Answer:
It is a method of isometric muscle testing.
Explanation:
The manual muscle testing is used to determine the extension and degree of muscular weakness as a consequence of a disease, injury or disuse.
The results obtained from tests and exams provide a data planning base, so that the physician can plan a therapeutic procedure and periodic retesting for the patient.
The manual muscle testing requires no equipment other than the examiner's hands, it is highly portable and inexpensive, however this type of testing provides muscle strength data at only one point of ROM.
Final answer:
Manual muscle testing is a technique used to evaluate muscle strength and function, essential for diagnosing and managing various neuromuscular conditions. By applying resistance and testing muscle contractions, practitioners can identify weaknesses and guide treatment plans.
Explanation:
Manual muscle testing (MMT) is a diagnostic procedure used by healthcare professionals to assess muscle strength and function. This type of testing evaluates the muscles' ability to contract in response to a force. During an MMT, the examiner applies resistance while the patient attempts to perform a muscle contraction. The strength of the muscle is then graded based on the patient's ability to hold against the resistance.
MMT can help determine the presence and extent of muscle weakness, evaluate the impact of diseases that affect muscle function, and guide treatment and rehabilitation plans. Conditions such as muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, and spinal cord injuries, can disrupt normal muscle function, leading to decreased strength and motor control.
Manual muscle testing, along with other diagnostic tools like electromyography (EMG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), can provide valuable information about muscle health and contribute to formulating effective treatment strategies.
During the physical examination, the practitioner also assesses muscle tone by checking for hypotonicity or flaccidity, which can indicate issues with the lower motor neurons (LMNs) and neuromuscular junctions. Assessing muscle tone and strength is crucial in identifying potential upper motor neuron (UMN) lesions, which could result from conditions like cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis (MS), or stroke.
These findings are part of a comprehensive neurological and musculoskeletal assessment to determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the patient's condition.
Black-bellied seedcrackers have either small beaks (better for eating soft seeds) or large beaks (better for hard seeds). There are no seeds of intermediate hardness; therefore, which kind of selection acts on beak size in seedcrackers? View Available Hint(s)
Answer:
Disruptive selection is acting on the beak size in seedcrackers.
Explanation:
There are different types of natural selection: sexual selection, stabilizing selection, directional selection, frequency-dependent selection, and disruptive selection.
Disruptive selection occurs when selective pressure favor homozygous. In equilibrium, the two alleles might be present. If there are extreme factors in an environment, such as the seed type, that favor one or the other allele, then both alleles appear in a homozygous state.
The disruptive selection causes an increase in the two types of extreme phenotypes over the intermediate forms. Limits between one extreme and the other are frequently very sharped. Individuals belonging to one phenotype can not feed on the same seeds as individuals belonging to the other phenotype, due to the traits differences between them, competition, or predation.
Both extreme phenotypes are favored over intermediated forms.
Terminal cisterns ________. a) are made of smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) store acetylcholine c) are an important link between the nervous system and the muscle cell d) carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell
Terminal cisterns carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell.
Explanation:The correct answer is d) to carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell. Terminal cisterns are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is a specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle cells. They are important for muscle contraction as they store and release calcium ions, which is necessary for muscle contraction. Terminal cisterns are positioned close to the T-tubules, and together they form the triad structure which allows for the transmission of the action potential deep into the muscle cell.
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Terminal cisterns are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. Their role is to store calcium ions, which are released during an action potential to trigger muscle contraction. Terminal cisterns do not store acetylcholine nor directly carry the action potential into the muscle cell, that role is for T-tubules.
Explanation:Terminal cisterns are specialized structures found inside muscle cells. These structures are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which is a specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The primary role of terminal cisterns is to store calcium ions which are essential for muscle contraction.
They do not store acetylcholine, which is a neurotransmitter that binds at a motor end-plate to trigger depolarization, resulting in muscle contraction. Instead, calcium ions stored in the terminal cisterns are released during an action potential to enable muscle contraction.
In the context of propagation of an action potential, while terminal cisterns and the sarcoplasmic reticulum play crucial roles in muscle contraction, they do not directly carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell. Instead, it's the T-tubules, another structure in muscle cells, that transmit the action potential from the surface to the interior of the muscle cell.
