Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon is the development of small pouches in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon section of the large intestine. These pouches are usually benign, but can become inflamed or infected, leading to diverticulitis. This condition, often associated with a low-fiber diet, plays a crucial role in the final stages of digestion.
Explanation:Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon refers to the presence of small, bulging pouches (diverticula) that can form in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon, which is the S-shaped part of the large intestine located closest to the rectum and anus. These diverticula are usually harmless, but they can become inflamed or infected, leading to a condition known as diverticulitis.
The sigmoid colon is the part of the large intestine that attaches to the rectum. Food residue, following the movement through the colon, first travels up the ascending colon, moves across the transverse colon, and then down the descending colon, reaching the sigmoid colon. This part of your gastrointestinal tract plays an important role in the final stages of digestion, as it pushes the undigested material towards the rectum and ultimately out of the body through the anus.
While diverticulosis often doesn't cause symptoms, when it does, they may include abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. If the diverticula become inflamed or infected, symptoms can escalate to include severe abdominal pain and fever. The primary cause of diverticulosis is thought to be a low-fiber diet, since fiber softens the stool and reduces pressure in the colon.
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How are hairs formed?
Answer:
Pilosebaceous follicles are structures that give rise to hair, through a tubular invagination. They consist of a hair bulb and a dermal papilla. The dermal papilla formed by fibroblastic cells is responsible for the control of the hair cycle; while the hair bulb is the proliferative part formed by three or four cell layers precursor to the cellular elements.
Hypovolemic shock resulting from burns is usually caused by:
A. loss of body fluids.
B. bleeding.
C. acute allergic reaction.
D. cardiac arrest
Answer: Option A "Loss of body fluids"
Explanation:
When the body lose blood or other fluids from the body, then the amount of blood in the body is reduced. The Hypovolemic shock happens when a sudden loss of body fluids takes place which is extremely dangerous.
Example:
At the time of delivery, there is blood loss from the body. At the time of injury there is a loss of blood from the body. These processes leads to loss of blood and body fluids.
In case of extensive burns leads to loss of body fluids.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
What disorder fits the clinical manifestation of the following:
a) Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe headache, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation
b) Polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine
c) Polydipsia, nocutria polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria
d) Weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH
e) Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around the eyes, coarse hair, decreased body temperature
f) Tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased LOC, perhaps seizure
g) Virilization: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk
h) Polyuria, decreased LOC, Kussmaul breathing, acetone smell to breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria
i) Hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium
Answer:
I'm say c it's just a wild guess
Where does systemic venous blood enter the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
Answer:
C. Right atrium
Explanation:
The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through superior and inferior vena cava. The right atrium contracts and the blood is passed from the atrium to the right ventricle which later contracts and sends blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to reoxygenate.
The glands in the duodenum that secrete an alkaline mucus: _________________
Answer:
Brunner's gland
Explanation:
Brunner's gland also called duodenal glands are the portion of duodenum that is present above the sphinter.
Function of Brunner's gland -
The main function of Brunner's gland is to secrete mucus - rich alkaline secretion ( mucous ), that contain bicarbonate.
The secreted mucous is used for -
1. The protection of the stomach from the acidic content of chyme.
2. Create an alkaline medium for to activate the intestinal enzymes.
3. lubricate the intestinal walls.
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by?
a) HSV-1
b) HSV-2
c) EBV
d) CMV
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:___, would be: C: EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus 4, of the same family of the herpes virus.
Explanation:
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as Mono, is an infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, from the herpes virus family. This illness is also called glandular fever, as usually, especially in children, which is the usual time when people are affected by the EBV, there is an enlargement of the lymphatic nodes in the throat, which means the throat looks swollen, there is fever, tiredness, and some times, the spleen and liver can also be attacked and affected. It usually resolves by itself, there is no vaccination available for it and treatment is exclusive for pain and fever.
A nurse is planning teaching for a client who has asthma about taking montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include about the purpose of this medication?
a. Relieves acute bronchospasm
b. Inhibits replication of neutrophils
c. Controls inflammation in the airways
d. Activates beta2-receptors in smooth muscle
Answer:
The answer is C controls inflamation in the airways
Explanation:
Montelukast mechanism of action is to act on the leukotriene cysteine receptors in the lungs and bronchi reducing inflammation. it is used to avoid asthmatic states, and mostly used in the chronic states of asthma.
