Answer:
Osmolarity:
Osmolarity may be defined as the number of solutes dissolved in per solution of liters. The osmolarity plays an important role in the human body as it maintains the water electrolyte balance in the body. The osmolarity of the human plasma is about 275-299 milli-osmoles/kilogram.
Hemopoiesis:
Hemopoiesis may be defined as the process of formation of blood cells in the body. The main types of blood cells formed during this process are red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. The hemopoiesis majorly occurs in the bone marrow cells.
Protein phosphorylation is commonly involved with all of the following except
a. activation of receptor tyrosine kinases.
b. activation of protein kinase molecules.
c. activation of G protein-coupled receptors.
d. regulation of transcription by signaling molecules.
Protein phosphorylation is not involved in activation of G protein coupled receptor.
Further Explanation:
Roles of Protein phosphorylation are :
To involve in signal transduction.To help in membrane transport .To regulate cell cycle.G- protein coupled receptor is activated through the external signals in the forms of ligand.
In this, ligand binds to the active site and cause conformation changes in receptor and active G- protein.
Protein phosphorylation is a key process in many biological functions but it is not directly involved in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Those receptors are activated by the binding to a specific signaling molecule, not phosphorylation.
Explanation:Protein phosphorylation is a biochemical process that adds a phosphate group to a protein molecule, significantly affecting its function. Indeed, protein phosphorylation is involved in the activation of receptor tyrosine kinases, the activation of protein kinase molecules, and regulation of transcription by signaling molecules. However, phosphorylation is not directly involved in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Instead, these receptors are activated by binding to a specific signaling molecule or ligand, leading to a cascade of signaling events within the cell.
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What is the probability of producing a child that will phenotypically resemble either one of the two parents in the following four crosses? How many phenotypically different kinds of progeny could potentially result from each of the four crosses? a. Aa Bb Cc Ddx aa bb cc dd b. aa bb cc ddx AA BB CC DD c. Aa Bb cc Ddx Aa Bb cc Dd d. aa bb cc ddx aa bb cc dd
Final answer:
In genetic crosses involving parents with different combinations of dominant and recessive alleles, the likelihood and number of phenotypically different progenies vary. Simple crosses with one parent being completely dominant and the other completely recessive result in offspring that phenotypically resemble both parents. More complex crosses yield a greater variety of possible phenotypes.
Explanation:
The question involves predicting the potential phenotypes and genotypes of offspring from various genetic crosses. Using basic principles of Mendelian genetics and the rules for multihybrid fertilization, we assess each cross for the number of phenotypically different kinds of progeny and their respective probabilities. These principles include analyzing the segregation of alleles and applying the product and sum rules for determining probabilities in genetic outcomes.
Cross Analysis
Aa Bb Cc Dd x aa bb cc dd: This cross between two parents with completely heterozygous and completely homozygous recessive genotypes respectively, would result in offspring that are all Aa Bb Cc Dd, resembling both parents phenotypically since all traits are dominantly represented. There is 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny. aa bb cc dd x AA BB CC DD: This cross results in offspring all having heterozygous genotypes for each trait (Aa Bb Cc Dd), again resembling both parents phenotypically. Only 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny is possible. Aa Bb cc Dd x Aa Bb cc Dd: Considering each gene separately and using the product rule, the offspring could have a variety of combinations, leading to multiple phenotypically different kinds. We apply rules for multihybrid crosses leading to a varied mix of phenotypes, potentially resembling both parents in various combinations. aa bb cc dd x aa bb cc dd: This cross between two homozygous recessive parents results in offspring identical to the parents with the genotype aa bb cc dd. There is 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny, which directly resembles both parents.
The probability of producing a child that phenotypically resembles either one of the two parents in these crosses varies, but in cases where one parent is completely dominant and the other is completely recessive, all offspring will phenotypically resemble both parents due to the dominance of traits. In more complex crosses, like the third example, multiple phenotypes can result, thereby reducing the probability that an offspring will resemble one parent over the other.