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Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds. The UCSD campus male junco population tails are about 36% white, whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations are about 4045% white. The founding stock of UCSD birds was likely from the nearby mountain populations because some of those birds overwinter on the UCSD campus each year. Population sizes on the UCSD campus have been reasonably large, and there are significant habitat differences between the UCSD campus and the mountain coniferous forests; UCSD campus has a more open environment (making birds more visible) and a lower junco density (decreasing intraspecific competition) than that in the mountain forests. Given this information, which of the following evolutionary mechanisms do you think is most likely responsible for the difference between the UCSD and mountain populations?
a. gene flow
b. genetic drift
c. natural selection
d. mutation
Natural selection is the evolutionary mechanism driving the differences between UCSD and mountain populations of dark-eyed junco birds.
Explanation:Natural selection is the evolutionary mechanism most likely responsible for the difference between the UCSD and mountain populations of dark-eyed junco birds. In the UCSD campus, where birds are more visible and experience lower intraspecific competition, individuals with white tails are favored. On the other hand, in the mountain populations with different habitat characteristics, the frequency of white tails varies, indicating adaptation to their specific environment.
Which taxa are parasitized more by fungi than the others?
Answer:
Plants
Explanation:
Fungi have neither chlorophyll or chloroplasts. They feed on already manufactured food. They parasitize the plants because they have chlorophyll and make their own food. The fungi send haustoria to the roots of the plants where they obtain manufactured food.
A particular diploid plant species has 48 chromosomes, or two sets. A mutation occurs and gametes with 48 chromosomes are produced. If self-fertilization occurs, the zygote will have _____ set(s) of chromosomes.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Answer:
D. 4
Explanation:
The mentioned plant species is diploid and have 48 chromosomes. A diploid organism has two complete sets of chromosomes. This means that the diploid plant species have two complete sets of chromosomes. Mutation results in the formation of a diploid gamete having a total of 48 chromosomes (two complete sets of chromosomes). Self-fertilization of such mutated diploid gamete would produce a zygote with 48 (2 sets of chromosomes) + 48 (2 sets of chromosomes) = 96 chromosomes. Therefore, the resultant zygote would have a total of four sets of chromosomes.
Distinguish between a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule
Answer:
Explanation:
In the kidney the renal corpuscle are part of a nephron that consists of a glomerulus and a glomerular capsule( Bowman's capsule) they are used to filter blood in the nephron before urine is formed.
While renal tubule is a part of a nephron it is an extension of the renal corpuscle to the collecting duct
The renal tubule contains filtrate collected from the renal capsules and empties it into the duct system. The tubule allows the reabsorbption of filtrate back into the blood.
The renal corpuscle and renal tubule are main parts of the nephron in the kidney. The renal corpuscle is responsible for filtration of blood, while the renal tubule is responsible for reabsorption and secretion processes.
Explanation:The renal corpuscle and renal tubule are two main components of the functional unit of the kidney, known as the nephron. The renal corpuscle is composed of a glomerulus and Bowman's capsule, located at the beginning of the nephron. It is responsible for filtration of blood, allowing fluid and solutes to pass into the Bowman's capsule, while larger structures such as proteins and blood cells are retained.
On the other hand, the renal tubule, which extends from the Bowman's capsule, is where most of the reabsorption and secretion processes take place. This tubule includes the proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct, each with specific functions in maintaining body homeostasis through selective reabsorption and secretion.
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A silent mutation is the result of a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein to a stop codon.
A) results in a shorter mRNA transcript of the gene.
B) results in a protein that is truncated from the N terminal end.
C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein.
D) would not affect the primary structure of a protein.
Answer:
Explanation:
A results in a shorter mRNA transcript of the gene
Final answer:
A silent mutation is a type of mutation that does not change the protein product. It occurs when a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein results in a different codon that still encodes the same amino acid. Therefore, option C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein is the correct answer.
Explanation:
A silent mutation is a type of mutation that occurs when a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein results in a different codon that still encodes the same amino acid. This type of mutation does not change the protein product and is considered neutral. It can only be detected if the gene is sequenced. Therefore, option C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein is the correct answer.
