Answer:
CHF or Congestive heart failure is defined as a chronic condition in which fluid builds up around the heart and causes it to pump inefficiently. this affects the pumping power of heart muscles. CHF arises when ventricles are unable to pump enough blood volume to body, then blood fills back to lungs, liver, abdomen or other lower body parts.
Most common cause of CHF can be hypertension, valve conditions and coronary artery disease. It can be treated by angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Pulmonary edema is defined as a condition in which fluid collects in the air sacs in lungs that makes breathing difficult due to excess fluid in the lungs. One of the cause of Pulmonary edema can be CHF (Congestive heart failure).
Under the influence of ADH, the __________ and the ___________ become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed.
a. Proximal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
b. Distal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
c. Proximal convulated tubule, Collecting duct
d. Distal convulated tubule. Collecting duct
Answer:
The correct answer is option D- Distal convulated tubule and collecting duct.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone that helps to maintain the amount of water in your body.
The hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland which controls the kidney to balance the water content in the body as it helps reduce the loss of water in the urine.
ADH hormone increases the permeability of the membrane by stimulating the insertion of "water channels" or aquaporins in the membranes of kidney tubules mainly Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. These aquaporins help the reabsorption of water thus reducing the loss of water from the body.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct, as these are the sites where ADH acts to make the tubule more permeable to water, enabling water reabsorption.
Explanation:
Under the influence of ADH, the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed. Both of these structures are involved in the fine-tuning of water balance in the body.
While the distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs a smaller volume of water, the collecting ducts, influenced by ADH, play a major role in water reabsorption. The proximal convoluted tubule is mainly responsible for the reabsorption of a significant fraction of the filtered water, but this process is independent of ADH action. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct.
The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a ___________.
a. Cleft
b. Synapse
c. Pre and post neuronal axis
Answer:
B. Synapse
Explanation:
The synapse is the space or the communication between two neurons or betwenn a neuron and a muscular cell or a secretory cell. Humans use the chemical synapse. The processes begings with an action potential producing a depolarization openening neurotransmitters (NT) vesicles releaseing calcium allowing the NT allowing the NT to the membrane of the postsynaptic cell sending the signal.
A synapse is the site of communication between two neurons or a neuron and another effector cell, with the synaptic cleft being the gap where neurotransmitters are released and signal transmission occurs.
Explanation:The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a synapse. The synapse includes a narrow space known as the synaptic cleft, which is the actual gap between the presynaptic neuron's terminal button and the postsynaptic neuron's dendrite, axon, or soma. During neurotransmission, neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles within the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron.
These neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, thereby transmitting the signal. If the postsynaptic cell is another neuron, the binding of neurotransmitters can initiate an action potential, continuing the signal transmission process.
Bergmann’s rule:
A)is based on the principle that heat is retained at the body surface
B)concerns the relationship between climate and shape and size of appendages
C)state that bodies with increased mass or volume to surface area are optimal for cold climates
D)states that a linear body with long arms and legs is optimal for cold climates
Answer:
The answer is C: state that bodies wit increased mass or volume to surface are optimal for cold climates.
Explanation:
The bergmann rule establishes that the species of animals that maintain their body temperature within normal limits regardless of the ambient temperature, when they live in cold weather, tend to be of greater volume and weight than those of the same species that live in other warmer regions. A clear example of this are the North Pole penguins, which are larger than African penguins.
Describe the anatomical structure of the knee and why it is the most commonly injured joint of the body.
Answer:
The knee is made up of two bones, the femur and the tibia, among them is the patella attached to each other by means of ligaments.
The knee is the structure of the organism with greater load and mobility, for this reason, this joint is the one that is mostly injured in the human body
There are many different kinds of sweeteners: white sugar, brown sugar, sucanat, honey, maple syrup, Splenda, aspartame, stevia. Which one is the best for you?
Answer:
The answer is Honey.
Explanation:
For my concept the best sweetener is and will continue to be honey, because it is a natural product without any other chemical or preparation components that alter its natural condition.
Final answer:
Choosing the best sweetener involves balancing natural sweeteners like honey and maple syrup, which offer slight nutritional benefits, with artificial sweeteners like aspartame and stevia that are calorie-free. Both types have their places in a diet, but moderation is essential, and whole foods should be prioritized for nutritional needs.
