Answer:
Vegetarianism, as well as veganism, are defined as diets in which in one way or another, there is either a restriction in the type of animal products that are consumed, or no consumption of these products. However, in veganism, there is even more restriction, as essentially, vegans of different types will eat some types of plant foods, while not others. In vegetarianism, there is absolutely no consumption of animals flesh, but there can be consumption of dairy products and eggs. In veganism, depending on the type, there may be restrictions to some types of meat, or all types, consumption of dairy and eggs, or limitations in these consumptions as well.
As such, the vegetarians are just that, people who do not consume animal flesh of any kind, but can eat dairy and eggs. There are no further groups here
But in Vegans, there are several groups, and their name depends on what they eat, and do not eat. As such we have: Strict Vegan, Lacto-Ovo-Vegan (will eat eggs and dairy), Lacto-Vegan (Only dairy), Fruitarian (only fruits, nuts and certain plants), Flexitarians (sometimes eat meat), Pescatarians (will eat fish), and Raw Foodists (Only fruits, nuts and plants on their raw state)
The types of nutrients that will be lacking, especially for strict vegans and strict vegetarians are: Vitamin B-12, Folic Acid, Calcium, Iron and Zinc. These are all nutrients that must be supplied through supplements on these diets.
Vegetarianism has various forms including veganism which excludes all animal products. Vegans should ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients and may benefit from supplements like vitamin B12. Plant-based diets can offer health benefits and environmental advantages, but cost savings vary.
Explanation:There are various types of vegetarianism, including lacto-vegetarianism (includes dairy), ovo-vegetarianism (includes eggs), lacto-ovo vegetarianism (includes both dairy and eggs), pescatarianism (includes fish), and veganism, where no animal products are consumed at all. Vegans need to pay special attention to their diet to ensure they receive all essential nutrients, particularly protein, iron, zinc, omega-3, and vitamin B12. To get all essential amino acids, vegans can combine different plant sources of protein, as no single plant food contains all essential amino acids.
A plant-based diet has numerous health benefits, including the potential for reducing the risk of chronic diseases like cancer, heart disease, and Type 2 diabetes. It can also assist with weight maintenance and may reduce the environmental impact compared to omnivorous diets. However, financial savings are variable and depend on food choices and local prices. Vegans may need to supplement their diet with specific nutrients such as vitamin B12, which is predominantly found in animal products.
The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is? What should the athlete wear when he/she returns?
The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is to wrap your thigh with a wet bandage to insulate skin. This is important because, you could become more injured if you didn't do proper steps to the healing process.
In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, the contracted lacks which structures/components, while they are present in the relaxed sarcomere.
Where 1. A-band 2. I-band 3. Z discs 4. H-zone 5. M-line
A. 1 & 2
B. 3 & 4
C. 3, 4 & 5
D) 1 & 4
E) 2 & 4
Answer:
The correct answer will be option E- 2 & 4.
Explanation:
The sarcomere is a segment made up of thick and thin filaments between the two Z-lines or disc of a myofibril.
Sarcomere structurally can be divided into bands:
A-band- which is also known as the anisotropic filament is made up of thick filaments called myosin. H-zone- the zone in the A-band which appears lighter in color in the microscope I-band- an isotropic band made of thin filament called actin.Upon contraction of muscle, these filaments form an overlapped structure due to which I-band shortens along with H-zone of A- band. Due to the shortening of these bands, only A-band without H-zone and I-band appears between two A-lines. These bands upon relaxation again take their normal form.
Thus, option E- 2 & 4 is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The I-band and H-zone are the structures that are reduced or no longer apparent in a contracted sarcomere when compared to a relaxed sarcomere; the A-band stays the same length during contraction. So the correct option is E.
Explanation:
In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, specific structures are altered. In a relaxed sarcomere, all bands and zones are visible and at their maximum lengths. During contraction, certain regions shorten while others remain unchanged. In a contracted sarcomere, the I-band and the H-zone are the structures/components that are reduced or no longer apparent.