Bacteria lack RNA-splicing machinery, which means they are unable to splice out introns from eukaryotic genes. To engineer a bacterium to produce a eukaryotic protein, it is necessary to synthesize a gene without introns. If you know the nucleotide sequence, you can _____.
Answer:
make a gene from the given mRNA without the introns.
Explanation:
Introns can be described as the non- coding regions of DNA. As they are non- coding, they are spliced out from the mRNA so that only the coding regions can be translated.
If we know a nucleotide sequence, then we can make a gene from it without added the introns. We can consider an mRNA strand and make a complementary strand from it, excluding the intron regions. Then from the DNA produced, we can make an mRNA without the introns and insert it into a bacterium.
A _____ consists of all the individuals of a given species that live and reproduce in a particular place
Answer:
Population
Explanation:
Population is a group of individuals that live in the same geographical area which have the ability to interbreed because they belong to the same species. So organisms of the same species when live in a particular area are considered in population but members of the same species that are geographically isolated and can not interbreed do not make a population.
Many population comes together to form community and many communities together forms an ecosystem. An ecosystem is a functional unit which is made up of many communities with interacts with its physical environment. So the correct answer is population.
Answer:
species
range
population
family
Explanation: either one will be correct
In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?
A) 2
B) 300
C) 150
D) 230
Answer:
B) 300
Explanation:
There are two types of alleles present for wing type in this population of Drosophila, c and c+. Various combinations of these two alleles will produce different phenotypes.
c+c+ : straight wings = 45
c+c: straight wings = 70
cc: curly wings = 35
Total flies = 150
Each fly has one gene with two alleles for wing type. Hence 150 flies will have 300 alleles in the gene pool.
Consider a cell in which one of the proteins involved in DNA replication is altered. This alteration results in an increased occurrence of single-stranded DNA breaks in the newly synthesized DNA. Which protein function is most likely nonfunctional in this situation?
A. The unwinding function of helicase
B. The fragment joining function of DNA ligase
C. The winding stress relief function of topoisomerase
D. The proofreading function of DNA polymerase
E. The strand separation function of single-stranded binding protein
Final answer:
The protein function that is most likely nonfunctional in this situation is the winding stress relief function of topoisomerase.
Explanation:
The protein function that is most likely nonfunctional in this situation is the winding stress relief function of topoisomerase.
Topoisomerase enzymes are responsible for breaking and reforming the DNA's phosphate backbone, which helps to relieve the supercoiling and winding stress during DNA replication. If the topoisomerase protein is altered, it would result in an increased occurrence of single-stranded DNA breaks in the newly synthesized DNA.
Therefore, option C, the winding stress relief function of topoisomerase, is the most likely nonfunctional protein in this situation.
Sometimes, pregnant women are very emotional. This is believed to be caused by extra estrogen and progesterone that are released during pregnancy and would be considered an effect on behavior.
Activational effect is the correct answer.
Activational effect is an impermanent hormonal effect that leads to a change in physiological activity or behavior in both humans and adult animals. For instance, when testosterone levels rise in male songbirds they become more aggressive and tend to engage in courtship behavior. Also, a pregnant woman may get more emotional than usual due to an extra level of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy.
Answer:
Activational effect is the correct answer.
In a factory there are many times that need to be performed someone has to order in stock supplies that are needed for the factory others we use the supplies to manufacture certain parts of the product someone else may have to put together all the pieces then the product has to be inspected and package for sale do you human body works in much the same way there are many times that need to be performed in the human body specialized cells have developed to perform all the little task that the human body needs to operate as a whole what is the main reason that multi celled organisms such as humans have developed specialized cells?
Answer:
The correct answer is cells can do more in less time.
Explanation:
Human body has developed specialized cell so that specific cells can carry out specific functions of the complex human body system.
Each body cells are specialized for their specific function for example heart cells act as pump,lung cells helps in gas exchange,blood cells helps in transport of biomolecules,muscle cells helps in the contraction and relaxation.
Thus the numerous functions of human body are divided among specific cell so that each cell will have low work load and can carry out their specific functions in less time.
Levels of biodiversity
Biodiversity can be studied at three levels: genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity.
