Answer:
1. Chordates
2. phylogeny
3. most recent common ancestor
4. derived
5. homologous
6. analogous
7. opposable
8. prehensile tails
9. Lucy
10. neanderthalensis
11. Using comparative anatomy, scientists identify similarities and differences in the anatomy of different species. Scientists would search for homologous structures, analogous structures, and vestigial structures to provide clues as they construct a cladogram.
Explanation:
From Penn Foster
The study of a living being is called biology.
The correct answer is as follows:-
Chordates are thought to have been present before vertebrates. Cladograms are graphic representations of evolutionary history, which is called They phylogeny are sometimes referred to as phylogenetic trees Each node, or intersection, on a cladogram, represents the most recent common ancestor between two species Traits, or characteristics, that organisms develop and are passed down to become new species are called derived traits. Traits or structures that likely developed from common ancestors are called similar structures. Traits or structures that have a similar function, or job, but are not shared due to common ancestry are called different structuresopposable Primates are a group of animals that have developed many adaptations such as larger brains, binocular vision and thumbs that support arboreal life.New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys because they have prehensile which act as additional hands when living in the trees. lucy is an early australopithecine skeleton, found in 1974. neanderthalensis is not thought to have evolved into Homosapiens. The two are now thought to have been present at the same time as sister species.
Hence, these are the answer to the following question.
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Which ion has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential of most neurons?
Potassium has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential of most neurons due to the membrane's higher permeability to potassium ions through open non-gated potassium channels during the resting state.
The ion with the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential of most neurons is Potassium (K+). During the resting state, non-gated (leak) potassium channels are open, allowing potassium ions to move across the neuron's membrane. This movement of potassium is critical in establishing the resting membrane potential because the membrane is much more permeable to potassium than to sodium due to the higher number of open potassium channels. Essentially, these channels enable potassium to diffuse out of the neuron, influencing the membrane potential significantly. Although sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl-) channels are also present, they are fewer in number, meaning that while these ions do play a role, their influence on the resting membrane potential is not as great as that of potassium. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is closer to the equilibrium potential of potassium, typically between -60 to -70 mV. Furthermore, the sodium-potassium pump helps to maintain the gradients of these ions, but the passive permeability largely dictates the resting membrane potential.
* The complete question is:
Which ion has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential of most neurons?
Multiple Choice
Potassium
Sodium
De novo purine synthesis occurs by the stepwise addition of atoms or groups of atoms to 5‑phosphoribosyl 1‑pyrophosphate (PRPP). The atoms of the purine rings are supplied by glutamate, glycine, glutamine, aspartate, and N 10 ‑formyltetrahydrofolate (THF). Inosine monophosphate (IMP), the product of the pathway, is a purine nucleotide that can be converted to either AMP or GMP. The structure of the base is labeled according to the numbering convention for purines. Identify the direct source of each atom in the purine ring of IMP.
Answer:
Explanation:
Like we all know, the purine ring of IMP is made up of a nine membered compound . they are heterocyclic aromatic organic compound that consist of a pyrimidine ring fused to an imidazole ring. there are four nitrogen atoms and five carbon atom.
The ring is imidazole ring is made up of N1, C2, N3, C4, C5, C6 with the pyrimidine sharing C4 and C5 with the imidazole ring and also made up of N7, C8, N9.
the direct source of N1 is from aspartate
the direct source of C2 and C8 is from N 10 ‑formyltetrahydrofolate (THF)
N3 and N9 is derived from the amide group of Glutamine
C4, C5 and N7 is derivd from Glycine
C6 is derived from bicarbonate
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for sexual reproduction in most vertebrates? _____ Select one: a. mitosis → zygote → meiosis → gametes → embryo b. meiosis → zygote → mitosis → gametes → embryo c. mitosis → gametes → meiosis → zygote → embryo d. meiosis → gametes → mitosis → zygote → embryo e. meiosis → gametes → zygote → mitosis → embryo
Answer:
e. meiosis → gametes → zygote → mitosis → embryo
Explanation:
In the vertebrates, the life cycle alternates between the diploid and haploid phase. The vertebrate body is diploid and the haploid phase is only observed during the gamete formation.
The sex organs of the vertebrates produce gametes from the gamete mother cell through meiosis, which reduces the chromosome number to half and produce four haploid gametes.
The male and female gametes undergo fertilization event and form a diploid zygote. The zygote develops into the embryo through mitosis as mitosis produces the cells with an equal number of chromosomes.