The I-band consists only of thin filaments and spans the distance between adjacent thick filaments. The H-zone is the central region of the A-band where only thick filaments are present. As contraction occurs, thin filaments slide towards the M-line, diminishing the H-zone and pulling Z-discs closer together, thereby reducing the I-band. However, the A-band, which contains both thin and thick filaments, remains the same length even during muscle contraction.
Explain the importance of knowing Heimlich Maneuver.
Answer:
The technique is called the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts. Abdominal thrusts lift your diaphragm and expel air from your lungs. This causes the foreign object to be expelled from your airway. And The Heimlich maneuver is a lifesaving first aid technique. It is preformed when someone is choking and unable to breathe. The maneuver consists of a person wrapping their arms around the other, using the technique to thrust a piece of food or foreign object out of their throat.In order to show others that you are chocking, hold your hands around your throat. Make sure to educate your family and friends about this signal. It is important that they know what to do if they are chocking and it is important for them to know what to look for if someone else is chocking.
Explanation:
Describe the components and functions of the three lines of immune defense.
Answer and Explanation :
Three lines of immune systems are
ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY : It comes into action when first and second line of defense are not working or in other word fail in their workspecific response in this adaptive immunity this is the third
line of defense effector T cells and B cells
INNATE IMMUNITY : it come into into action when first line of defense fail to do his workits components are
organ lymph nodes ,tonsils,
BARRIERS AT BODY SURFACE : The barriers are used for the protection of body from infection there are mainly two types of infection physical infection and chemical infection these include skin, stomach tear etc
The immune system's three lines of defense consist of physical and chemical barriers for the first line, non-specific responses like inflammation and phagocytosis for the second, and the adaptive immune response involving lymphocytes and antibodies for the third line, all of which protect the body against pathogens.
Explanation:The immune system's three lines of defense work together to protect the body from pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers like the skin, mucous membranes, and secretions like saliva and stomach acid which block or destroy incoming pathogens. The second line of defense consists of non-specific responses, including inflammatory responses, fever, and phagocytic cells like white blood cells that engulf and destroy invaders.
The third line of defense involves the lymphatic system and is known as the immune response. This specific adaptive immune response involves lymphocytes, like T-cells and B-cells, that can recognize and remember specific pathogens for a more rapid and stronger reaction in future encounters. This system also includes the production of antibodies tailored to neutralize or destroy specific antigens, and the ability of immune memory to provide protection against future infections by the same pathogen.
Overall, these three lines of defense work like a fortress with multiple layers of protection, ensuring that only pathogens that can breach all barriers pose a significant threat to the body. The immune system's adaptability and complexity are vital for survival in a world full of potentially harmful microbes.
How can the use of the nurse's personal communication device(s) impact patient care positively and/or negatively? What are the ethical and legal implications? What does the professional literature say about how communication devices can support safe nursing practice?
Answer:
To begin with, a nurse´s private life, symbolized in the use of her private communication devices, should be separate from her professional field. In essence, unless absolutely necessary, a nurse should not carry with her communication devices that are personal, as her time of work, is the time that must be reserved to give the best nursing care possible.
The use of communication devices, such as cellphones, can have both negative and positive impact on nursing care. But mostly, negative. On the plus side, a nurse who carries a cellphone can easily access necessary information that might help her in her care. But that would be the extent of it. On the negative side, there are many issues involved. First, a nurse handles a lot of private information on her patients, and the use of personal devices is a way to infringe on that. She might make the mistake of informing someone outside about a patient´s situation, and that would be a violation of all the rights of patients. Second, hyginie. Usually cellphones are a huge medium to transport pathogens, and very few nurses realize this. So it can also become a source of infection. Third, a nurse´s attention will not be fully given to her patients, to her care, but it will be split between her professional, and personal, worlds, increasing the risk of making mistakes in her care.