Drag the words or phrases on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Words or phrases can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
1. increases
2. increases
3. decreases
4. decreases
5. increases
Final answer:
Biodiversity can be categorized into genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity, and is higher at lower latitudes, such as the tropics. Biodiversity's fluctuating nature is indicated by the ongoing discovery of new species. High biodiversity contributes to the resilience of ecosystems, and is essential for human welfare and survival.
Explanation:
Levels of Biodiversity
Biodiversity is the variety of life on Earth and is considered at multiple levels of organization, including genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity. Genetic diversity refers to the variation in the genes among individuals of the same species. Species diversity takes into account the number of different species within a community or a particular area. Ecosystem diversity looks at the variety of ecosystems in a biosphere, taking into consideration the variety of species and the complex interactions among them and with their abiotic environment.
It has been observed that biodiversity generally increases as one moves towards the tropics, meaning closer to the equator. This pattern is evident across most taxa. Current estimates suggest that the number of described species is around 1.5 million, and scientists continue to discover new species each year, indicating that biodiversity is a dynamic feature of our planet.
A high level of biodiversity is important for ecosystem resilience, which in turn is crucial for the survival and welfare of human populations. It impacts health, food security, and the overall functionality of ecosystems, which provide essential services to life on Earth.
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thick mucus to build up due to inoperative proteins. These proteins are reponsible for allowing chloride ions to pass through the cell membrane. These proteins are most likely ____________ proteins.
Final answer:
Cystic fibrosis involves defective integral membrane proteins known as CFTR which are responsible for chloride ion transport. A mutation in the CFTR gene disrupts this process, leading to the production of thick mucus that obstructs various organs.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease characterized by the production of thick and sticky mucus that causes obstructions in respiratory and digestive organs. The proteins responsible for allowing chloride ions to pass through the cell membrane are known as cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator or CFTR proteins. These are integral membrane proteins that normally function as ion channels to regulate the movement of Cl- ions across epithelial cell membranes.
When a person has cystic fibrosis, the mutated CFTR gene results in the production of a defective version of these proteins. This leads to a failure in the correct transport of Cl- ions out of the cells, disrupting water movement, and ultimately causing the mucus to become abnormally thick and sticky, which is problematic for organs like the lungs and pancreas.
Cranial nerve ______ conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain.
Answer:
Cranial Nerve VIII
Explanation:
Cranial nerve VIII is also known as vestibulocochlear nerve. It conducts equilibrium, balance and auditory (hearing) information to the brain. It is found in the inner ear.
There are in total 12 cranial nerves. In brief the roles and names of other nerves are:
CN I (Olfactory nerve): conducts sensation of smell to the brainCN II (Optic nerve): conducts visual information to the brainCN III (Occulomotor nerve): this nerve is important for eye movementsCN IV ( Trochlear nerve): this nerve is also important for eye movementCN V (Trigeminal nerve): this nerve conducts sensory information from faceCN VI (Abducens nerve): this nerve plays a role in eye movementCN VII (Facial nerve): this nerve is important for muscles of face and also plays a role in conducting taste sensation from tongueCN VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve): auditory information and equilibriumCN IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve): this nerve plays a role in conducting taste sensation from tongue, controls blood pressure and also innervates stylopharyngeus muslce (responsible for laryngeal and pharyngeal elevation)CN X (Vagus nerve): it supplies innervation to many visceral organs and also innervates pharyngeal and laryngeal musclesCN XI (Spinal accessory nerve): it innervates 2 important muscles; sternocleidomastoid and trapeziusCN XII (Hypoglossal nerve): this nerve innervates tongue musclesThe cranial nerve that conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain is the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).
The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as cranial nerve VIII, conducts both equilibrium and auditory information from the inner ear to the brain. It includes structures responsible for balance and hearing. Damage to these structures could cause deficiencies in either or both systems.
Explanation:The cranial nerve that conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain is the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII). This nerve carries both equilibrium and auditory sensations from the inner ear to the medulla. It is a part of the body's anatomy involved in our sense of balance and hearing.
