Answer:
Its an abnormal rhythm of the heart at a rate greater than 100 beats per minute
Explanation:
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a type of heart rate disorder where there is abnormal electrical activity causing the heart to beat faster while maintaining multiple patterns. It disrupts the heart's function, making it less effective at pumping blood. Treatment options include defibrillators, medication, and possibly surgery.
Explanation:Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a form of ventricular tachycardia, a condition where the heart beats at a fast rate because of abnormal electrical activity. Such a state prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood which can lead to significant complications, up to and including brain death if left untreated. Ventricular tachycardia is regarded as a medical emergency, often addressed as "code blue" in a hospital setting.
In the case of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, the electrical variations seen on an Electrocardiogram (ECG) have multiple different forms. That's why it is called "polymorphic". This condition can make the heart even more susceptible to disturbances and pump blood less efficiently.
Treatments vary, but the use of defibrillators, devices that apply an electrical charge to the heart to establish a normal rhythm, is common. This treatment effectively stops the heart so that it can reestablish a normal conduction cycle. Other potential treatments, depending on the cause, may include medications, implantable cardioverter defibrillators, ablation, or surgery.
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The MOST common metallic ligating clips are made of which of the following materials?
A. chromium
B. aluminum
C. titanium
D. silver
Answer: Titanium
Explanation:
Titanium is used as the most commonly and widely used material as metallic ligating clips because they have more durability, malleability than other materials.
This properly helps the metal to bend and form clip. It is also used because of its least reactivity and does not gets corrode easily.
It is highly biocompatible as it does not releases ions around the surrounding tissues and organs.
Because of all the above reasons, titanium is used for making metallic ligating clips.
How can the use of the nurse's personal communication device(s) impact patient care positively and/or negatively? What are the ethical and legal implications? What does the professional literature say about how communication devices can support safe nursing practice?
Answer:
To begin with, a nurse´s private life, symbolized in the use of her private communication devices, should be separate from her professional field. In essence, unless absolutely necessary, a nurse should not carry with her communication devices that are personal, as her time of work, is the time that must be reserved to give the best nursing care possible.
The use of communication devices, such as cellphones, can have both negative and positive impact on nursing care. But mostly, negative. On the plus side, a nurse who carries a cellphone can easily access necessary information that might help her in her care. But that would be the extent of it. On the negative side, there are many issues involved. First, a nurse handles a lot of private information on her patients, and the use of personal devices is a way to infringe on that. She might make the mistake of informing someone outside about a patient´s situation, and that would be a violation of all the rights of patients. Second, hyginie. Usually cellphones are a huge medium to transport pathogens, and very few nurses realize this. So it can also become a source of infection. Third, a nurse´s attention will not be fully given to her patients, to her care, but it will be split between her professional, and personal, worlds, increasing the risk of making mistakes in her care.
This is why, even from the time of nursing school, nurses are told that these devices can be used for good, as long as they are placed in certain spots specifically designed, such as lunch rooms, or staff lounges. They can be used as a means for consultation, or getting in contact with people from their own work, if necessary, but they must not be carried around, and definitely should not be consulted outside of the resting time alloted to them.
What is AIDS caused by?
A. a virus
B. a bacterium
C. mosquito bites
D. a mutation on a cell’s receptor site
Answer:
The answer is A: virus
Explanation:
AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is caused by the late-stage HIV virus; as a manifestation of the patient's great immune compromise, which is practically without defense to resist any infectious attack on the organism.
If a mass casualty event occurs involving a nuclear power plant accident, along with burns and open wounds, most victims and their clothing will be contaminated with:
A. infectious organisms.
B. ionizing radiation.
C. biological agents
D. chemical agents
Answer: Option b
Explanation:
If nuclear power plant accident takes place then most of the people get affected by this mass exposure.
This exposure affects mass of population, with burns, wounds and ionizing radiation. Ionizing radiation can be defined as the radiation that is caused due to different types of particles like gamma, alpha, beta particles.
These particles have the ability to penetrate inside the body and cause mutation. Many other genetic deformities can also be encountered with expose to ionizing radiation.
hence, the correct answer is option B
In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, the contracted lacks which structures/components, while they are present in the relaxed sarcomere.