This is why, even from the time of nursing school, nurses are told that these devices can be used for good, as long as they are placed in certain spots specifically designed, such as lunch rooms, or staff lounges. They can be used as a means for consultation, or getting in contact with people from their own work, if necessary, but they must not be carried around, and definitely should not be consulted outside of the resting time alloted to them.
A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Platelets 300,000/mm3
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. PT 11 seconds
d. aPTT 50 seconds
Answer:
The best answer to the question: A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should a nurse report to the provider? would be: D: aPTT of 50 seconds.
Explanation:
Unlike Warfarin and the low-molecular weight heparin, medically speaking, the one diagnostic test that is still being used as a measure of heparin´s therapeutic achievements in a patient with a coagulopathy, is the activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT. Although the measurement in seconds, will depend on the laboratory that is doing the measuring, and despite scientific evidence that points to the fact that aPTT is not the most accurate of laboratory measurements for a patient with heparin, it is still being used today and still is the leading laboratory test for these types of patients.
The laboratory value to report for a patient receiving heparin is an aPTT of 50 seconds, as it indicates the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy and may require adjustments to the dosage to avoid potential bleeding complications.
The question concerns identifying which laboratory value of a patient receiving heparin therapy should be reported to the healthcare provider. The answer is d. aPTT 50 seconds. Heparin therapy's effectiveness and safety are typically monitored through the activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) levels. A normal aPTT ranges from 30 to 40 seconds, but when on heparin therapy, the target therapeutic range is usually about 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value. An aPTT of 50 seconds may suggest that the patient's heparin dose is within or slightly above the therapeutic range, depending on the specific target range set by the managing physician. However, it's crucial to communicate this value to ensure appropriate management, as excessively prolonged aPTT can increase the risk of bleeding. In contrast, options a, b, and c are within normal limits or irrelevant to heparin therapy: Platelets at 300,000/mm3, Hematocrit 45%, and PT 11 seconds are considered normal values and not directly influenced by heparin.
The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option B. "False"
Explanation:
Nephron can be defined as the functional unit of the kidney.
Descending limb and ascending limb are the combinly called loop of nephron or henle and are the part of renal tubule in the nephron.
Descending limbs and ascending limbs have different permeabilities to water and salt that causes high osmolarity in the Medulla.
The thin descending limb is having high permeability to water as they have low permeability to ions and urea while the thick ascending limb has impermeablity to water as there is active reabsorption of ions.
Hence, the correct option is B.
The statement is false. The descending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to water and the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water.
Explanation:The statement 'The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water' is false. In reality, the opposite is true. The descending limb of the nephron loop, part of the kidney’s urine-forming apparatus, is permeable to water and impermeable to solutes. Contrarily, the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water, but it allows for the passage of ions and sodium chloride.
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If a mass casualty event occurs involving a nuclear power plant accident, along with burns and open wounds, most victims and their clothing will be contaminated with:
A. infectious organisms.
B. ionizing radiation.
C. biological agents
D. chemical agents
Answer: Option b
Explanation:
If nuclear power plant accident takes place then most of the people get affected by this mass exposure.
This exposure affects mass of population, with burns, wounds and ionizing radiation. Ionizing radiation can be defined as the radiation that is caused due to different types of particles like gamma, alpha, beta particles.
These particles have the ability to penetrate inside the body and cause mutation. Many other genetic deformities can also be encountered with expose to ionizing radiation.
hence, the correct answer is option B
An increase in afterload will result in a(n) ________
a. decrease in heart rate.
b. increase in heart rate.
c. decrease in stroke volume.
d. increase in cardiac output.
e. increase in stroke volume
Answer:
i think: c. but, not question on this answer????
Explanation:
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Afterload is defined as the pressure exerted by the heart that work against to eject blood during systole or ventricular contraction.
Afterload is said as proportional to the average arterial pressure. when systemic vascular resistance and aortic pressure are increased, that results increase in afterload by ventricular dilation and by aortic valve stenosis. As a result in the increased afterload, there is an increase in end-systolic volume and a decrease in stroke volume.