Thus, Option-E is correct.
Whether a G alpha subunit is active or inactive depends on which guanine nucleotide is bound to it. Binding of GDP or GTP results in the protein switching between two conformational states. Which of the following answers best describes the structural changes that occur in a G alpha subunit due to guanine nucleotide binding? Choose one: A. Phosphorylation of GDP to GTP by the G alpha subunit moves the switch II helix region from binding to G beta/gamma to binding effectors like adenylate cyclase. B. The helical region of G alpha, called switch II, which interacts with G beta/gamma in the inactive state, is brought into the interior of the G alpha protein, reducing contact with G beta/gamma. This permits G alpha interaction with effector proteins, like adenylate cyclase, since the switch Il region is now buried. C. Epinephrine directly binds and activates G alpha to allow the subunit to bind to an effector protein. D. Dissociation of GDP for GTP with the G alpha subunit structurally shifts the switch II helix region, allowing for the association of G alpha with its effector proteins, such as adenylate cyclase.
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
Whether a G alpha subunit is active or inactive depends on which guanine nucleotide is bound to it. Binding of GDP or GTP results in the protein switching between two conformational states.
Dissociation of GDP for GTP with the G alpha subunit structurally shifts the switch II helix region, allowing for the association of G alpha with its effector proteins, such as adenylate cyclase,describes the structural changes that occur in a G alpha subunit due to guanine nucleotide binding
TRUE OR FALSE?
All of the living things in a pond; algae, pond weeds, insects, birds, crustaceans, fish, and other organisms that reside and interact there make up a biological community.
True or False?
Answer:
shcdcg xsetr
Explanation:
xsdthfcq
The abilify to taste phenylthiocarbamide (prc) is determined by a dominant gene (T). Individuals who can taste pTC are called tasters. A man who is a taster and has a non-taster mother marries a woman who is a taster. She has five siblings, three ofwhom are non-tasters. what are the chances that the children of this marriage will be nonasters?
Answer:
The chances of producing children that will be non-tasters is 1/4.
Explanation:
The ability to taste is determined by T which can either be TT or Tt. Non tasters can only be inherited in the recessive condition (tt).
A man who is a taster with a non taster mother is heterozygous for the trait (Tt). He marries a woman who is a taster (she is a TT or Tt since she has siblings that are non tasters). To have a higher percentage of non-tasters in her (the woman) family, it means, one of the parent is heterozygous for the trait and the other is homozygous recessive for the trait. Thus, the taster woman will be an heterozygote.
Now the taster man that is heterozygous for the trait marries this heterozygote woman, the chances of producing children that will be nontasters is 1/4.
Answer:
1/4 or 25%
Explanation:
A man who is a taster and has a non taster mother is heterozygous and will have the genotype Tt.
A woman who is a taster will have the genotype Tt or TT. However, the woman has 5 siblings out of which 3 are non-tasters. It means that her parent had 6 children out of which 3 are tasters and 3 are non-tasters (1:1).
A 1:1 result is usually from a cross involving one homozygous non-taster and one heterozygous taster. Hence;
Tt x tt = Tt, Tt, tt and tt
It thus means that the taster woman is heterozygous with genotype Tt.
A marriage between Tt and Tt:
Tt x Tt = TT, 2Tt and tt
Recall that the trait is is a dominant one, hence TT and Tt are tasters while tt is a non-taster.
The chances of the children being a non-taster therefore is 1/4 or 25%.
What is a function if the backbone in animals?
A.it protects against predators
B. It regulated blood glucose
C. It surronds the spinal cord
D. It limits movements
Answer:
The answer is C hope this helps+
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Don't forget that the human skeleton or backbone protects delicate organ such as the heart and lungs, which are protected by the ribs. It also protects structures such as the spinal cord, which is protected by the vertebral column.
suppose a male organism has a diploid chromosome number of 6. These chromosomes could be represented as A,a, B, b, C, and c where uppoer and lower cases (capital and small) of the same letter are homologous to one another. The karyotype (chromosome consititution) of this organism could then be designated as AaBbCc.
a. How would you universally describe a haploid set of chromosomes in this organism in terms of these letters (universal means one description fits all possible cases)?
b. List the eight different combinations of these chromosomes that could possibly be produced by spermatogenesis in this male.
