in cases of DID. This situation demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter?

Answers

Answer:

This situation demonstrates the principle of falsifiability.

Explanation:

The concept of falsifiability in science was introduced by Karl Popper, who states that if a theory or statement can be proven false the theory or statement is, in the end, false. The theory has to be contradicted by a basic statement, as in the case of people with amnesia suffering from alternate personalities and people suffering from DID.

Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal? Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal? an oblique muscle layer mucus-forming cells a lining of columnar epithelium a circular muscle layer

Answers

Answer:

An oblique muscle layer.

Explanation:

Stomach is one of the most important organ involved in the process of digestion. The initiation of the protein digestion occurs in the stomach and the acidic environment of the stomach kills the harmful bacteria.

The whole area of the alimentary canal longitudinal layer of the muscle and the circular layer of the muscle. The stomach also contains the additional layer known as the oblique muscle layer that is used for the wringing for itself during food processing.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1).

You are the couple's genetic counselor. When consulting with you, they express their conviction that they are not at risk for having an affected child because they each carry different mutations and cannot have a child who is homozygous for either mutation. What would you say to them?
Hint: Recall that cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion. It may be helpful to construct a Punnett square to determine possible outcomes from this mating. When doing so, be sure to distinguish alleles with different mutations from one another.

Answers

Answer:

The probability that they have a homozygous child is of 0%.

Explanation:

This can be explained with a Punnet square:

Alleles:

Female: Aa

Male: Bb

They are both heterozygous

           A   a

B        AB  aB

b       Ab    ab

They have 50% of having one mutation from the A allele and 25% of the allele B.

Danielle recently gained 80 pounds when she began eating a lot more food and driving to work instead of walking. What is the likely result now that she has reduced her food intake to what it was before and has started walking to work again?

Answers

Answer:

The likely result is that she will lose the 80 pounds that she gained recently.

Explanation:

Danielle will lose weight because she has reduced the amount of food that she eats and has started walking to work again. In other words, there will be fewer calories to burn and she is likely to burn that extra fat that she has gained while she walks to work.

A child being treated with cardiac drugs developed vomiting, bradycardia, anorexia, and dysrhythmias. Which drug toxicity is responsible for these symptoms?
1. Digoxin
2. Nesiritide
3. Dobutamine
4. Spironolactone

Answers

Answer:(1). Digoxin

Explanation:

Digoxin is a drug that is administer to patients so as to

help in the improvement in the pumping efficacy of the heart.

The overdose of the drug Digoxin causes toxicity leading to nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, anorexia, and dysrhythmias.

For the drug Nesiritide, its side effects include effects like headache, insomnia, and hypotension.

For the drug dobutamine, dobutamine does not cause nausea or vomiting but may cause hypertension and hypotension.

And finally, the drug Sprironolactone, Spironolactone may cause edema.

Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?

Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?

Answers

Answer:

I will take the medication only when I need it.

Option:

Explanation:

To prevent the effect of diabetes on health, the patient must take the medicine of oral hypoglycemic in regular basis. It maintains the euglycemia if taken in regular scheduled way. So if the patient have the thoughts of taking medication of oral hypoglycemic agents only when he or she feels need of it, then nurse must teach the patient about the right way of its treatment.

A female client aged 54 years has been scheduled for a bunionectomy (removal of bone tissue from the base of the great toe) which will be conducted on an ambulatory basis. Which characteristic applies to this type of surgery:

a. The client must be previously healthy with low surgical risks
b. The client will be admitted the day of surgery and return home the same day
c. The surgery will be conducted using moderate sedation rather than general anesthesia
d. The surgery is classified as urgent rather than elective.

Answers

Answer:

The client will be admitted the day of surgery and return home the same day.

Explanation:

The bunionectomy performed on the female patient is described as an ambulatory surgery, this means that the patient will be admitted the day of the surgery and after this is performed and a check up to see if she is recovering well the patient is able to return home on the same day.

Smoking food as a method of​ preservation, using food additives so food no longer requires time and temperature​ control, curing​ food, and custom animal processing all require a HACCP plan and

Answers

Answer:

These activities of food processing require a HACCP plan and variance from the regulatory authority.