Hence, the correct option is C.
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) Skeletal muscle : striated
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
c) Cardiac muscle : striated
d) Smooth muscle : involuntary
Answer:
B) Cardiac muscle: voluntary
Explanation:
As we know the skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary and smooth muscle is involuntary. The muscle cardiac has a different classification it is striated but involuntary. The contraction is different from the skeletal muscle this is thanks to the action potential dilivered in the muscular cells of the heart because of the sodium and calcium levels. The sodium is rises very fast but is decrease in the same way and the calcium is in a sustained level that allows the action potential.
Answer:
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
Explanation:
Oxytocin is used during which of the following procedures?
A. bowel resection
B. total abdominal hysterectomy
C. total hip replacement
D. cesarean section
Answer:
(D). cesarean section
Explanation:
Oxytocin is a peptide hormone, synthesized by hypothalamus and secreted by posterior pituitary. Oxytocin plays role in sexual reproduction, lactation, and induce contractions during child birth.
Oxytocin is naturally produced at the time of child birth, but natural oxytocin has a short half-life. Hence, oxytocin infusion is done during child birth or cesarean section as it maintains contraction of uterine wall during the surgery.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Where does systemic venous blood enter the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
Answer:
C. Right atrium
Explanation:
The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through superior and inferior vena cava. The right atrium contracts and the blood is passed from the atrium to the right ventricle which later contracts and sends blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to reoxygenate.
What disorder fits the clinical manifestation of the following:
a) Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe headache, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation
b) Polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine
c) Polydipsia, nocutria polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria
d) Weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH
e) Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around the eyes, coarse hair, decreased body temperature
f) Tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased LOC, perhaps seizure
g) Virilization: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk
h) Polyuria, decreased LOC, Kussmaul breathing, acetone smell to breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria
i) Hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium
Answer:
I'm say c it's just a wild guess
Define cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume.
Answer:
- Cardiac output = defined as the amount of blood that comes out with each ventricular contraction in a minute. Normally in a healthy and young person it is 4.5 L / min.
- Heart rate = It is the amount of heartbeats in a minute. Normally it goes between 60 to 100 contractions per minute.
- Stroke Volume = It is the amount of blood ejected from the heart to the aorta and to the pulmonary artery in each contraction.
What is AIDS caused by?
A. a virus
B. a bacterium
C. mosquito bites
D. a mutation on a cell’s receptor site
Answer:
The answer is A: virus
Explanation:
AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is caused by the late-stage HIV virus; as a manifestation of the patient's great immune compromise, which is practically without defense to resist any infectious attack on the organism.
Why cannot we domain the peristalsis when a diarrheal condition is present?
Answer:
Peristalsis is defined as the involuntary movement which involves contraction and relaxation of muscles present in the digestive tract originates from the esophagus.
In diarrheal condition the Peristalsis movement does not take place properly as it is not a voluntary muscle movement so it can not be controlled consciously. it is important to digestion but, in case of diarrhea or constipation something goes haywire with peristalsis . this condition can also be defined as motility (hypermotility) disorder.
Why are lipids such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates?
A. They are hydrophobic.
B. They contain 4 kcal per gram of fat.
C. They are less compact than carbohydrates.
D. They hold a lot of water.
E. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Lipids belongs to the group of biological molecules that includes fat, oils and some steroids. They are better for storing energy as compared to carbohydrate because they are more weight efficient due to its hydrophobic nature.
Lipids can be stored without storing a lot of water. Besides this carbohydrates requires water to get stored inside the body.
So, lipids are better storage molecules for energy as compared to that of carbohydrates.
Final answer:
Lipids are efficient energy storage molecules because they have high energy content per gram owing to their carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds. They are hydrophobic which means they are more compact as they do not hold water. This makes them better at energy storage compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The question asks why lipids are such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer to this question is that lipids provide more energy per gram than carbohydrates. Lipids have a high energy content because their fatty acid chains contain numerous carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds, which are capable of storing a lot of energy.