Answer:
A. The haploid set of n is ABC
B. ABC, ABc, AbC, aBC, abc, abC, aBc, Abc.
Explanation:
A diploid cell is a cell that comprises of two complete sets of chromosomes. This is double the haploid chromosome number. Each pair of chromosomes in a diploid cell is noted to be a homologous chromosome set. A homologous chromosome pair consists of one chromosome donated from one parent and one from the other parent. This number is represented as 2n. It varies in different organisms. A diploid cell replicates via mitosis. It preserves its diploid chromosome number by making an identical copy of its chromosomes and distributing its DNA in an equal manner between two daughter cells.
Haploid refers to a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes. Gametes are made up of half the chromosomes contained in normal diploid cells of the body, these are also known as somatic cells. Haploid gametes are produced during meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in a parent diploid cell by half.
Therefore,
Karyotype of this organism is designated as AaBbCc.
AaBbCc is the diploid set (2n).
Hence ABC or abc are the haploid set (n).
B. The eight different combinations of these chromosomes that could possibly be produced by spermatogenesis in this male are:
ABC, ABc, AbC, aBC, abc, abC, aBc, Abc.
You decide to designate the alleles of the four loci as either additive (contributing to fruit segment number and represented by a superscript "+") or non-additive (not contributing to fruit segment number and represented by a superscript "0"). Using this convention, choose the correct genotype for the two pure lines and the F1, and indicate how many additive alleles each genotype has.
Answer:
The correct genotype of the two pure lines and the F1 is:
A⁺A⁺B⁰B⁰C⁰C⁰D⁰D⁰ and A⁰A⁰B⁺B⁺C⁺C⁺D⁺D⁺
The number of additive alleles on each genotype are two and six respectively.
Explanation:
Locus( plural form . loci) are fixed point on a chromosome in which genes are located. These genes are specific genetic material or genotype.
Now;
If we decide to designate the allele of the four loci into either additive (⁺) or non-additive(⁰); we have the following :
Let's the allele of the four loci to be
A⁺/A⁰, B⁺/B⁰, C⁺/C⁰ and D⁺/D⁰
However, from the diagram below; we deduce that the correct genotype for the two pure lines and the F1 is as follows:
A⁺A⁺B⁰B⁰C⁰C⁰D⁰D⁰ and A⁰A⁰B⁺B⁺C⁺C⁺D⁺D⁺ and the number of additive alleles on each genotype are two and six respectively.
The cross between both F1 traits will yield an heterozygous individual for the offspring. i.e A⁺A⁰B⁺B⁰C⁺C⁰D⁺D⁰ with only four additive allele
The two pure line genotypes are ++++ and 0000 respectively, with four and zero additive alleles. In the F1 generation, the genotype will be +0+0, indicating individuals possess two additive alleles.
Explanation:Let's consider two pure lines: one with additive alleles on all four loci (++++), and another with non-additive alleles on all four loci (0000). Thus, the first genotype (++++) has 4 additive alleles, and the second genotype (0000) has zero. If these two lines are crossed, in the F1 generation, every individual will inherit two additive alleles from the first parent and two non-additive alleles from the second, leading to a +0+0 genotype. Therefore, the F1 genotype will have 2 additive alleles.
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Why is it important to classily living organisms?
The DNA of organisms may be more easily analyzed
Organisms may survive longer if they are classified
Scientists may study and discuss organisms more easily
Classifying is needed before scientists may make observations
Answer:
Scientists may study and discuss organisms more easily
Explanation:
Yes that's the point!
Answer:
Its C
Explanation:
I did the quiz!!
A large asteroid impact occurs, kicking up dust that blocks the sun and prevents plants from photosynthesizing.
What would most likely happen as a result of the asteroid impact? Check all that apply.
More earthquakes will occur across the planet.
Some plants will evolve to use dust as a source of food.
Many plants will die without sunlight for photosynthesis.
Some animals will adapt over time to survive in new conditions.
Many species will eventually die off because they lack a food source.
Answer:
- many plants will die w/out sunlight
- some animals will adapt over time
- many species will eventually die off
Answer:
3,4 and 5
Explanation:)
How can the atmosphere be considered part of the hydrosphere?
it is a source of water
it blocks Ultraviolet rays from the sun
it contains oxygen necessary for life on earth *******
it traps pollutants that would otherwise harm the earth
7th grade science
Answer:
It is a source of water
Explanation:
water vapor could be considered part of the atmosphere as well as part of the hydrosphere: Water vapor is considered part of the hydrosphere because it's water.