Explanation:

A variance is the simple documents involving the permission for the food processing. HACCP is referred as "food safety monitoring system" which is useful in identifying and controlling chemical, biology and physical hazards within the transportation, storage, preparation, use and the sale of perishable items.A HACCP plan is required for the method that "carries a higher risk" of causing a "food borne illness".

Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of personal values. When a group of people shares many of the same values, it may be possible to refer for guidance to philosophical principles of utilitarianism. Which statement describes utilitarianism?
a. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
b. People's values are determined by religious leaders.
c. The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the patient has led so far.
d. The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician or health care provider.

Answers

Answer:

the value of something is determined by its usefulness to society

Explanation:

To help Charlie overcome his phobia of heights, his therapist trains him to relax and then has him imagine climbing a ladder. After Charlie visualizes climbing a ladder without anxiety, he attempts to imagine standing at the top of a tall building without feeling anxious. Charlie's therapist is using a technique known as __________.

Answers

Answer:

Charlie's therapist is using a technique known as CBT Cognitive Behavioral Therapy.

Explanation:

Cognitive Behavioral tecnique is often used to treat phobias, among other emotional or psychological afections. This tecnique is based on how negative emotionds and thoughts can be shaped into possitive ones, and so this can help deal with phobias or ansiety.

What Charlie's therapyst is doing is helping him relate his fear of hights with something nice and relaxing, that is how according to this tecnique people can overcome his fears by changing the idea of hights as a bad thing.

This tecnique works under the premise that behvior can be shifted with cognitive influence, this theory helps change thoughts that influence fear.

Karl is a prolific painter. However, he is also prone to periods of hopelessness and depression, which are followed by periods of hyperactivity. It is very likely that Karl is suffering from:

Answers

Bipolar depression

He’s going back and forth from depressed to manic states

A client is administered methotrexate for the treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis. Administration of this drug should be performed with particular care because of the associated high risk of a. Intracapsular b. bleeding C. infarctiond. Myocardial

Answers

Answer:

hepatotoxicity

Explanation:

Even in the low doses used in rheumatoid arthritis , methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity. It is recommended by many clinicians  serial liver biopsies for patients on long-term, low-dose methotrexate.

Hepatotoxicity means chemical-driven liver damage. Drug-induced liver injury is a cause of acute and chronic liver disease. The liver plays a central role in transforming and clearing chemicals and is susceptible to the toxicity from these agents.

A series of transient ischemic attacks have caused an older adult to become dysphagic. The client is opposed to eating minced and pureed foods and wishes to eat a regular diet. How should the care team respond to this request?A)Insert a feeding tube to provide nutrition while eliminating the risk of aspiration.B)Continue providing a minced and pureed diet to the client in order to ensure safety.C)Defer responsibility for feeding to the client's friends and family.D)Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks

Answers

Answer:

D. Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks.

Explanation:

https://quizlet.com/159043701/older-adult-practice-test-6-chapters-9-and-10-flash-cards/

The care team should discuss the potential risks of a regular diet with the dysphagic client, and, if the client insists after being informed, consider supervised trial periods of the desired diet. Interventions should respect the client's autonomy, balancing safety and dignity. Hence, option D is correct.

When an older adult with dysphagia, resulting from transient ischemic attacks, expresses opposition to eating minced and pureed foods, the care team should respond respectfully to the client's request. It’s crucial that the client understands the risks associated with eating a regular diet, which includes the potential for aspiration and the development of pneumonia. If, after being informed, the client still wishes to eat a regular diet, the care team—in collaboration with speech therapists, physicians, and dietitians—may consider trial periods of the desired diet with close supervision and appropriate safeguards in place.

You are working at an emergency practice and a woman brings in her ferret "Macy" who is obtunded. The ferret is very weak and appears neurologic. The veterinarian suspects an insulinoma, which is the third most common tumor in the ferret. If this is the case, what laboratory finding would you expect? vtne

Answers

Answer:

Hypoglycemia.