Where 1. A-band 2. I-band 3. Z discs 4. H-zone 5. M-line
A. 1 & 2
B. 3 & 4
C. 3, 4 & 5
D) 1 & 4
E) 2 & 4
Answer:
The correct answer will be option E- 2 & 4.
Explanation:
The sarcomere is a segment made up of thick and thin filaments between the two Z-lines or disc of a myofibril.
Sarcomere structurally can be divided into bands:
A-band- which is also known as the anisotropic filament is made up of thick filaments called myosin. H-zone- the zone in the A-band which appears lighter in color in the microscope I-band- an isotropic band made of thin filament called actin.Upon contraction of muscle, these filaments form an overlapped structure due to which I-band shortens along with H-zone of A- band. Due to the shortening of these bands, only A-band without H-zone and I-band appears between two A-lines. These bands upon relaxation again take their normal form.
Thus, option E- 2 & 4 is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The I-band and H-zone are the structures that are reduced or no longer apparent in a contracted sarcomere when compared to a relaxed sarcomere; the A-band stays the same length during contraction. So the correct option is E.
Explanation:
In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, specific structures are altered. In a relaxed sarcomere, all bands and zones are visible and at their maximum lengths. During contraction, certain regions shorten while others remain unchanged. In a contracted sarcomere, the I-band and the H-zone are the structures/components that are reduced or no longer apparent.
The I-band consists only of thin filaments and spans the distance between adjacent thick filaments. The H-zone is the central region of the A-band where only thick filaments are present. As contraction occurs, thin filaments slide towards the M-line, diminishing the H-zone and pulling Z-discs closer together, thereby reducing the I-band. However, the A-band, which contains both thin and thick filaments, remains the same length even during muscle contraction.
Saltatory conduction:
a. can occur in unmyelinated axons
b. happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
c. encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain.
d. occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
e. occurs only in myelinated axons
Answer:
Saltatory conduction:
( e ) occurs only in myelinated axons
Explanation:
Saltatory Conduction -
The propagatory action of the potentials along the myelinated axons via one node of Ranvier to next node by increasing the conduction velocity of the action potentials is called the Saltatory Conduction .
The nodes of Ranvier that are uninsulated are the places in axon , which are responsible for the exchange of ions across the axon membrane and further regenerating the action potential between the axon which is insulated by myelin .
Saltatory conduction is the rapid transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated axons. It occurs due to the insulation provided by the myelin sheath and the jumping of action potentials between nodes of Ranvier.
Explanation:Saltatory conduction refers to the rapid transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated axons. It occurs because the myelin sheath insulates the axon and allows the action potential to jump from one node of Ranvier to the next, skipping the non-myelinated regions. This process greatly speeds up the conduction of nerve impulses.
In saltatory conduction, the voltage-gated Na+ channels are not evenly distributed along the axon. Instead, they are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier. These nodes are the areas between the myelin sheaths where the axon is exposed.
Therefore, the correct answer is e. occurs only in myelinated axons.
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Duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine. It is approximately 25 centimeters (10 inches) in length. It receives chyme from the stomach through the _________ valve.
Answer:
The answer is pylorus
Explanation:
The pylorus is the valve located between the lower part of the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum.
Neurons are termed:
a. efferent if they conduct impulses toward the cell body
b. afferent if they conduct impulses toward the CNS
c. afferent if they conduct impulses away from the CNS
d. efferent if the conduct impulses toward the CNS
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
Neurons are the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. Based on the transmission of nerve impulse these neurons can be divided into two divisions :
1. Afferent neurons: Neurons which transmit the impulse from the periphery to CNS- brain or spinal cord. Sensory neurons are such neurons which carry the impulse of stimulus to CNS.
2. Efferent neurons: Neurons which transmit the signals from the CNS to the periphery or muscle which causes voluntary action. Motor neurons are considered efferent neurons.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
Blood flow to a tissue will decrease if the:
a. metarterioles dilate.
b. level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases.
c. pH falls.
d. precapillary sphincters relax.
e. level of oxygen at the tissue increases.