Assisting muscles are called _____________.
Answer:
Synergists
Explanation:
A lot of muscles are involved in an action. The principle muscle involved is called the primer mover or agonist.
For example an action like uplifting a cup. The primar mover is actually the biceps branchii. However, these muscles are assisted by brachialis which are known as synergist. A synergist behaves like a fixator which stabilizes the bone and thus, assist the action of uplifting the cup.
Thus,
Assisting muscles are called synergists.
The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles.
The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles. Synergistic muscles are muscles that work together to perform a specific movement or action. For example, when you bend your arm, the biceps and brachialis muscles are synergistic muscles because they work together to flex the elbow joint.
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Birth is an event that is celebrated with ritual only in the United States.
a. True
b. False
What would stop muscle contraction?
Answer:
Relaxation: Relaxation occurs when stimulation of the nerve stops. Calcium is then pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum breaking the link between actin and myosin. Actin and myosin return to their unbound state causing the muscle to relax.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Muscle contractions cease when neuron signals to the muscle end, tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin, or when ATP is depleted, leading to muscle fatigue. Pathological conditions or toxins can also impair muscle contractions.
Explanation:
Muscle contraction typically stops when signaling from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber ceases. This halts the influx of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm and prompts their reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). When calcium levels drop in the sarcoplasm, tropomyosin blocks the binding sites on actin strands, preventing myosin from attaching to actin, which effectively stops contraction. Additionally, when a muscle becomes deprived of ATP, it can no longer sustain contraction and becomes fatigued. In pathological conditions or when exposed to certain toxins, such as in myasthenia gravis or botulinum toxin exposure, neuromuscular transmission can be disrupted, leading to impaired muscle contraction.
If ATP were completely depleted in a muscle fiber, the muscle would not be able to contract or relax properly, leading to a state called rigor. ATP is essential for the detachment of myosin heads from the actin filaments during muscle contraction and in providing the energy for the reuptake of calcium ions into the SR during relaxation.
A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Platelets 300,000/mm3
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. PT 11 seconds
d. aPTT 50 seconds
Answer:
The best answer to the question: A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should a nurse report to the provider? would be: D: aPTT of 50 seconds.
Explanation:
Unlike Warfarin and the low-molecular weight heparin, medically speaking, the one diagnostic test that is still being used as a measure of heparin´s therapeutic achievements in a patient with a coagulopathy, is the activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT. Although the measurement in seconds, will depend on the laboratory that is doing the measuring, and despite scientific evidence that points to the fact that aPTT is not the most accurate of laboratory measurements for a patient with heparin, it is still being used today and still is the leading laboratory test for these types of patients.
The laboratory value to report for a patient receiving heparin is an aPTT of 50 seconds, as it indicates the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy and may require adjustments to the dosage to avoid potential bleeding complications.
The question concerns identifying which laboratory value of a patient receiving heparin therapy should be reported to the healthcare provider. The answer is d. aPTT 50 seconds. Heparin therapy's effectiveness and safety are typically monitored through the activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) levels. A normal aPTT ranges from 30 to 40 seconds, but when on heparin therapy, the target therapeutic range is usually about 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value. An aPTT of 50 seconds may suggest that the patient's heparin dose is within or slightly above the therapeutic range, depending on the specific target range set by the managing physician. However, it's crucial to communicate this value to ensure appropriate management, as excessively prolonged aPTT can increase the risk of bleeding. In contrast, options a, b, and c are within normal limits or irrelevant to heparin therapy: Platelets at 300,000/mm3, Hematocrit 45%, and PT 11 seconds are considered normal values and not directly influenced by heparin.
Treatment for osteomyelitis include:
a. IV antibiotics.
b. Antipyretics.
c. Narcotic pain management
d. Non-weight bearing on the affected limb.
E. Passive ROM on the affected limb.
Answer:
The answers are A, B, C, E
Explanation:
The treatment of osteomyelitis in general should include the following management:
1- Intravenous antibiotic.