Explanation:
When considering which sweetener is best for you, it's important to balance between natural sources of sweetness and artificial or non-nutritive sweeteners. Natural sweeteners like honey, maple syrup, and molasses can offer nutritional benefits such as minerals and antioxidants, albeit in small amounts. These natural sweeteners, however, are still sources of added sugar and should be used in moderation. On the other hand, artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, sucralose, and stevia, provide a sweet taste without the calories. These are much sweeter than sucrose, so only a small amount is needed. It's notable that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and Health Canada have approved several artificial sweeteners for use, confirming their safety based on extensive reviews. However, there is ongoing debate about the long-term health effects of artificial sweeteners. Ultimately, the best sweetener for an individual depends on personal health goals, dietary needs, and taste preferences. It might be beneficial to use natural sweeteners in limited amounts for their nutritional benefits and flavors, and artificial sweeteners can be a calorie-free way to enjoy sweet tastes. Moderation is key, and considering whole foods rich in minerals and antioxidants should be a priority.
It is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.
Answer:
The urinary meatus
Explanation:
The urinary meatus is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.
The urine is stored in the urinary meatus for both males and females.
It is considered dangerous sometimes if you don't release your urine because it could explode inside your body.
Which of the following procedures can be used to repair a detached retina?
A. irindeclesis
B. strabismus correction
C. scleral buckling
D. canthotomy
Answer:
Scleral buckling
Explanation:
Scleral buckling is one of the type of eye surgery that helps in the restore loss vision in an individual. The main risk associated with scleral buckling surgery is retinal incarceration.
Scleral buckling is mainly processed to repair a damaged and detached retina. Retinal detachment may occur due to increased age, previous cataract surgery and diabetes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Divide the word into word parts. Define the word parts, then define the term. Example: spondylolisthesis = spondyl/o vertebra, -listhesis slipping; slipping of a vertebra, forward dislocation of a vertebra.
- Arthroplasty
- Syndactylism
- Osteomyelitis
- Electromyography
- Ankylosis
- Osteoclasis
Answer:
arthro-joint plasty-repair or replacement
arthroplasty- repair or replacement of the joint
syndactyl,-multipple digits ism-disease or conditon syndactylism is a birth defect in which the infant is born more with extra webbed fingers or toes
osteo -bone myelitis -inflamation of osteo myelitits is the inflammation of the bone
elctro- meaning electric ,myography- use of a myograph, electromyography
is a procedure diagnostic to show health of muscles and nerves
ankyl-bent or crooked osis-state or condition ankylosis- is a stiffness of a joint due to abnormal adhesion and rigidity of the bones of the joint, which may be the result of injury or disease.
osteo-bone clasis -break or broken
osteoclasis-the breaking of a bone
(brainliest?
Explanation:
The increased risk of lung cancer that results from smoking and asbestos exposure is an example of a/an _________ effect.
Answer:
The answer is Carcinogenic effect.
Explanation:
When a physical, chemical or biological agent is capable of producing a neoplasic disease we speak of a carcinogenic or carcinogenic effect. The carcinogenic effect of cigarettes and asbestos has been scientifically demonstrated, asbestos being one of the largest producers of lung cancer in people working with this material, hence its use has already been banned in several countries.
Which one of the following diuretics is a potassium sparing diuretic?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Indapamide
D. Furosemide
Answer:
(B). Spironolactone.
Explanation:
Diuretic drugs are used to treat hypertension by increasing diuresis (urine formation). Potassium sparing diuretics can be defined as a class of diuretic drugs that decrease secretion of potassium ions into the urine.
Normal diuretic can cause increased potassium loss that lead to hypokalemia (low level of potassium). Potassium ions are necessary for proper nerve transmission and muscle functioning.
Hence, potassium sparing drugs are used with diuretics for hypertension without causing lose of potassium ions from the body. Examples of potassium sparing diuretics are spironolactone, amiloride, and eplerenone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
The diaphyseal region of bone is composed of which of the following bone types?
A) spongy
B) cancellous
C) cortical
D) trabecular
Answer:
( C ) Cortical bone
Explanation:
The diaphyseal region of the bone , is the main or the medsection of the long bone.