The atmosphere should be considered part of the hydrosphere because it is the source of water.
What is water vapor?It refers to the gaseous phase of water. It should be considered as the one state of the water that lies within the hydrosphere. It could be generated from the evaporation or boiling the liquid water. Moreover, the water vapor should be the part of both the hydrosphere and atmosphere. Also it should be the part of hydrosphere since it is the water.
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1. You are conducting some in vitro splicing reactions with three different RNAs (A, B, and C) that each have a single intron. The exons in each case are identical in size (although the sequences could be different). One RNA has a group I intron, another has a group II intron, and the third has a spliceosomal intron. You incubate each RNA in conditions that allow self-splicing [(-) lanes below] as well as with a nuclear extract/splicing extract. After incubation, you observe the products by denaturing PAGE and autoradiography (your RNAs were radioloabeled). Which RNA has which intron
Answer:
Explanation:
1. There are six lanes in total out of which three are being showing self-splicing activity and the remaining three are being provided with splicing enzymes. As can be seen in case of RNA A, in the absence of a nuclear extract or when no splicing enzymes are added, there would be no splicing which can be reflected in lane 1 showing formation of only a single band which indicates that splicing does not occur on its own, although when the nuclear extract containing the splicing enzyme, there will be separation of the exons and the introns leading to the formation of two bands. So, the first two lanes specific for RNA A will be having a Spliceosomal Intron.
2. Now the task remains to identify which out of the remaining RNA's will be either Group I or Group II introns. There is no data regarding the addition of Guanosine nucleotide which is usually required in case of Group 1 splicing. Now, as we know that the splicing mechanism in case of Group II and spliceosomal intron is similar being carried out in a way in which an Adenine which is located in the branch site shows binding to the 5'- splice site which shows a similar conformational change for both the groups of introns. So, the Ribosome 2 which will act as a ribozyme and specifies lane 3 and 4 should be Group II intron and thus the last two lanes namely 5 and 6 will specify Group I intron.
22. An entomologist breeds 500 insects for research and
observes that 125 of the insects have red wings and 250 of
the insects have long antennae. In this insect population,
what is the probability of an insect having red wings and
long antennae?
Answer:
6
Explanation:
Which of the following plants would most likely be found in the desert?
A.
a tree that has smooth bark so that water runs off of it more easily
B.
a vine that climbs on top of other plants in order to gain access to sunlight
C.
a plant that has a reduced number of stomata in its leaves
D.
a plant with a shallow root system to capture the soil's top layer nutrients
A lion eating a zebra is an example of which characteristics of life
Answer:
the answer is useing energy
Explanation:
the answer is useing energy bc a lion is a natural enemy of zebras. lions are very fast running animals so by running at extremely high speed,they preform hunting of zebra. by doing so,they utilize energy in getting their prey which is there meal. hope this helps!!:)
A lion eating a zebra exemplifies the characteristics of life, including nutrition, growth, response to stimuli, reproduction, homeostasis, and the role of evolution in adaptation to its environment.
The act of a lion eating a zebra exemplifies several key characteristics of life, primarily pertaining to the lion as an organism:
1. Nutrition: The lion obtains nourishment by consuming the zebra, demonstrating its ability to ingest and digest food.
2. Growth and Development: The lion's body will process the zebra's nutrients, contributing to its own growth and maintenance, a fundamental aspect of life.
3. Response to Stimuli: The lion's predatory behavior, hunting, and eating are responses to stimuli such as hunger and the presence of prey.
4. Reproduction: While not directly observed in this scenario, the lion's capacity to reproduce is a vital aspect of its life cycle.
5. Homeostasis: After eating, the lion must maintain internal balance (homeostasis) in terms of temperature, blood sugar, and other physiological factors.
6. Evolution: Over generations, the lion's predatory traits and behaviors may evolve in response to environmental pressures and changes in prey availability, highlighting the role of evolution in life.
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The complete question is:
A lion eating a zebra is an example of which characteristics of life what?
If someone nearby has a runny nose, can they spread their snot to you just by being close? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes, if the touch their snot and touch you or an object you touch. They can also sneeze their existing snot at you if they didn't wipe it.
Yes, someone with a runny nose can spread their snot to you just by being close. The common cold, which often causes a runny nose, is typically caused by viruses like rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. These viruses can be transmitted through direct contact and droplet transmission, such as when an infected person coughs or sneezes and produces infectious aerosols.