2- Intravenous or oral analgesic.
3 - Keep the affected bone at rest, that is, avoid mobility or weight in it. Passive movements can be made to the affected bone as long as it is tolerated.
4 - Narcotics in case the pain becomes very intense.
5 - Local heat.
If the external (voluntary) sphincter relaxes, what happen? If the external sphincter is not relaxed, what happen?
Answer:
If the external sphincter relaxes, there is an exit of the fecal bolus; if this relaxation does not occur, there is no exit of fecal matter, causing constipation.
If the external urethral sphincter relaxes, urine is expelled from the body. If it remains contracted, it prevents urination. The process of micturition involves coordination between the detrusor muscle and both the internal and external urethral sphincters.
If the external (voluntary) sphincter relaxes, what happens? When the external urethral sphincter, which is a striated muscle controlled by the somatic nervous system, relaxes, urine can leave the body through the external urethral orifice. This relaxation is under conscious, voluntary control in most people.
If the external sphincter is not relaxed, what happens? If the external urethral sphincter remains contracted, it prevents urine from exiting the body. This allows individuals to hold in their urine until they are ready to urinate.
The process of micturition (urination) involves the contraction of the detrusor muscle in the bladder and the relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter, followed by the voluntary relaxation of the external urethral sphincter.
The abbreviation MI stands for
a. myocardial infarction.
b. myocardial ischemia.
c. myocardial inflammation
d. myocardial injury.
Answer:
myocardial Infraction
____________ are microscopic tubular structures which compose the skeleton of a neuron.
Answer:
I think it's nervous tissue.
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In a contracted muscle, which of the following extends from ‘Z’ disc to ‘Z’ disc?
A) A-band
B) I-band
C) H-zone
D) M-line
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A - A-band.
Explanation:
The sarcomere is the repeating unit of a myofibril which extends between two z-lines. Under a microscope, a sarcomere can be divided into A- band which is composed of thick myosin only and I-band which consists of thin filament that is actin only.
When a muscle contract then actin and myosin comes in overlapping position due to which I-band shortens and between two z-lines and overlapped structure of thin actin filaments over thick myosin filaments (A-band) is seen.
Therefore, only A-band is seen between two z-lines in a contracted muscle thus, option A is the correct answer.
How can the use of the nurse's personal communication device(s) impact patient care positively and/or negatively? What are the ethical and legal implications? What does the professional literature say about how communication devices can support safe nursing practice?
Answer:
To begin with, a nurse´s private life, symbolized in the use of her private communication devices, should be separate from her professional field. In essence, unless absolutely necessary, a nurse should not carry with her communication devices that are personal, as her time of work, is the time that must be reserved to give the best nursing care possible.
The use of communication devices, such as cellphones, can have both negative and positive impact on nursing care. But mostly, negative. On the plus side, a nurse who carries a cellphone can easily access necessary information that might help her in her care. But that would be the extent of it. On the negative side, there are many issues involved. First, a nurse handles a lot of private information on her patients, and the use of personal devices is a way to infringe on that. She might make the mistake of informing someone outside about a patient´s situation, and that would be a violation of all the rights of patients. Second, hyginie. Usually cellphones are a huge medium to transport pathogens, and very few nurses realize this. So it can also become a source of infection. Third, a nurse´s attention will not be fully given to her patients, to her care, but it will be split between her professional, and personal, worlds, increasing the risk of making mistakes in her care.
This is why, even from the time of nursing school, nurses are told that these devices can be used for good, as long as they are placed in certain spots specifically designed, such as lunch rooms, or staff lounges. They can be used as a means for consultation, or getting in contact with people from their own work, if necessary, but they must not be carried around, and definitely should not be consulted outside of the resting time alloted to them.
Which of the following is/are NOT considered a pathogen? Select ALL that apply
a) athlete's foot fungus
b) cancer
c) chicken pox virus
d) hookworm intestinal parasite
e) meningococcus bacterium
f) pollen
Answer: b) cancer
Explanation:
A pathogen is an biological agent which is capable of invading the body of living beings and harm them by causing infection. Cancer and pollen cannot be considered as pathogens.