The inner ear consists of the vestibule, which is the portion for equilibrium, composed of the utricle, saccule, and the three semicircular canals and the cochlea, which is responsible for transducing sound waves into a neural signal. These sensory nerves from the vestibule and cochlea travel side by side as the vestibulocochlear nerve, and synapse in nuclei of the superior medulla. Deficits in one or both systems could occur from damage to structures close to both nuclei.
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A 45 year-old male who is in good health presents with complaints of pain in his left heel. He states that the first few steps out of bed in the morning are extremely painful. He has no history of trauma. What is the likely etiology of his pain?
A. Achilles tendinitis
B. Plantar fasciitis
C. Calcaneal spur
D. Arthritis of the foot
Answer:
B. Plantar fasciitis
Explanation:
Plantar fasciitis occurs when the plantar fascia that joins your heel to your toes becomes swollen and painful as a result of constant straining. The plantar fascia, which has a web—like appearance, is very functional in providing support during movement and also acts as shock absorber. Continuous straining of this thick ligament when involved in activities that puts much strain on it for long often results in the inflammation of the plantar fascia. Excessive running or walking, standing for long periods, wearing of inadequate shoes, and constant injury that strains the ligament are major causes.
Final answer:
The 45 year-old male is likely suffering from plantar fasciitis, characterized by heel pain upon taking the first steps in the morning
Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of plantar fasciitis, which is the most likely etiology of his heel pain. The hallmark of plantar fasciitis is pain in the heel with the first few steps in the morning or after rest, which improves with movement but may return with prolonged standing or when standing up after sitting.
Plantar fasciitis results from inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs across the bottom of the foot and connects the heel bone to the toes.
A cell has a mutation that prevents it from breaking down unwanted proteins present in vesicles. Which cellular structure is most likely to be disrupted by this mutation?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- lysosomes
Explanation:
The proteins are formed in the endoplasmic reticulum of the cell which after secretion are destined to their usable sites. The unwanted proteins not used in the cells or the used proteins have to be destructed or degraded in the cell, function performed by an organelle called lysosomes.
The lysosomes is a double membrane organelle which contains acid hydrolases enzymes which have the ability to breakdown the macro-molecules.
According to the question, if mutation takes place in the organelle which breakdown the unwanted proteins, therefore, the organelle in the lysosomes and is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are incorrect? 1. Pseudounipolar neurons have one process that emerges from the cell body. 2. Bipolar neurons have one main dendrite and one axon and may be found in the retina. 3. Multipolar neurons have several dendrites and one axon and are the most common neuron found in the brain and spinal cord. 4. Afferent neurons carry information to effectors. 5. Motor neurons carry information about muscles to the spinal cord. 6. Interneurons connect sensory and motor neurons.
Answer:
Option (4) and (5).
Explanation:
Neurons is the structural and the functional unit of the nervous system. Two main types of neuron on the basis of their function are sensory neuron and motor neuron.
Sensory neuron also known as afferent neuron that helps in the transmission of impulse from the sensory receptor to the brain and spinal cord. Motor neurons helps in the transmission of nerve impulse from the central nervous system to the effector organ.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4) and (5).
Pseudounipolar neurons have one process that emerges from the cell body, is the incorrect statement.
Explanation:Out of the given options, the incorrect statement is:
Pseudounipolar neurons have one process that emerges from the cell body.Pseudounipolar neurons actually have a single process that divides into two branches, one acting as a dendrite and the other as an axon. The other statements are correct:
Bipolar neurons have one main dendrite and one axon and may be found in the retina.Multipolar neurons have several dendrites and one axon and are the most common neuron found in the brain and spinal cord.Afferent neurons carry information to effectors.Motor neurons carry information about muscles to the spinal cord.Interneurons connect sensory and motor neurons.Learn more about neurons here:https://brainly.com/question/13079309
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Suppose two individuals with the genotype AaBbCc are mated. Assuming that the genes are not linked, what fraction of the offsprings is expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) 1/64
Answer:
D. 1/64
Explanation:
The desired genotype for the progeny = aabbcc (homozygous recessive for all the three loci). The probability of getting a progeny with a homozygous recessive genotype can be calculated during the product rule.