Answer: D) precapillary sphincters relax.
Explanation:
Blood flow to a tissue will decrease if precapillary sphincters relax as, capillaries provides glucose and oxygen to the cells and allows blood to flow through it when the muscle ring known as the precapillary Sphincters get relaxed. The blood flow is stopped when the precapillary sphincters constrict flow of blood. As, certain chemical signals causes feeder arterioles to dilate and bring more blood into local areas then, it causes precapillary sphincters to relax.
Blood flow to a tissue decreases if the level of oxygen at the tissue increases, as this signals that the tissue's oxygen needs have been met. On the other hand, conditions such as the dilation of metarterioles, relaxation of precapillary sphincters, increase in CO2 levels, or pH drop generally lead to an increase in blood flow, reflecting higher tissue activity.
Explanation:The blood flow to a tissue will decrease if the level of oxygen at the tissue increases (option e). This situation is contingent on the body's feedback mechanism that regulates the blood supply in relation to tissue needs. When a tissue's demand for oxygen is satisfied, or when the level of oxygen in the tissue increases, the body tends to reduce the blood flow to that particular area until the requirement rises again.
This way, blood and oxygen can be efficiently distributed to other areas where they may be needed more urgently. On the contrary, options a, b, c, and d describe conditions that typically trigger an increase in blood flow.
Dilation of metarterioles and relaxation of precapillary sphincters both promote the advancement of blood into the capillaries. Increased levels of carbon dioxide, the product of tissue metabolism, and a drop in pH, which often accompanies this, signal a high metabolic activity, hence requiring an enhanced blood supply.
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Infectious mononucleosis is caused by?
a) HSV-1
b) HSV-2
c) EBV
d) CMV
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:___, would be: C: EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus 4, of the same family of the herpes virus.
Explanation:
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as Mono, is an infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, from the herpes virus family. This illness is also called glandular fever, as usually, especially in children, which is the usual time when people are affected by the EBV, there is an enlargement of the lymphatic nodes in the throat, which means the throat looks swollen, there is fever, tiredness, and some times, the spleen and liver can also be attacked and affected. It usually resolves by itself, there is no vaccination available for it and treatment is exclusive for pain and fever.
As a practicing nurse, how do you establish a therapeutic relationship? A positive environment for an initial assessment? Any differences for an assessment of an infant that you would make?
Answer:
As a practicing nurse, the establishment of therapeutic relationships with patients is really important, because it will ensure a positive interaction between the professional and object of care, as well as success in the endeavours from both to achieve the goals of care.
As such, there are several steps that can be taken to ensure that this environment is positive. The first is the attitude with which the nurse establishes raport. The nurse must show a positive, and professional attitude, be polite and nice with the patient, speak to them using words that are clear and appropriate to the age, and educational level of the patient and their family, explain her/his purposes with a set program of care, or a procedure, and always be available and ready to answer the questions that are pertinent to the patient´s care. It is also important for the nurse to show the patient that any and all information received during care will remain strictly confidential. THe initial relation can be established through greeting, introduction of the nurse to the patient and their family if available, explanation of the purpose of the nursing plan the nurse will carry out, and constant readiness to listen atentively to the patient and their family. This, if done during the initial assessment, attentive listening, explanation, and oppenness, as well as showing a professional, yet not unreachable stance, will ensure a good initiation of therapeutic relationship.
In children, there is something also very important. Nurses must always remember to treat the pediatric patient as a participant in care, not simply the object of care. Children, especially at a certain age, will show more reluctance to allow a nurse near if they fear, or are uncertain, of what will happen. Also, vocabulary, actions and attitude must be appropriate for the age of the child. Finally, the nurse must count with the help, or engage the participation, of the parents, or guardians, of the child. They will be vital to establish raport and a positive caring environment.
Explain the importance of knowing Heimlich Maneuver.