Which of the following is not one of Chargoff's rules?
a. The amount of A, T, G, and C in DNA varies from species to species, but not within species
b. In each species, the amount of A = T and the amount of G = C
c. In every species, the amount of purines (A+G) equals the amount of pyrimidines (T+C)
d. In every species, DNA is a simple repeating polymer made up of the same four nucleotides.
Answer:
The answer is:
d. In every species, DNA is a simple repeating polymer made up of the same four nucleotides.
Explanation:
Chargaff’s rules are based in the quantitative relationship of the nucleotides (adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine) that form part of the double strand of DNA.
One of the rules states that the amount of adenine (A) is the same as thymine (T), and that the amount of guanine (G) is the same as cytosine (C). A=T, G=C
Being said in another way: the total amount of purine bases it’s the same as the total amount of pyrimidine bases. (A + G= C + T).
The second rule states that the composition of DNA (the amount of nucleotides) is different from one species to other, but nor within species.
Explain the importance of immunological memory cells. Describe in detail how and when memory cells arise and explain how they form the basis for effective immunizations.
Explanation:
Immunological memory is the property of the immune system to store information about a stimulus so it can mount an effective response if it encounters the same stimulus again being this second response quicker and stronger even after years since the first encounter.
This kind of response is dependent on many subpopulations within T and B lymphocytes and NK cells. When encountering an antigen, B cells recognize it by membrane antibody specifically binding to the antigen and then being activated to expand rapidly with their progeny clones differentiating into plasma and memory B cells, these last ones have a long life span to remain in the body, ready when another encounter with the same stimulus occurs, this is how the basis for effective immunizations happens.
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Scientific evidence indicates that the CO2 added to the air by the burning of wood and fossil fuels is contributing to global warming, a rise in global temperature. Tropical rain forests are estimated to be responsible for approximately 20% of global photosynthesis, yet the consumption of large amounts of CO2 by living trees is thought to make little or no net contribution to reduction of global warming. Why might this be? (Hint: What processes in both living and dead trees produce CO2?)
Answer:
The trees in tropical rainforests exhibit very less or no effect on the decline of global warming as these living species by themselves donate to the emanation of carbon dioxide via the process of respiration. Though the trees use carbon dioxide in the process of photosynthesis, however, they balance this is donating the carbon dioxide back to the atmosphere via respiration.
The process of photosynthesis takes place only at the time of day, however, the process of respiration takes place both during day and night and in certain plants known as C3 plants, who exhibit one more kind of respiration known as photorespiration, which takes place in the existence of light and again discharges carbon dioxide.
With some exemptions, the majority of the tropical trees are C3 plants. Thus, in spite of contributing 20 percent of the global photosynthesis, their contribution to diminishing global warming is negligible or nil because of the production of carbon dioxide by the process of respiration.
The processes of respiration in plants, deforestation/decay of trees or bush burning contribute largely to global carbon dioxide burden.
Plants take in carbon dioxide via the process of photosynthesis. As such, plants are expected to contribute to the reduction of the global carbon dioxide burden especially in the tropical rain forest which has an abundance of vegetation.
However, plants also undergo cellular respiration which produce carbon dioxide. In the process of cellular respiration, oxygen breaks down glucose to yield carbon dioxide and water. This contributes to the global burden of carbon dioxide thereby counteracting the large amounts of CO2 taken in by living trees.
Secondly, when trees die or are cut down and left to rot or when trees are burned, CO2 is released. It is estimated that about 30 million acres of forest lands are lost yearly to deforestation, this results in the release of about 1.5 billion tonnes of CO2. It is suggested that about 10 per cent of global carbon dioxide emissions result from deforestation especially in the tropical rain forest.
Therefore, consumption of large amounts of CO2 by living trees makes little or no net contribution to reduction of global warming.
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Which of the following is the correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the codon sequence AUG?
a. AUG
b. GUA
c. TAC
d. UAC
e. CAU
Answer:
d. UAC
Explanation:
An anticodon, present on tRNA, is the complementary sequence to a determined codon on the mRNA. tRNA is responsible for placing the aminoacids in the correct order when a protein is being translated, and it does so by complementary binding the codons on the mRNA. Each tRNA can hold a different aminoacid, so, for example, the codon AUG encodes the aminoacid methionine, and this means that only a tRNA that has an anticodon with the sequence UAC will be able to hold metionine and place it on its position on the protein sequence.