Explanation:Yes, someone with a runny nose can spread their snot to you just by being close. The common cold, which often causes a runny nose, is typically caused by viruses like rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. These viruses can be transmitted through direct contact and droplet transmission, such as when an infected person coughs or sneezes and produces infectious aerosols.
When an infected person coughs or sneezes, mucus droplets are released into the air. These droplets can remain suspended in the air for some time and travel considerable distances. If you are close to the infected person, you can breathe in these droplets or they can land on surfaces that you touch, leading to potential transmission.
To minimize the risk of transmission, it is important to practice good respiratory hygiene, such as covering your mouth and nose with a tissue or your elbow when coughing or sneezing, and regularly washing your hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer.
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When a Chinese hamster with white spots is crossed with another hamster that has no spots, approximately 1/2 of the offspring have white spots and ½ have no spots. When two hamsters with white spots are crossed, 2/3 of the offspring possess white spots and 1/3 have no spots.What is the genetic basis of white spotting in Chinese hamsters?Is it possible to produce Chinese hamsters that breed true for white spotting? Why or why not?
Answer:
A) One of the genotype i.e true breed white is lethal
B) No
Explanation:
A) Two hamsters with white spots are crossed, 2/3 of the offspring possess white spots and 1/3 has no spots.
This means that the two white hamsters would be carrier for the trait of no spot.
The ratio for offspring signifies that one of the offspring dies because of lethal genotype.
B) No, because the true breed for white spotting is lethal.
However, heterozygous white spotting can be detected.
The genetic basis of white spotting in Chinese hamsters is a simple Mendelian pattern of inheritance involving a single gene with two alleles. It is not possible to produce Chinese hamsters that breed true for white spotting unless both parents are homozygous for the allele.
Explanation:The genetic basis of white spotting in Chinese hamsters is a simple Mendelian pattern of inheritance involving a single gene with two alleles. The allele for white spotting (W) is dominant over the allele for no spots (w). When a Chinese hamster with white spots (Ww) is crossed with a hamster without spots (ww), approximately half of the offspring will have white spots (Ww) and half will have no spots (ww). When two hamsters with white spots (Ww) are crossed, two-thirds of the offspring will have white spots (Ww) and one-third will have no spots (ww).
The possibility of producing Chinese hamsters that breed true for white spotting depends on the genotype of the parents. If both parents are homozygous for the allele for white spotting (WW), then all of their offspring will also have white spots and they will breed true. However, if one or both of the parents are heterozygous for white spotting (Ww), there is a chance that some of their offspring will not have white spots. Therefore, it is not possible to produce Chinese hamsters that breed true for white spotting unless both parents are homozygous for the allele.
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What must be added to the plate before examination of amylase production?
Gram's iodine reagent must be added to the plate before examination of amylase production.
Explanation:
The starch hydrolysis test is conducted to test the presence of the enzyme amylase in the test medium.
These are confirmatory lab tests done to detect and identify the presence of bacteria which can hydrolyze starch like amylose with the help of enzymes like amylase.
The test medium for this test is agar medium in a petri dish, where soluble starch is first added to initiate the microbial growth. Once incubation period of the microbes is over, dilute iodine solution is added to the petri dish in increased quantity. Iodine is a dye which helps to clearly identify the areas which are hydrolyzed by amylase and those which are not with the help of its color.
four parts of a flowering plants and it's function
Answer:
Although all flowers are different, they have several things in common that make up their basic anatomy. The four main parts of a flower are the petals, sepals, stamen, and carpel (sometimes known as a pistil). If a flower has all four of these key parts, it is considered to be a complete flower.
Explanation:
(Hope you have a good day. Stay Safe!)
DNA can be found in all cells EXCEPT which of the following?
Answer:
mature red blood cells/erythrocytes
Explanation:
Contrary to legend, camels do not store water in their humps, which actually consist of large fat deposits. How can these fat deposits serve as a source of water? Calculate the amount of water (in liters) that a camel can produce from 1.0 kg of fat.Assume for simplicity that the fat consists entirely of tripalmitoylglycerol.
Answer:
A) Oxidation of fats releases metabolic water
B) [tex]1.54[/tex] L of water per kg of tripalmitoylglycerol
Explanation:
A) During the oxidation of organic substances (fats) releases metabolic water along with release of energy
For example –
Oxidation of one mole of Palmitic acid (C16H32O7) acid releases 146 mole of H2O. In Tripalmitoylglycerol (fat C51H98O6) , there are 3 palmitic acid residues connected to glycerol molecule via ester bonds.