Answer:
The technique is called the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts. Abdominal thrusts lift your diaphragm and expel air from your lungs. This causes the foreign object to be expelled from your airway. And The Heimlich maneuver is a lifesaving first aid technique. It is preformed when someone is choking and unable to breathe. The maneuver consists of a person wrapping their arms around the other, using the technique to thrust a piece of food or foreign object out of their throat.In order to show others that you are chocking, hold your hands around your throat. Make sure to educate your family and friends about this signal. It is important that they know what to do if they are chocking and it is important for them to know what to look for if someone else is chocking.
Explanation:
Where do you have smooth muscle fibers and where do you have collagen fibers?
Answer:
The smooth muscle is made up of a group of spindle-shaped cells, they do not have transverse striations, they are also known as non-wills and they will be found in the esophagus, intestine, stomach, uterus, blood vessels.
Collagen fibers are protein molecules that form fibers produced by connective tissue cells. They are found in 25% forming the skin and bones.
Smooth muscle fibers are found in the walls of hollow organs and passageways, while collagen fibers are present throughout the body.
Explanation:Smooth muscle fibers are found throughout various parts of the body, usually in the walls of hollow organs and passages such as the intestines, stomach, urinary bladder, respiratory tract, blood vessels and the iris of the eyes. These cells do not have striations, have a single nucleus, and are tapered at both ends. They are not under voluntary control, thus referred to as involuntary muscles.
On the other hand, collagen fibers are mainly located in the connective tissues of the body. Collagen is key in providing structural support and is abundant in the skin, ligaments, tendons, and bones. It is the primary component of the extracellular matrix and provides the tissue with strength and flexibility.
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Describe the components and functions of the three lines of immune defense.
Answer and Explanation :
Three lines of immune systems are
ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY : It comes into action when first and second line of defense are not working or in other word fail in their workspecific response in this adaptive immunity this is the third
line of defense effector T cells and B cells
INNATE IMMUNITY : it come into into action when first line of defense fail to do his workits components are
organ lymph nodes ,tonsils,
BARRIERS AT BODY SURFACE : The barriers are used for the protection of body from infection there are mainly two types of infection physical infection and chemical infection these include skin, stomach tear etc
The immune system's three lines of defense consist of physical and chemical barriers for the first line, non-specific responses like inflammation and phagocytosis for the second, and the adaptive immune response involving lymphocytes and antibodies for the third line, all of which protect the body against pathogens.
Explanation:The immune system's three lines of defense work together to protect the body from pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers like the skin, mucous membranes, and secretions like saliva and stomach acid which block or destroy incoming pathogens. The second line of defense consists of non-specific responses, including inflammatory responses, fever, and phagocytic cells like white blood cells that engulf and destroy invaders.
The third line of defense involves the lymphatic system and is known as the immune response. This specific adaptive immune response involves lymphocytes, like T-cells and B-cells, that can recognize and remember specific pathogens for a more rapid and stronger reaction in future encounters. This system also includes the production of antibodies tailored to neutralize or destroy specific antigens, and the ability of immune memory to provide protection against future infections by the same pathogen.
Overall, these three lines of defense work like a fortress with multiple layers of protection, ensuring that only pathogens that can breach all barriers pose a significant threat to the body. The immune system's adaptability and complexity are vital for survival in a world full of potentially harmful microbes.
Which of the following is/are NOT considered a pathogen? Select ALL that apply
a) athlete's foot fungus
b) cancer
c) chicken pox virus
d) hookworm intestinal parasite
e) meningococcus bacterium
f) pollen
Answer: b) cancer
Explanation:
A pathogen is an biological agent which is capable of invading the body of living beings and harm them by causing infection. Cancer and pollen cannot be considered as pathogens.
Cancer is a condition in which the cells of the body divide uncontrollably in an abnormal fashion. Due to this tumor of abnormal cells develop and these cells makes the immune system of the body weak. These infectious cells make the immune system weak and prove to be fatal.
Define and compare the process of external respiration and internal respiration.
Answer:
External respiration:
External respiration may be defined as the process of exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the body and external environment. This is a mechanical process and may or may not require ATP. Only gases are exchanged in the external respiration process. This process may be voluntary or involuntary in nature.