The composition of Diaphyseal region is mainly of the cortical bone , bone marrow and the fat tissue i.e. the adipose tissue .
The middle tabular part of the diaphyseal region , composed of the compact bone is surrounded by the central marrow cavity which have the red or the yellow marrow.
Hence ,
The diaphyseal region is composed of cortical bone.
Dysfunction of the pituitary gland woutld probably affect the functioning of the _______:
a. parathyroid gland
b. gonads
c. pancreas
d. adrenal medullia
Answer:
(b). gonads
Explanation:
Pituitary gland can be defined as an endocrine gland, which regulates functions of various glands by synthesizing and secreting various hormones. Gonads are under regulation of hypothalamic-pituitary pathway.
The anterior pituitary gland secreted LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), which stimulate gonads to release testosterone and estrogen.
On the other hand, parathyroid gland, pancreas, and medulla work independently and do not depend on hormones released from pituitary.
Hence, dysfunction of pituitary gland would mainly affect the functioning of gonads.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
White blood cells leave capillaries by a process called ___________.
Answer:
Diapedesis
Explanation:
Diapedesis is the process of the extravasation of the white blood cells. This is the important process of the immune system.
During diapedesis, the white bllod cells from the blood leave the capillaries and migrate to the site of injury. This process mainly occurs in the post capillary venules.
Thus, the answer is diapedesis.
White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, exit the bloodstream and enter tissues through a process known as emigration or diapedesis.
Explanation:White blood cells, or leukocytes, leave capillaries via a process known as emigration or diapedesis. This process involves the leukocytes squeezing through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall to enter tissue sites. Once at these sites, depending on their functions, they may be given distinct names such as macrophage or microglia.
For leukocytes, the vascular network is akin to a highway that they use for transit before exiting to perform their defensive functions. This emigration allows them to remove infectious agents, such as bacteria and viruses, and clean the lymph before it returns to the bloodstream.
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Cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.
Answer:
Sarcoplasm.
Explanation:
Sarcoplasm is comparable to the cytoplasm of the other cell. The main constituents of sarcoplasm is glycosomes, myoglobin and calcium.
Sarcoplasm is the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber or muscle cells. The sarcoplasm helps in the muscle contraction and regulation of muscle fibers. The cell membrane of sarcoplasm is sarcolemma.
Thus, the answer is sarcoplasm.
Which type of blood vessel carries blood back to the heart?
a. artery
b. arteriole
c. vein
d. capillary
Answer:
vein
Explanation:
vein is the vessel that carry blood to the earth
Australopithecus afarensis:
A-all of these
B-is found in southern and eastern Africa
C-is the largest well-studied collection of early hominins
D-the fossil skeleton known as "Lucy" belongs to this species
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. all of these.
Explanation:
Australopithecus afarensis was early hominin that found between 3.9 and 2.9 million years ago in southern and eastern Africa. this hominin was well built and had a slenderly body. these were thought to be closely related to the genus homo than other primates of that time. These hominins were the most studied collection of hominins.
The most famous fossil is Australopithecus afrarensis is a skeleton named Lucy which is thought to be a very intelligent species of its time.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. all of these.
Which of the following statement(s) about cells is/are true?
1. Mitosis --- division of somatic cells
2. Meiosis --- division of sex cells
3. Somatic cells are diploid
4. Sex cells are haploid
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
Explanation:
Mitotic cell division is a type of cell division in which one parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. This type of cell division takes place in all the cells except sex cells.
Somatic cells go through mitosis and help organisms in their growth, repair, and renewal of cells and tissue. Somatic cells are diploid in number that means they have two homologous chromosomes in their nucleus.
Meiosis is also a type of cell division that takes place in the reproductive cell or sex cells to form gametes. In this type of cell division, one parent cell gives rises to four daughter cell with half the number of chromosomes which is haploid. The sex cells are haploid as they are produced by the meiotic division.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
What is the Icd 10 code for respiratory failure with hypoxia?
Answer:
Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia
J96.01 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes. The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM J96.01 became effective on October 1, 2018.
Explanation:
The ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision) code for respiratory failure with hypoxia is J96.0.