Moreover, lipids are hydrophobic and, therefore, do not bind to water, making them more compact energy stores since they do not require water for storage. This is in contrast to carbohydrates, which can bind water and thereby are less efficient on a per gram basis.
Lipids are essential not just for energy storage but also for other functions like forming a major component of cell membranes, insulating and protecting organs, and contributing to the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.
Describe three signs of a stroke.
Answer: Difficulty speaking, blurred vision, and trouble with coordination.
A stroke is when there’s damage to the brain because of lack of blood
Three signs of a stroke:
1. Numbness of body parts.
2. Trouble speaking.
3. Dizziness and blurred vision.
If you experience any of these symptoms, go to the emergency room immediately.
Assisting muscles are called _____________.
Answer:
Synergists
Explanation:
A lot of muscles are involved in an action. The principle muscle involved is called the primer mover or agonist.
For example an action like uplifting a cup. The primar mover is actually the biceps branchii. However, these muscles are assisted by brachialis which are known as synergist. A synergist behaves like a fixator which stabilizes the bone and thus, assist the action of uplifting the cup.
Thus,
Assisting muscles are called synergists.
The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles.
The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles. Synergistic muscles are muscles that work together to perform a specific movement or action. For example, when you bend your arm, the biceps and brachialis muscles are synergistic muscles because they work together to flex the elbow joint.
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Which of the following is NOT true about muscle cells?
a. The sarcoplasmic reticulum and the t-tubules are physically fused together
b. It is multinuclear
c. The plasma membrane is called a sarcolemma
d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
The muscle cells are the long, cylindrical, tubular structure which is made up of the myofilaments- actin and myosin.
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as sarcolemma and the cytoplasm of the cell is known as sarcoplasm. Each muscle cell has the small holes present on its sarcolemma through which the nerve impulse are transmitted from the sarcolemma to sarcoplasmic reticulum where calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm.
In the given question the, the muscle cell is multi-nucleated which is the case of skeletal muscles only. The muscle cells have a single nucleus in smooth and cardiac muscles.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells.
Explanation:The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells. In reality, an action potential (AP) at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of acetylcholine, which then causes a depolarization of the muscle cell membrane. This depolarization leads to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing for muscle contraction.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum and t-tubules are physically fused together in muscle cells, which allows for efficient communication between the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction. This fusion is vital for the process known as excitation-contraction coupling.
The plasma membrane of muscle cells is called sarcolemma. This specialized membrane surrounds the muscle cell and helps maintain the internal environment of the cell.
Muscle cells are indeed multinuclear. Unlike most cells in our body that only have one nucleus, muscle cells contain multiple nuclei. These nuclei are necessary to provide adequate genetic material for the synthesis of proteins required for muscle contraction and maintenance.
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Duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine. It is approximately 25 centimeters (10 inches) in length. It receives chyme from the stomach through the _________ valve.
Answer:
The answer is pylorus
Explanation:
The pylorus is the valve located between the lower part of the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum.
The term capacitance vessel refers to:
a. the mechanism by which blood can bypass a capillary plexus
b. blood vessels specifically adapted to adjust the surrounding temperature
c. the blood storage function of veins
d. large arteries that have the ability to stretch
Answer:
The answer is C: the blood storage function of veins
Explanation:
Capacitance vessels are venous vessels capable of storing up to 70% of circulating blood.
What cells recognize and destroy antibody-coated cells:
a) B- and T-lymphocytes
b) basophils and mast cells
c) dendritic cells
d) macrophages and neutrophils
e) NK cells
Answer:
The correct option is : e) NK cells
Explanation:
The antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, is a special cell-mediated mechanism of immune defense. This mechanism involves active lyses or the breakdown of the cell membrane of the antibody-coated target cell by an effector cell of the immune system.
The effector cell required in the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity are known as Natural Killer cells or the NK cells. The NK cells show interaction with the IgG antibodies and recognize and destroy the antibody-coated target cells.