Internal respiration:
Internal respiration may be defined as the process of diffusion of oxygen from blood into the interstitial fluid and carbon from the interstitial fluid into the blood. This is a chemical process that requires ATP. Nutrients are broken down into smaller substances and ATP is produced during this process. Internal respiration is an involuntary process.
You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You respond: a.“Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the wordsfrom both languages until about 3 years of age.” b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.” c.“Stop speaking English at home to avoid confusion. She can always learn Englishoutside the home.” d.“The child may confuse the words now, but that will change by second grade.”
Hi !
You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages.
b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.”
Where does systemic venous blood enter the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
Answer:
C. Right atrium
Explanation:
The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through superior and inferior vena cava. The right atrium contracts and the blood is passed from the atrium to the right ventricle which later contracts and sends blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to reoxygenate.
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) Skeletal muscle : striated
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
c) Cardiac muscle : striated
d) Smooth muscle : involuntary
Answer:
B) Cardiac muscle: voluntary
Explanation:
As we know the skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary and smooth muscle is involuntary. The muscle cardiac has a different classification it is striated but involuntary. The contraction is different from the skeletal muscle this is thanks to the action potential dilivered in the muscular cells of the heart because of the sodium and calcium levels. The sodium is rises very fast but is decrease in the same way and the calcium is in a sustained level that allows the action potential.
Answer:
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
Explanation:
What is the Icd 10 code for gastroesophageal reflux disease?
The site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is:
a. seminal vesicles
b. seminiferous tubules
c. epididymus
d. glans penis
e. sperm bank
b. seminiferous tubules
The site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is epididymis. So, the correct option is (C).
What are Sperm cells?Sperm is defined as the male reproductive cell or gamete in the heterozygous forms of sexual reproduction. Animals which produce motile spermatozoa (sperm) with a tail is known as a flagellum while some red algae and fungi produce non-motile sperm cells which is known as spermatia.
The function of a sperm cell is to be released during sexual intercourse which meets an ovum which is the egg cell is biologically produced by the female body. Once they unite, the sperm will penetrate and fertilize the egg to create new genetic material.
At the top of each testicle is the epididymis, which is a cord-like structure where sperm mature and are stored.
Thus, the site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is epididymis. So, the correct option is (C).
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An increase in afterload will result in a(n) ________
a. decrease in heart rate.
b. increase in heart rate.
c. decrease in stroke volume.
d. increase in cardiac output.
e. increase in stroke volume
Answer:
i think: c. but, not question on this answer????
Explanation:
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Afterload is defined as the pressure exerted by the heart that work against to eject blood during systole or ventricular contraction.
Afterload is said as proportional to the average arterial pressure. when systemic vascular resistance and aortic pressure are increased, that results increase in afterload by ventricular dilation and by aortic valve stenosis. As a result in the increased afterload, there is an increase in end-systolic volume and a decrease in stroke volume.
Hence, the correct option is C.
The term capacitance vessel refers to:
a. the mechanism by which blood can bypass a capillary plexus
b. blood vessels specifically adapted to adjust the surrounding temperature
c. the blood storage function of veins
d. large arteries that have the ability to stretch
Answer:
The answer is C: the blood storage function of veins
Explanation:
Capacitance vessels are venous vessels capable of storing up to 70% of circulating blood.
The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is? What should the athlete wear when he/she returns?
The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is to wrap your thigh with a wet bandage to insulate skin. This is important because, you could become more injured if you didn't do proper steps to the healing process.
Why cannot we domain the peristalsis when a diarrheal condition is present?
Answer:
Peristalsis is defined as the involuntary movement which involves contraction and relaxation of muscles present in the digestive tract originates from the esophagus.
In diarrheal condition the Peristalsis movement does not take place properly as it is not a voluntary muscle movement so it can not be controlled consciously. it is important to digestion but, in case of diarrhea or constipation something goes haywire with peristalsis . this condition can also be defined as motility (hypermotility) disorder.