The parent genotypes= AaBbCc x AaBbCc
Aa x Aa = 1/4 AA: 1/2 Aa: 1/4 aa
Bb x Bb = 1/4 BB: 1/2 Bb: 1/4 bb
Cc x Cc = 1/4 CC: 1/2 Cc: 1/4 cc
Therefore, the probability of getting a progeny which is homozygous recessive for all the three traits (aabbcc)= 1/4 aa x 1/4 bb x 1/4 cc = 1/64
______________________ is considered a recombination event for sexual reproduction because it merges the genetic material from two genetically distinct individuals, creating a genetically unique individual.a. Independent assortmentb. Nondisjunctionc. Homologous separationd. Crossing overe. Fertilization
Answer:
Fertilisation
Explanation:
Fertilisation occurs through the fusion of two gametes, one from each parent, together in sexual reproduction.
Answer:
The correct answer is option e. "Fertilization".
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction involves the mating of two or more individuals with different genres for the creation of new life. The basis of sexual reproduction is fertilization, considered a recombination event that merges the genetic material from two genetically distinct individuals, creating a genetically unique individual. The recombination event is what allows that brothers and sister are not identical even if they share the same mother and father.
The text states that ribonucleotides can diffuse through some types of liposomes. It is likely that the lipids present early in chemical evolution had short chains. Would liposomes formed from these types of lipids be more or less permeable to ribonucleotides than if early cells formed from long-chained lipids?
Liposomes is more permeable
Explanation:
Alec D Bangham discovered Liposomes in the 1960 at the Institute of Babraham and still Now it is field of research. With the help of natural lipids first formation is composed.
At present scientist can include natural and synthetic lipids and also surfactants. Now The capability of liposomes has work as hydrophilic and lipophilic agents. According to their formation method it can be established.
Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?
a) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place.
b) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP.
c) The solute moves against the concentration gradient.
d) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
Answer:
The solute moves against the concentration gradient. (Ans. C)
Explanation:
Active transport: In this transport a substance moves against a concentration gradient. Active transport mechanism expending the energy to maintain ions or molecules right concentration in living cells. Active transport basically divided into two types:
1) Primary active transport: In which for the movement of ions across the membrane against their gradient they use directly a source of chemical energy from ATP. Example of active transport is sodium potassium pump.
2) Secondary active transport: It is also called as co-transport. They are using electrochemical gradient which is generated by active transport. In which for the movement of ions across the membrane against their gradient, and they don't require a source of chemical energy from ATP.
ATP-driven active transport mechanisms require the use of ATP and move substances against their concentration gradient. One typical feature is that the transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
Explanation:ATP-driven active transport mechanisms require the use of ATP, the energy currency of cells. These mechanisms move substances against their concentration gradient, meaning from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, which requires energy input. One typical feature of ATP-driven active transport is that the transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
Sam sees a brand new car that he would love to buy, but then he starts thinking about how much money he has already put into the car he currently owns. He just paid $700 to have the radiator in his car fixeD. Ultimately, he decides to not buy the new car. What principle best explains Sam’s decision?
Select one:
a. mental accounting
b. the sunk cost fallacy Correct
c. the endowment effect
d. framing effects
Answer:
b.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that the principle that best explains Sam's decision is the sunk cost fallacy. This term refers to a cost that cost that has been incurred but cannot be recovered or changed. Usually these costs were known before being incurred and do not affect future costs for the individual or business. Which is basically what Sam is mentioning when talking about all the money that he put into his already owned car, which influenced his decision on whether or not to buy a new car.
Based on the information in the video, which of the following correctly answers these three questions:
What was the leading cause of death in the United States in the early 1970s?
What is the leading cause of death in the United States today?
What is predicted to be the leading cause of death in the United States 10 years from now?
a) automobile accidents; cardiovascular disease; HIV/AIDS
b) cancer; cardiovascular disease; cancer
c) bacterial infections; automobile accidents; cancer
d) cancer; HIV/AIDS; cardiovascular disease
e) cardiovascular disease; cancer; bacterial infections
Answer:
The leading cause of death in the United States in the early 1970s were the bacterial infections, nowadays are the automobile accidents and 10 years from now is predicted to be cancer.
Explanation:
In the early 1970s, there was a massive bacterial infection thatcaused the death of hundreds of american citizens, which also was the result of the medical development.