Oxidation of Palmitoyl CoA:
almitoyl-CoA + 23O2 + 108Pi + 108 ADP => 88nCoA + 108 ATP + 16CO2 + 23 H2O
B)
Molecular weight of tripalmitate [tex]= 807[/tex] g/mol
Number of moles in one Kg of fat
[tex]= \frac{1000}{807}\\[/tex]
[tex]= 1.24[/tex] mole
Mass of water
[tex]1.24 * 69 * 18.02[/tex] ([tex]69[/tex] moles of water and weight of water [tex]= 18[/tex] grams)
[tex]= 1541.8[/tex] grams
Density of water [tex]= 1[/tex] g/mL
Volume of water [tex]= 1.541[/tex] L
Camels do not store water in their humps, but the humps store fat which is metabolized to water and carbon dioxide through oxidation. This provides hydration to the camel. For instance, 1.0kg of fat can produce about 1.1 liters of water.
Explanation:When a camel's body uses these fat deposits for nutrition during periods without food, a reaction called oxidation happens. Oxidation of fat is a metabolic process in which the fat molecules are broken down into carbon dioxide and water using the oxygen that animals breathe in. If we consider that the complete oxidation of 1 gram of fat releases about 1.1 grams of water, then 1.0 kg (or 1000 grams) of fat can produce about 1100 grams of water. Because the density of water is 1 gram per milliliter, these 1100 grams are equivalent to approximately 1.1 liters of water.
Therefore, camels can stay hydrated for longer periods in the desert because of the water produced by the oxidation of their fat stores.
To summarize, though camels don't store water in their humps, the fat stored there can be metabolically converted to water in their bodies, helping them survive in harsh desert conditions.
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If we cross Surface fish (have eyes and are not albino) with fish from Cave Scarlet, the F1 progeny have eyes and are not albino. If we backcross these F1 Surface/Scarlet hybrids to Scarlet cavefish, 50% of the progeny are albino and 50% are not albino. In terms of the eye phenotype, there is a broad range of eye phenotypes extending from no eyes like the original Scarlet population to complete eyes like surface fish (with varying degrees of eye formation in between
Answer:
More than one gene is controlling the loss train of that eye. Thus, the Cross among the scarlet and grey species, F1 crossover has fractional eyes. Despite the fact that both sort of cavern fishes are visually impaired, yet cross between them has brought about offspring with fractional eyes. This shows multi-gene legacy for eye misfortune attribute. Blending of two genotypes has brought about incomplete characteristic in the descendants.
Which of the following grows directly for a plants stem?
1. Overate leaves
2. Palmate leaves
3. Petiole leaves
4. Sessile leaves
During the cross-bridge cycle in muscle cells, myosin motors hydrolyze ATP as fuel to create a pulling force on actin fibers. Please describe how the different states of ATP hydrolysis correspond to different interactions between myosin and actin to drive this cycle.
Answer and Explanation:
In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When the muscle fiber membrane depolarizes, the action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane and releases calcium into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin heads bind to the uncovered actin-binding sites forming cross-bridges, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate which is released. Myofilaments slide impulsed by chemical energy collected in myosin heads, producing a power stroke. The power stroke initiates when the myosin cross-bridge binds to actin. As they slide, ADP molecules are released. A new ATP links to myosin heads and breaks the bindings to the actin filament. Then ATP splits into ADP and phosphate, and the energy produced is accumulated in the myosin heads, which starts a new binding cycle to actin. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
4. A population of water snakes is found on an island in Lake Erie. Some of the snakes are banded and some are unbanded; the banding phenotype is autosomal recessive. The frequency of banded snakes on the island is 0.4. There are 500 total snakes on the island. How many snakes are heterozygous for the banding allele
Answer:
233 snakes are heterozygous for the banding allele
Explanation:
According to Hardy-Weinberg, the allelic frequencies in a locus are represented as p and q, referring to the alleles. The genotypic frequencies after one generation are p² (Homozygous for allele p), 2pq (Heterozygous), q² (Homozygous for the allele q). Populations in H-W equilibrium will get the same allelic frequencies generation after generation. The sum of these allelic frequencies equals 1, this is p + q = 1.
In the exposed example,
The banding phenotype is autosomal recessive, bbThe frequency of banded snakes on the island is 0.4There are 500 total snakes on the islandHow many snakes are heterozygous for the banding allele?