Final answer:
The correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the mRNA codon AUG is UAC. This anticodon-codon pairing is essential for the proper translation of genetic information from mRNA into proteins during protein synthesis.
Explanation:
The correct anticodon sequence corresponding to the codon sequence AUG is UAC. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides forming a unit of genetic code in a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule, corresponding to a complementary codon in messenger RNA (mRNA). During the translation process in protein synthesis, the anticodon pairs with a codon according to base-pairing rules (adenine (A) with uracil (U) and cytosine (C) with guanine (G)). Since the mRNA codon AUG codes for the initiation of protein synthesis and also specifies the incorporation of methionine (Met), the tRNA molecule with the anticodon UAC is the one that pairs with it, bringing methionine into the growing peptide chain.
Visualize the structural formula of each of the following hydrocarbons. Which hydrocarbon has a double bond in its carbon skeleton?
(A) C3H8
(B) C2H6
(C) C2H4
(D) C2H2
Answer:
C₂H₄
Explanation:
A hydrocarbon with a double bond is called an alkene. The general formula for an alkene is CₙH₂ₙ where as the n represents the number of carbons.
Taking your problem as an example:
C₂H₄ has 2 carbons, as indicated by the subscript beside the chemical symbol of Carbon.
if C = 2 then n = 2
CₙH₂ₙ = C₂H₂₍₂) = C₂H₄
Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O2 occurs in
(A) cyanobacteria.
(B) archaea.
(C) gram-positive bacteria.
(D) chemoautotrophic bacteria
Answer:
Cyanobacteria. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes, are a phylum of bacteria. They are also called as blue-green algae and obtain their energy through the process of photosynthesis. They are commonly found in fresh water and terrestrial environment such as land, in rocks even in animal cells (fur).
Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic (oxygenic) bacteria. They harvest the energy of sun, absorb carbon dioxide and release O2. Cyanobacteria also contain chlorophyll such as plants and algae and convert carbon dioxide to sugar through the process of carbon fixation.
Cyanobacteria lack nucleus and other organelles like found in algae and plants. Instead of these they have double outer cell membrane and folded inner thylakoid member which are used in the process of photosynthesis.
Plant like photosynthesis that releases oxygen occurs in cyanobacteria and the correct option is option A.
Cyanobacteria are a group of prokaryotic organisms that are photosynthetic. They are also known as "blue-green algae" because they produce a blue-green pigment called phycocyanin.
Cyanobacteria are found in a wide variety of habitats, including freshwater, saltwater, and soil. They are also found in extreme environments, such as hot springs and deserts.
Cyanobacteria are important for the environment because they produce oxygen. They are also responsible for the formation of some types of rocks, such as stromatolites.
Thus, the ideal selection is option A.
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Describe the path that air takes as it enters and passes through the human respiratory system.
Answer:
In our respiratory system, there is a pair of external nostril situated above the upper lip that receives atmospheric air and passed to the pharynx (a common passage for air and food). The pharynx passed this air to the trachea via larynx (known as the soundbox). The trachea is an extended part which is divided into left and right primary bronchi. Bronchi divide into secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, and bronchioles that ending up in thin terminal bronchioles. Each terminal bronchiole constitutes a number of irregular-walled, thin and vascularised bag-like structures called alveoli which are the primary sites of gases exchange.
If photosynthesis is happening which of the following would you expect to happen? Choose all that apply.
a. 02 levels will rise
b. CO2 levels will rise
c. O2 levels will fall
d. CO2 evels will fall
Answer:
The correct answer will be options-A and D.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a complex process which forms the glucose, the energy molecule of the plant. Photosynthesis takes place in the two phases: light-dependent reaction and light-independent reactions.
The light-dependent reaction leads to the breakdown of the water molecule which produces oxygen whereas in light-independent reaction, the carbon dioxide gets fixed during the carboxylation step of cycle utilizing the carbon dioxide.