Cancer is a condition in which the cells of the body divide uncontrollably in an abnormal fashion. Due to this tumor of abnormal cells develop and these cells makes the immune system of the body weak. These infectious cells make the immune system weak and prove to be fatal.
With which portion of an epithelial cell in the stomach would food be in contact?
a) Basalsurface
b) Apical surface
c) Basal lamina
d) Reticularlamina
Answer: b) Apical surface
Explanation:
The epithelium is characterized by the juxtaposition of cells and the little extracellular matrix. The region of the cell facing the free surface is the apical pole, while the opposite side is the basal pole. The apical domain is always turned to the outer surface from a closed cavity or tube. The stomach is a dilated portion of the digestive tract where the food cake is macerated and partially digested in a paste, the chimo (from Greek chymos, juice). In adults, holds 1.5L and, when extended, 3L.Given that food enters the stomach and interects with the region facing the surface, food would be in contact with the Apical surface.
Explain the roles of baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in homeostasis.
Explanation:
The circulatory system plays an extremely important role in maintaining the homeostasis of the internal environment as it should provide to all cells of the body the ideal conditions for their metabolism, ensuring adequate nutrient and oxygen metabolic effects of all body tissues. To perform this function, the cardiovascular system is equipped with afferent sensory systems that inform the central nervous system on the general state of circulation. Among the afferent systems that act in the short term control of blood pressure (BP), the most studied are arterial baroreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors.
In situations of elevated blood pressure, arterial baroreceptors (inserted into the aorta and carotid vascular walls) depolarize and the action potentials are transmitted to the central nervous system (CNS) through their afferences. After processing this information in the CNS, sympathetic and parasympathetic autonomic adjustments are promoted to normalize blood pressure and adequate levels for perfusion of different organs and tissues.
The chemoreceptor reflex acts in the same way as the baroreflex. However, it is stimulated by cells that are sensitive to oxygen deficiency and excess of carbon dioxide. When blood pressure drops, receptors are stimulated by the increase of CO2 and decrease of O2; transmitted signals reach the vasomotor centers exciting them, leading to effects similar to those caused by the activation of the baroreflex.
Why are lipids such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates?
A. They are hydrophobic.
B. They contain 4 kcal per gram of fat.
C. They are less compact than carbohydrates.
D. They hold a lot of water.
E. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Lipids belongs to the group of biological molecules that includes fat, oils and some steroids. They are better for storing energy as compared to carbohydrate because they are more weight efficient due to its hydrophobic nature.
Lipids can be stored without storing a lot of water. Besides this carbohydrates requires water to get stored inside the body.
So, lipids are better storage molecules for energy as compared to that of carbohydrates.
Final answer:
Lipids are efficient energy storage molecules because they have high energy content per gram owing to their carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds. They are hydrophobic which means they are more compact as they do not hold water. This makes them better at energy storage compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The question asks why lipids are such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer to this question is that lipids provide more energy per gram than carbohydrates. Lipids have a high energy content because their fatty acid chains contain numerous carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds, which are capable of storing a lot of energy.
Moreover, lipids are hydrophobic and, therefore, do not bind to water, making them more compact energy stores since they do not require water for storage. This is in contrast to carbohydrates, which can bind water and thereby are less efficient on a per gram basis.
Lipids are essential not just for energy storage but also for other functions like forming a major component of cell membranes, insulating and protecting organs, and contributing to the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.
Describe three signs of a stroke.
Answer: Difficulty speaking, blurred vision, and trouble with coordination.
A stroke is when there’s damage to the brain because of lack of blood
Three signs of a stroke:
1. Numbness of body parts.
2. Trouble speaking.
3. Dizziness and blurred vision.
If you experience any of these symptoms, go to the emergency room immediately.
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) Skeletal muscle : striated
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
c) Cardiac muscle : striated
d) Smooth muscle : involuntary
Answer:
B) Cardiac muscle: voluntary
Explanation:
As we know the skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary and smooth muscle is involuntary. The muscle cardiac has a different classification it is striated but involuntary. The contraction is different from the skeletal muscle this is thanks to the action potential dilivered in the muscular cells of the heart because of the sodium and calcium levels. The sodium is rises very fast but is decrease in the same way and the calcium is in a sustained level that allows the action potential.