Definition of Respiratory Failure:
Respiratory failure occurs when the respiratory system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange, leading to an inability to oxygenate the blood efficiently or remove carbon dioxide. This condition can be acute or chronic and can arise from various underlying health issues.Definition of Hypoxia:
Hypoxia refers to a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin).Causes:
Pulmonary conditions (e.g., Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, pneumonia).Neuromuscular diseases affecting the diaphragm and respiratory muscles.Central nervous system issues (e.g., drug overdose affecting breathing).ICD-10 Coding Explanation:
The ICD-10 code J96.0 specifically signifies 'Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia.' It helps in accurately documenting the condition for medical billing and record-keeping purposes.Importance of Accurate Coding:
Accurate ICD-10 coding is crucial for patient management, insurance reimbursement, and statistical data on health outcomes. It allows for effective tracking of respiratory failure cases and informs treatment strategies.Lactose intolerance:
A. results from the lack of lactase
B. can be influenced by the environment
C. has a genetic basis
D. all of these
E. is a good example of biocultural evolution
Answer:
The answer is A: results from the lack of lactase
Explanation:
Lactose intolerance is caused by the lack of the enzyme lactase, necessary for digestion. Their symptoms usually occur 30 minutes after eating the food with a feeling of nausea, bloating and vomiting. It can occur from the first months of life as well as in adulthood.
A specific form of cancer that develops in the connective tissue of the dermis is called? It is common in the elderly and HIV patients.
A. Kaposi's Sarcoma
B. Leukoderma
C. Carbuncle
Answer: Kaposi's Sarcoma
Explanation:
The Kaposi's sarcoma remains one of the most common cancer in people suffering from HIV. It is caused by the virus known as herpes virus 8.
It is developed when the cells that line the lymph or blood vessels begins to divide without stopping and starts spreading in the adjacent tissues.
It has the ability to start in several parts of the body at once.
Hence the correct answer is" Kaposi's Sarcoma "
Carbon 14 is an unstable isotope of carbon that decays very slowly. Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional ____________.
(a) electrons
(b) neutrons
(c) protons
(d) ions
Answer:
B. neutrons I think
Explanation:
carbon -12 contains six protons, six neutrons, and six electrons
carbon -14 contains six protons, eight neutrons, and six electrons
Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional neutrons. thus, option B is correct.
What is isotopes?An isotope is one of two or more species of atoms of a chemical element that have the same atomic number and location in the periodic table but differ in their atomic weights and physical properties. There are one or more isotopes for every chemical element.
Both isotopes of carbon have six protons in their atoms. Carbon-12 atoms have 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 atoms have 8 neutrons. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom are the same, hence a neutral atom of carbon-12 or carbon-14 would have 6 electrons.
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Which of the following airways precisely carry air to each of the lung?
a. terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. tertiary bronchi
d. secondary bronchi
e. primary bronchi
Answer:
D - Secondary bronchi
Explanation:
The secondary bronchi is the first subdivision of the lung and it directly carries air to each lobe of a lung. It serves as a pathway of gas exchange to provide air to the 3 lobes of the lung (superior, middle and inferior).
One of the following is not correctly matched. Which is it?
a. The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae.
b. Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air.
c. Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air.
d. Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles.
e. Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Answer:
The answer is E: Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Explanation:
The paranasal sinuses are cavities located in the bones of the face, which communicate through holes and ducts with the nasal cavity. They are upholstered by the same mucosa of the nose. One of its main functions is to moisten and heat the air, which enters through its cavities into the airway.
The statement that is not correctly matched is that the olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae. In reality, the olfactory epithelium is found deeper in the nasal cavity for odor detection.
The student's question pertains to which statement about the nasal cavity and related structures is not correctly matched. Let's evaluate each statement provided:
The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae: The olfactory epithelium actually lies deeper in the nasal cavity and is primarily involved in odor detection.Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air: This is correct. The hairs filter large debris as air enters the nasal cavities.Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air: This is accurate, as conchae increase surface area and disrupt air flow for better air conditioning.Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles: Mucus production by goblet cells is indeed a key factor in trapping debris and moisturizing inhaled air.Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses: This is typically true as the primary function of the paranasal sinuses does not involve direct air passage.The statement that is not correctly matched is therefore option a).
What is the Icd 10 code for diverticulitis of sigmoid colon?