The frequency of banded snakes refers to the genotypic frequency for the trait, which is bb= q2= 0.4.
If q2= 0.4, then q = √0.4 = 0.63
The allelic frequency for b is 0.63.
This means that the allelic frequency for B or p is 0.37, which we deduce by clearing the equation p + q = 1
p + 0.63 = 1
p = 1 - 0.63
p = 0.37
The allelic frequency of B is 0,37, and the allelic frequency for b is 0,63. The population heterozygote frequency for this allele is 2 x p x q = 2 x 0,37 x 0,63 = 0.466. The percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele is 46%.
As the population size is 500 individuals, then we can calculate how many of these snakes are heterozygous. This is: 0.466 x 500 = 233
The number of heterozygous water snakes for the banding allele on an island in Lake Erie is determined using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, which calculates genotype frequencies based on allele frequencies.
Explanation:The question asks for the number of water snakes that are heterozygous for the banding allele on an island in Lake Erie, given that the phenotype of banding is autosomal recessive and its frequency is 0.4 in a population of 500 snakes. To determine the number of heterozygous individuals, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle which assumes that allele frequencies in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the absence of other evolutionary influences. The Hardy-Weinberg formula is expressed as p² + 2pq + q² = 1, where p is the frequency of the dominant allele, q is the frequency of the recessive allele, p² represents the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals, 2pq represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals, and q² represents the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals. Since q² is given as 0.4 (the frequency of banded snakes), we can calculate q as the square root of 0.4, which is approximately 0.63. To calculate p, we use p = 1 - q, which would be approximately 0.37. Subsequently, the number of heterozygous individuals (2pq) can be calculated as 2 * 0.37 * 0.63, then multiplied by the total number of snakes (500) to give the final count of heterozygous snakes.
You isolate chromosomes from the salivary gland of an organism and prepare a glass slide of the chromosome preparation. When you look at the chromosomes on the slide, they can be seen to be extremely large and exhibit a distinct banding pattern. What name is used to describe these chromosomes?
Answer: the name used is polytene chromosomes.
Explanation:
Polytene chromosomes are produced when repeated rounds of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication without cell division forms a giant chromosome, they have thousand of DNA strands and provides high level of function in the salivary glands.
At interphase, polytene chromosomes are seen to have distinct thick and thin banding patterns, these bands are of 2 types, the dark band (dark stained,
contains more DNA and less RNA) and the interband (light stained, more RNA and less DNA). The bands enlarge and forms a swelling called puff in certain times, the puffing (which is the formation of puff) is caused by the uncoiling of individual chromomeres in a band. The puffs indicate the site of active genes where mRNA synthesis takes place. These distinct banding patterns are used to study the function of genes in transcription because they permit high level of gene expression.
Which are the major structures of the integumentary system? Select three options.
bones
hair
joints
muscles
nails
skin
tendons
Answer:
Correct options: Hair, Skin, and Nails.
Explanation:
Suppose you do the test on a hypothetical Staphyloccocus species with the antibiotics penicillin (P 10) and chloramphenicol (C 30). You record zone diameters of 25mm the chloramphenicol and penicillin disks. Which antibiotic would be more effective against this organism?what does this tell you about comparing zone diameters to each other and the importance of the zone diameter interpretive chart?
Answer:
In an antibiogram, the larger the inhibition halo, the more sensitive bacteria will be to the drug that is exposed, that is why if the halo is 25 mm, it is considered quite wide, so these drugs such as chloramphenicol and amoxicillin affect the bacterial development in marine culture both bactericidal or bacteriostatic.
Both have a 25mm halo, so both would be SAME as specified.
Explication:
suppose that one of the two drugs has a smaller inhibition halo in the culture, that drug will be less effective in treating this bacterium, therefore more would allow its development, on the contrary, the larger halo would be the most effective drug (This is an example for you to understand that the greater the length of the inhibition halo, the greater the efficacy of the drug, and the lower the halo, the less efficacy)
How gas exchange occurs when the circulatory and respiratory systems work together.?
Answer:chase the engine
Because of the engine
Explanation:
Answer:The two systems work together in several ways. First, the respiratory system brings oxygen in the air to the alveoli in the lungs. The circulatory system then delivers the oxygen to the cells. Second, the circulatory system picks up carbon dioxide from the cells and carries it to the lungs, where it is released when we exhale.
Explanation:its the sample writing.