Nowadays the automobile accidents are very common for reseveral reasons such as drogs, sleeping problems.
Because of the alimentation of americans is predicted that the cancer will be the leading cause of death in the United States 10 years from now.
What will be the length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA (in number of bases) encoding a protein made up of 100 amino acids?
Answer:
300
Explanation:
300
Each codon has three bases and would therefore have 300 bases for the mRNA( massenger RNA coding) coding for 100 amino acids.
The open reading frame (ORF) in molecular genetics is the component of a reading frame that can be interpreted.
The length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA encoding a protein made up of 100 amino acids can be estimated by multiplying the number of amino acids by the average number of codons per amino acid.
Explanation:The length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA can be determined by calculating the number of nucleotides in the coding sequence that corresponds to the protein. Since each amino acid is encoded by a triplet of nucleotides called a codon, and there are 20 amino acids in the protein sequence, we can use this information to find the length of the ORF.
For each amino acid, there is a specific codon that encodes it. This means that there are 64 possible codons (4 x 4 x 4) and 61 of them correspond to amino acids, while 3 are stop codons. The start codon (AUG) also encodes the initiation of translation. Therefore, we can estimate the length of the ORF by converting the number of amino acids to the number of codons.
Since there are 61 codons that correspond to amino acids, we can divide the number of amino acids in the protein (100) by the average number of codons per amino acid (61/20 = 3.05). This gives us an estimate of approximately 305 codons. Since each codon consists of three nucleotides, we can multiply 305 by 3 to find the length of the ORF, which is 915 nucleotides.
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A method used by horticulturalists when they rotate the use of fields—planting crops on a particular piece of land for a period of time, then letting it go fallow as they move on and begin planting again in a different area—is called:
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Crop rotation
Explanation:
When the growth of a type of crop which uses soil nutrients in abundance and then growing another crop in the same filed led to the decrease in the production of the next crop.
Thus farmers adapted to avoid such farming practices and developed a new practice which allowed the land to become fertile again so that the growth of next crop will not be affected.
The practice involved the planting of a crop on a piece of land then leaving the soil ploughed and unsown for a longer period of time and growing corp on another piece of land allowing the time to restore the nutrient content. This practice is known as "crop rotation".
Thus, crop rotation is the correct answer.
The framework of the spleen is created by a network of reticular fibers made by reticular cells. The framework of the spleen is created by a network of reticular fibers made by reticular cells. True or False?
Answer: True.
Spleen framework is created by reticular fibres from reticular cells.
Explanation:
Spleen is an organ found mostly in vertebrates. It develop from mesenchymal cells within the dorsal of mesogastrium near the greater curvature stomach. The mesencymal cells then divide and differentied to form framework of connective tissues of spleen. The framework of spleen is created by reticular fibres of the reticular cells. Reticular fibres are fibres in the connective tissue that is composed of type iii collagen secreted by reticular cells. Spleen function in filtering of blood. It plays a major role in red blood cells and immune system.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The spleen is a lymphoid organ with several hematological and immunological functions. It is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity. Externally, the spleen is surrounded by a layer of tissue called a capsule, formed by dense fibrous connective tissue, which emits trabeculae inwards. The framework of the connective tissue located between the trabeculae is formed by a network of reticular fibers (which normally gives support) and it’s made by reticular cells (which are found in the tissue and lymphoid organs), being lymphocytes (cells smallest free connective tissue) one of the most predominant elements.
If a father with bushy eyebrows and a mother with normal eyebrows have 12 children with bushy eyebrows, how many children would you expect to find with normal eyebrows?
Answer:mmmm
Explanation:
Active transport requires the input of energy into a system so as to move solutes against their electrochemical and concentration gradients. WHich of the following is not one of the common ways to perform active transport?
A. NA+-Coupled
B. APT-driven
C. K+-coupled
D. light-driven
Answer:
K+-coupled.
Explanation:
The transport of the solutes may occur along the concentration gradient or against the concentration gradient. Two main types of transport that occur in living organism are active process and passive process.
The passive transport do not require the energy for its transport whereas the active transport require energy. The K+ coupled transport do not require any energy molecule for its transport and easily transfer by the leaky channel. Hence, the K+-coupled transport is not the common active transport.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).