Explanation:

An insulinoma is a benign tumor formed by the pancreas cells that secret insulin. As there are a lot of these cells, there is a lot of insulin, which makes the glucose levels in the blood decrease, causing weakness. If this is the case, I would be expecting to find low levels of glucose in the blood (hypoglycemia) in the laboratory results.

Which element is used as rat poison and is found in the title of the

Answers

Answer:

The rat poison is Arsenic and is found in the title of the murder mystery.

Explanation:

Arsenic was the king of poisons during the 19th century. It was widely used in everyday life and was part of kills, pigments, wallpapers, pesticides and even medications. Its use in agriculture and medicine intensified in the early twentieth century. Currently, its presence in groundwater transforms it into one of the ten most dangerous substances for human health, according to WHO reports. And yet, he has lost his position of honor as king of poisons.

The ease with which it could be obtained in commerce was one of the keys that made arsenic the king of poisons during the nineteenth century. But there were also other factors that are related to the physical, chemical and medical properties of arsenic. With this name, what modern chemists call diarsenic trioxide, arsenious oxide and arsenic oxide (III) were commonly known, and which they usually represent with the formula As2O3. But we will keep here the most traditional denomination: arsenic, without more. It is a white, crystalline powder, which does not differ excessively from substances in everyday life such as flour or sugar, so it is easy to mix it with them. It barely tastes, so it can be supplied at meals without raising too much suspicion. Faced with these rather bland physical and organoleptic traits, arsenic has very notable poisonous properties. It acts on various parts of the human body and leads to a great diversity of symptoms that depend on the dose, the mode of administration and the particular characteristics of the victim. Many of these symptoms resemble other diseases. In the 1830s, when cholera reached European cities, many of the first victims thought they had been poisoned with arsenic and various people were persecuted for these alleged crimes.

As for the title of a mystery and murder movie, "Arsenic and Old Lace" was about women who poisoned and killed the men who visited them by adding arsenic to the wine.

Lynda is 87 years old, eats a very healthy diet, completes daily household chores, goes for a morning walk, and frequently interacts with her family members and friends. These are considered _____ that may lengthen life.

Answers

Answer:

exercises

Explanation:

Answer:

Lifestyle Factors

Explanation:

The nurse is preparing a client with thrombocytopenia for discharge. Which statement by the client about measures minimizing injury indicates that discharge teaching was effective?
Select all that apply.
1. "I may continue to use an electric shaver."
2. "I will not blow my nose if I get a cold."
3. "I should use an enema instead of laxatives for constipation."
4. "I definitely will play football with my friends this weekend."
5. "I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid mouth trauma."

Answers

Answer:

The answers are numbers: 1, 2, and 5.

Explanation:

1. "I may continue to use an electric shaver."

2. "I will not blow my nose if I get a cold."

5. "I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid mouth trauma."

A client who diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is being treated with levodopa/carbidopa. Which disorder will result in the discontinuation of this drug based on a disease-related contraindication?

Answers

Answer:

Please read the explanation section.

Explanation:

When any doctor prescribes levodopa, it will be not a matter of the right decision to stop taking it by own without a doctor's permission. Suddenly stopping taking levodopa can develop a severe syndrome such as rigid muscles, fiver, unusual body movement, and confusion in mind.

So, it will be a good decision to stop taking levodopa as per the doctor's suggestion.

A client diagnosed with cancer makes the following statement to the nurse: "I guess I will tell my health care provider to forego the chemotherapy. I do not want to be throwing up all the time. I would rather die." Which of the following facts supports the use of chemotherapy for this client?

a. Nausea and vomiting are only a factor for the first 24 hours after treatment
b. Most clients believe the discomfort is well worth the cure for cancer
c. Chemotherapy treatment can be adjusted to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects
d. Clinical trials are opening up new cancer treatments all the time

Answers

Answer:

I believe its C ?

IM not forsure ...

Explanation:

The pharmacology instructor is discussing the differences between the various diuretic agents. Which would the instructor cite as a difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?

Answers

Answer:

A difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide is that with the first one the amount of potassium that is lost through urine is smaller than with hydrochlorothiazide.