Answer:
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
Explanation:
Oxytocin is used during which of the following procedures?
A. bowel resection
B. total abdominal hysterectomy
C. total hip replacement
D. cesarean section
Answer:
(D). cesarean section
Explanation:
Oxytocin is a peptide hormone, synthesized by hypothalamus and secreted by posterior pituitary. Oxytocin plays role in sexual reproduction, lactation, and induce contractions during child birth.
Oxytocin is naturally produced at the time of child birth, but natural oxytocin has a short half-life. Hence, oxytocin infusion is done during child birth or cesarean section as it maintains contraction of uterine wall during the surgery.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
In discussing descending pathways, we talked about neurons whose conductile processes are in the internal capsule. These neurons:
a. have their cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. have their cell bodies in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex
c. have their cell bodies in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
d. have their cell bodies in the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
The descending pathway or descending tract is a nervous system which is composed of upper motor neurons which carries the signals from the CNS (brain) to lower neurons.
These upper motor neurons originate in the cerebral cortex of the brain especially "precentral gyrus" or depressions of the cerebrum with their cell bodies in it and axons in the CNS. They pass the impulses via corticospinal tract in which neurons converge and descend through internal capsula.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
Explain physiologially, how urine volume and potassium concentration are altered by the presence/absensce of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormoen both alone and together.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which increases the permeability of the tubules to increase the reabsorption of water by adding aquaporins in the membranes of the tubules and aldosterone- a steroid hormone which increases the reabsorption of sodium and retention of water in the tubules.
1. In the low concentration of water- more water is absorbed from the kidney due to the production of ADH and aldosterone which reduces the volume of water in the urine and thus the low volume of urine is produced and the potassium ions retain in the body.
2. In high concentration of water- ADH and aldosterone are not produced and the urine is produced in a normal amount. Some potassium ions can be released.
Duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine. It is approximately 25 centimeters (10 inches) in length. It receives chyme from the stomach through the _________ valve.
Answer:
The answer is pylorus
Explanation:
The pylorus is the valve located between the lower part of the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum.
Define cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume.
Answer:
- Cardiac output = defined as the amount of blood that comes out with each ventricular contraction in a minute. Normally in a healthy and young person it is 4.5 L / min.
- Heart rate = It is the amount of heartbeats in a minute. Normally it goes between 60 to 100 contractions per minute.
- Stroke Volume = It is the amount of blood ejected from the heart to the aorta and to the pulmonary artery in each contraction.
The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option B. "False"
Explanation:
Nephron can be defined as the functional unit of the kidney.
Descending limb and ascending limb are the combinly called loop of nephron or henle and are the part of renal tubule in the nephron.
Descending limbs and ascending limbs have different permeabilities to water and salt that causes high osmolarity in the Medulla.
The thin descending limb is having high permeability to water as they have low permeability to ions and urea while the thick ascending limb has impermeablity to water as there is active reabsorption of ions.
Hence, the correct option is B.
The statement is false. The descending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to water and the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water.
Explanation:The statement 'The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water' is false. In reality, the opposite is true. The descending limb of the nephron loop, part of the kidney’s urine-forming apparatus, is permeable to water and impermeable to solutes. Contrarily, the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water, but it allows for the passage of ions and sodium chloride.
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An increase in afterload will result in a(n) ________
a. decrease in heart rate.
b. increase in heart rate.
c. decrease in stroke volume.
d. increase in cardiac output.
e. increase in stroke volume
Answer:
i think: c. but, not question on this answer????
Explanation:
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Afterload is defined as the pressure exerted by the heart that work against to eject blood during systole or ventricular contraction.
Afterload is said as proportional to the average arterial pressure. when systemic vascular resistance and aortic pressure are increased, that results increase in afterload by ventricular dilation and by aortic valve stenosis. As a result in the increased afterload, there is an increase in end-systolic volume and a decrease in stroke volume.
Hence, the correct option is C.