Answer:
The answer to the question: What is the ICD-10-CM code for Diverticulitis of sigmoid colon, as of 2018, would be: K57.32
Explanation:
The ICD-10-CM classification, is a system that is used to unify and codify diagnosis, procedures and signs and symptoms, so that healthcare professionals can identify them easily, and also so that the healthcare system, including healthcare insurance companies, and other agencies, may have a common language when it comes to talking about diseases, procedures and signs and symptoms. This code was preceded by the ICD-9-CM and both were born from the Classification of Diseases created by the WHO (World Health Organization). Today, the ICD-10-CM coding system is the one used in the United States, and the code given to Diverticulitis of the large intestine without perforation or abscess without bleeding, including Diverticulitis of the sigmoid colon is, as of 2018 and still accepted in 2019, K57.32.
At the neuromuscular junction, what specific receptor is located at the muscle cell?
a. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
c. Glutamate receptor
Answer:
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Explanation:
Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors has the ability to respond towards the acetylcholine molecule. These receptors are used for the transmission of signals.
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is located on brain, at neuromuscular junction and in the muscle cell. These receptors are released from the post ganglionic fibers.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction, allowing for muscle contractions to take place.
Explanation:The specific receptor located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction is the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. This receptor is responsible for muscle contractions in our body. When a signal travels down the nerve, acetylcholine is released, which then binds to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, causing an influx of ions and leading to muscle contraction.
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Which is incorrect regarding increasing age in older adults?
a) Muscular tissue begins to atrophy
b) Epithelia thins
c) Tissue repair is less efficient
d) Decreased risk of cancer
Answer:
The answer is D: decreased risk of cancer.
Explanation:
As the men get older, the risk of presenting a neoplasm increases; The highest incidence of prostate cancer has been scientifically demonstrated in men over 50 years of age, such as breast cancer, and a higher frequency of lung and gastric cancer has also been seen.
In regards to the spinothalamic tract, where does the second order neuron cross the midline?
a. at that spinal cord segment
b. in the brainstem
c. at the thalamus
d. never crosses midline
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A.
Explanation:
In spinothalamic tract is a projection with axons which terminates in the thalamic nuclei. This tract comprises of three neuron pathways: primary order neurons, secondary order neurons and tertiary order neurons.
The axons of the secondary order neurons receive the impulse to form the primary order neuron in the dorsal neuron and then crosses the midline at the anterior spinal cord in ventral white commissure to reach the opposite sides. after this neuron passes through the brainstem to the thalamus.
Thus, option A- at that spinal cord segment is the correct answer.
__________ are supposed to catch doctors' mistakes when it comes to interactions:
a. Nurses
b. Pharmacists
c. Director of Nursing
d. None of the above
Answer:
I think it's nurses?
Which of the following are symptoms associated with pernicious anemia? (Select all that apply)
a. Sore tongue
b. Diarrhea and upset stomach
c. Insomnia
d. Paresthesias
e. Arthralgia
f. Weakness and fatigue
Answer:
the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
Explanation:
When the body is not able to make enough healthy RBCs due to B-12 deficiency this condition called pernicious anemia. It is a treatable condition with the help of the B-12 shots or pills. The major reason is the lack of a stomach protein known as Intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of the B-12.
Symptoms associated with this condition are -
Fatigue, shortness of breath, cold hands and feet, Paresthesias, feeling dizzy, chest pain, pale or yellow skin, depression, and trouble focusing and others.
Thus, the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the:
a. tricuspid valve.
b. pulmonary valve.
c. mitral valve.
d. bicuspid valve.
Answer:
The answer is A tricuspid valve
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is called that because it has three pillars that are located in the right heart between the atrium and the ventricular idem.
It is responsible for giving way to systematic blood for subsequent oxygenation at the level of the lungs.
Final answer:
The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve, which is an atrioventricular valve that prevents the backflow of blood. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is known as the tricuspid valve. This valve is one of the two atrioventricular valves (AV valves), with its counterpart being the mitral valve on the left side of the heart. The tricuspid valve consists of three flaps of tissue that open to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle and close to prevent backflow of blood. The mitral valve also referred to as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, consists of two flaps and functions similarly between the left atrium and left ventricle.