Explanation:

Spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide are two different types of diuretics, the main difference between these two is that the spironolactone is a diuretic that prevents the absorption of high quantities of salt and also keeps the potassium levels low while hydrochlorothiazide only prevents the absorption of too much salt avoiding fluid retention.

Other Questions
Hawley Corporation issues one-year limited warranties with all of their products. Based on their past history with warranties, they report a potential liability of 8% of their cost of goods sold on their financial statements. This is an example of reporting a(n):___________ Which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity? A. Species richness will related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration B. Species richness will be related to precipitation C. Species richness will be related to actual evapotranspiration. D. Tree species richness is related to mammal species richness. A close friend of yours announces that she is newly pregnant and wants to go out for a nice seafood dinner to celebrate! You agree, but using your newfound knowledge on ocean pollution, you strongly advise her that in order to protect her baby from birth defects, she should avoid eating ______. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Vapor pressure increases with temperature. Dispersion forces are generally stronger than dipole-dipole forces. Hydrogen bonds are chemical bonds. Intermolecular forces hold the atoms in molecules together. None of the above are true. How many 3/5 are in 15 3/5 As Christianity spread throughout the Roman Empire, it came to be viewed as athreat by public officials, who ordered the arrest and execution of Christians. Thisbackfired, though, because the Christians who were killed were remembered as1)saints2)divine3)prophets4)martyrs A firm producing 7 units of output has an average total cost of Rs. 150 and has to pay Rs.350 to its fixed factors of production whether it produces or not. How much of the average total cost is made up of variable costs? Im the expression 10a + 4, identify the coefficient Write the following as an expression and evaluate . The sum of -6 and the quotient of -36 and 6 What occurred in part, because of President Wilson's Fourteen Points?AThe Central powers suffered four million military deaths, half of which were German soldiersB. Germany requested an armistice to end the war and negotiate peace termsC. The Paris Peace Conference took place without President Wilson in attendanceD. The United States ratified the Treaty of Versailles in 1920 Linear track begins at 0 has.a total. Distance of 100 meters to the finish line. starts at the 10-meter mark while practicing for a race After running 45 meters, how.far is.she from the beginning of the track? 8. Which is an unhealthy strategy for coping with death and dying?A)discussing your future plans with the dying personB) staying actively involved in the dying person's lifeC)trying to talk about your lossD)pretending to be happy Vote for the best representation of 7/150.460.46 repeating 460.46 repeating 60.467 Choose the sentence that uses abbreviations and numbers correctly. A. Forty-three students (i.e., thirty-four percent of the class) opted to take the final exam early. B. 43 students (ie, 34% of the class) opted to take the final exam early. C. 43 students (i.e., 34% of the class) opted to take the final exam early. D. Forty-three students (i.e., 34% of the class) opted to take the final exam early. Quin compra los pasajes para el vuelo (flight)? (la Sra. Garza) Question 2 with 1 blankQuin tiene que hacer las maletas de los nios? (Mara) Question 3 with 1 blankQuin compra un mapa de Puerto Rico? (Antonio) Question 4 with 1 blankQuin va a confirmar las reservaciones de hotel? (la Sra. Garza) Question 5 with 1 blankQuin busca la cmara? (Mara) The majority of appointed U.S. Treasury secretaries have been either former partners or managers of Goldman Sachs, a global investment management firm. Sociologists would argue that this overlap between private business and the federal government is an example ofa. the power elite.b. pluralism.c. authoritarianism.d. totalitarianism. The annual rainfall in a certain region is approximately normally distributed with mean 41.8 inches and standard deviation 5.8 inches. Round answers to the nearest tenth of a percent.a) What percentage of years will have an annual rainfall of less than 44 inches? __%b) What percentage of years will have an annual rainfall of more than 39 inches? __%c) What percentage of years will have an annual rainfall of between 37 inches and 42 inches? __% Normal childhood curiosity is not considered sexual abuse.TrueFalse Hawaiian queen liliuokalani overthrown by american settlers. True or False Please Help Quicly The equation 8x - 4y = 5 is dilated by a scale factor of 8 centered at the origin. What is the new slope and y-intercept after dilation?