What disorder fits the clinical manifestation of the following:
a) Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe headache, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation
b) Polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine
c) Polydipsia, nocutria polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria
d) Weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH
e) Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around the eyes, coarse hair, decreased body temperature
f) Tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased LOC, perhaps seizure
g) Virilization: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk
h) Polyuria, decreased LOC, Kussmaul breathing, acetone smell to breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria
i) Hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium
Answer:
I'm say c it's just a wild guess
The estimated cranial capacities for Homo erectus are
A-1,250 to 1,800 cubic centimeters
B-400 to 800 cubic centimeters
C-300 to 750 cubic centimeters
D-750 to 1,250 cubic centimeters
Answer:
750 to 1,250 cubic centimeters.
Explanation:
Homo erectus is also known as the upright man. There species were present in the Pleistocene era. Their first fossil was dated back at 1.8 million years ago.
The brain capacity of Homo erectus was found to be between the 750 and less than 1,250 cubic centimeters. Their species had been derived into Homo heidelbergensis.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
What cells recognize and destroy antibody-coated cells:
a) B- and T-lymphocytes
b) basophils and mast cells
c) dendritic cells
d) macrophages and neutrophils
e) NK cells
Answer:
The correct option is : e) NK cells
Explanation:
The antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, is a special cell-mediated mechanism of immune defense. This mechanism involves active lyses or the breakdown of the cell membrane of the antibody-coated target cell by an effector cell of the immune system.
The effector cell required in the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity are known as Natural Killer cells or the NK cells. The NK cells show interaction with the IgG antibodies and recognize and destroy the antibody-coated target cells.
Which muscle is deeper in the body: the internal oblique muscle or the transverse abdominal muscle? Is the trapezius muscle located in the abdomen, back, head, neck, or thorax?
Answer:
The transverse abdominal muscle is present deeper in the body and the trapezius muscle is located in the back.
Explanation:
The transverse abdominal muscle is a layer of muscle that is present on the anterior (front) and lateral (side) abdominal wall and is present below the internal oblique muscle.
The trapezius muscle is a paired surface muscle which is located in the back. The main function of this muscle is to move the scapula and support the arm.
The transverse abdominal muscle is located deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. The trapezius muscle is not positioned in the abdomen, but can be found in the upper part of the back, extending to the neck and head.
Explanation:The transverse abdominal muscle is deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. This muscle is arranged transversely around the abdomen, similar to the front of a belt on a pair of pants. On the other hand, the internal oblique muscle is situated more superiorly and extends in the direction wherein our thumbs usually when other fingers are in the pants pocket.
The trapezius muscle is not located in the abdomen. Rather, it's a muscle that stabilizes the upper part of the back, thus it's located in the back and extends to the neck and the base of the skull. This muscle plays a crucial role in movements of the neck and shoulder.
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Which of the following is NOT true about muscle cells?
a. The sarcoplasmic reticulum and the t-tubules are physically fused together
b. It is multinuclear
c. The plasma membrane is called a sarcolemma
d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
The muscle cells are the long, cylindrical, tubular structure which is made up of the myofilaments- actin and myosin.
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as sarcolemma and the cytoplasm of the cell is known as sarcoplasm. Each muscle cell has the small holes present on its sarcolemma through which the nerve impulse are transmitted from the sarcolemma to sarcoplasmic reticulum where calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm.
In the given question the, the muscle cell is multi-nucleated which is the case of skeletal muscles only. The muscle cells have a single nucleus in smooth and cardiac muscles.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells.
Explanation:The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells. In reality, an action potential (AP) at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of acetylcholine, which then causes a depolarization of the muscle cell membrane. This depolarization leads to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing for muscle contraction.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum and t-tubules are physically fused together in muscle cells, which allows for efficient communication between the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction. This fusion is vital for the process known as excitation-contraction coupling.
The plasma membrane of muscle cells is called sarcolemma. This specialized membrane surrounds the muscle cell and helps maintain the internal environment of the cell.
Muscle cells are indeed multinuclear. Unlike most cells in our body that only have one nucleus, muscle cells contain multiple nuclei. These nuclei are necessary to provide adequate genetic material for the synthesis of proteins required for muscle contraction and maintenance.
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