Which of the following is/are NOT considered a pathogen? Select ALL that apply
a) athlete's foot fungus
b) cancer
c) chicken pox virus
d) hookworm intestinal parasite
e) meningococcus bacterium
f) pollen
Answer: b) cancer
Explanation:
A pathogen is an biological agent which is capable of invading the body of living beings and harm them by causing infection. Cancer and pollen cannot be considered as pathogens.
Cancer is a condition in which the cells of the body divide uncontrollably in an abnormal fashion. Due to this tumor of abnormal cells develop and these cells makes the immune system of the body weak. These infectious cells make the immune system weak and prove to be fatal.
Treatment for osteomyelitis include:
a. IV antibiotics.
b. Antipyretics.
c. Narcotic pain management
d. Non-weight bearing on the affected limb.
E. Passive ROM on the affected limb.
Answer:
The answers are A, B, C, E
Explanation:
The treatment of osteomyelitis in general should include the following management:
1- Intravenous antibiotic.
2- Intravenous or oral analgesic.
3 - Keep the affected bone at rest, that is, avoid mobility or weight in it. Passive movements can be made to the affected bone as long as it is tolerated.
4 - Narcotics in case the pain becomes very intense.
5 - Local heat.
Explain physiologially, how urine volume and potassium concentration are altered by the presence/absensce of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormoen both alone and together.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which increases the permeability of the tubules to increase the reabsorption of water by adding aquaporins in the membranes of the tubules and aldosterone- a steroid hormone which increases the reabsorption of sodium and retention of water in the tubules.
1. In the low concentration of water- more water is absorbed from the kidney due to the production of ADH and aldosterone which reduces the volume of water in the urine and thus the low volume of urine is produced and the potassium ions retain in the body.
2. In high concentration of water- ADH and aldosterone are not produced and the urine is produced in a normal amount. Some potassium ions can be released.
You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You respond: a.“Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the wordsfrom both languages until about 3 years of age.” b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.” c.“Stop speaking English at home to avoid confusion. She can always learn Englishoutside the home.” d.“The child may confuse the words now, but that will change by second grade.”
Hi !
You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages.
b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.”
Which muscle is deeper in the body: the internal oblique muscle or the transverse abdominal muscle? Is the trapezius muscle located in the abdomen, back, head, neck, or thorax?
Answer:
The transverse abdominal muscle is present deeper in the body and the trapezius muscle is located in the back.
Explanation:
The transverse abdominal muscle is a layer of muscle that is present on the anterior (front) and lateral (side) abdominal wall and is present below the internal oblique muscle.
The trapezius muscle is a paired surface muscle which is located in the back. The main function of this muscle is to move the scapula and support the arm.
The transverse abdominal muscle is located deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. The trapezius muscle is not positioned in the abdomen, but can be found in the upper part of the back, extending to the neck and head.
Explanation:The transverse abdominal muscle is deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. This muscle is arranged transversely around the abdomen, similar to the front of a belt on a pair of pants. On the other hand, the internal oblique muscle is situated more superiorly and extends in the direction wherein our thumbs usually when other fingers are in the pants pocket.
The trapezius muscle is not located in the abdomen. Rather, it's a muscle that stabilizes the upper part of the back, thus it's located in the back and extends to the neck and the base of the skull. This muscle plays a crucial role in movements of the neck and shoulder.
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What is the Icd 10 code for gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by?
a) HSV-1
b) HSV-2
c) EBV
d) CMV
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:___, would be: C: EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus 4, of the same family of the herpes virus.
Explanation:
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as Mono, is an infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, from the herpes virus family. This illness is also called glandular fever, as usually, especially in children, which is the usual time when people are affected by the EBV, there is an enlargement of the lymphatic nodes in the throat, which means the throat looks swollen, there is fever, tiredness, and some times, the spleen and liver can also be attacked and affected. It usually resolves by itself, there is no vaccination available for it and treatment is exclusive for pain and fever.