Therefore, if photosynthesis takes place then it will lead to a rise in the level of oxygen and reduction in the amount of carbon dioxide. Thus, options-A and D are the correct answer.
During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide to create glucose and release oxygen. Hence, O2 levels rise, and CO2 levels fall.
Explanation:In the process of photosynthesis, plants use sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose and oxygen (O2). Thus, during photosynthesis, you can expect that the levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) will fall as it is being used up, and the levels of oxygen (O2) will rise as it is being produced. So, the correct choices would be: a. O2 levels will rise, and d. CO2 levels will fall.
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Huntington disease is a rare fatal, degenerative neurological disease in which individuals start to show symptoms, on average, in their 40s. It is caused by a dominant allele. Joe, a man in his 20s, just learned that his father has Huntington disease. a. What is the probability that Joe will also develop the disease? b. Joe and his new wife have been eager to start a family. What is the probability that their first child will eventually develop the disease?
Answer:
a. 50% b. 25%
Explanation:
If you have a dominant disease, you will always have it if you have the gen.
Joe's father has it.
If his father was heterozygous dominant, he has two genes for the same trait and could have the other gen recessive.
In this case, you have a 50% chance of joe having the disease.
If his wife did not have the disease, and joe has it, the chances of their child to have it is 25%
To know that, you can draw the possibilities.
Joe's father: Aa (A is the dominant, sick gen)
Joe's mother: aa
Aa x aa = Aa Aa aa aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
Joe's possibilities: Aa or aa
Joe's wife: aa
Possibilities of offspring:
Aa x aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
aa x aa = 100% not having the disease.
Their child has 1/4 posibilities to have it
Joe has a 50% chance of having inherited Huntington's disease from his father, and if Joe carries the allele, there is also a 50% chance that he will pass the allele on to his child, potentially resulting in the child developing the disease.
Explanation:Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning only one copy of the defective allele is enough to cause the disease. If a person has the disease, they carry at least one copy of the mutated allele.
a. Given Joe's father has Huntington's disease, and assuming his mother does not carry the gene (since it's not indicated that she has the disease or is a carrier), Joe has a 50% probability of having inherited the disease-causing allele from his father.
b. If Joe inherited the Huntington allele, there's a 50% chance that he would pass this allele on to any of his children. Therefore, the probability that Joe and his wife's first child will eventually develop the disease is also 50%, provided Joe carries the allele. If Joe does not have the allele, then their child cannot inherit the disease from him.
What are the parts of the Hiv Virus and how do they take part in infecting cells, but also maybe helping the virus survive?
Answer:
Envelope, Capsid, Enzymes, RNA, Glycoproteins
Explanation:
HIV is the Human Immunodeficiency Virus which belongs to the retrovirus. HIV infects humans and causes AIDS ( Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). The several parts of HIV are there;
1. HIV Envelope: It is the outer covering of the HIV.
2. Capsid: it is the HIV core which contains genetic material RNA.
3. HIV Enzymes: Enzymes reverse transcriptase are responsible for the entire life cycle of HIV to synthesize the viral protein.
4. HIV RNA: RNA is the genetic material of HIV.
5. Glycoproteins: These are the protein spikes that are fitted in the HIV envelope.
HIV is a retrovirus which infects the WBCs of the human beings and attached to the helper T-cells (T4 lymphocytes). They control over the host DNA and replicate in the host's cell and synthesize more viruses.
Infectious HIV can be recovered from the dead body of human beings in between 11 and 16 days after death if the body keeps at a low temperature i.e. 2 degree Celsius.
The term cancer means
A) out of control.
B) cell division.
C) crab
D) lobster
Answer: B) Cell Division
Explanation: Cancer is the rapid division of cells. It comes in many forms (Eg: Brain Cancer, Breast Cancer) and can be deadly.
Alteration of DNA or Chromatin structure is a form of gene regulation seen more in Eukaryotes than Bacteria, why is this?
Answer:
Eukaryotes are more composite in comparison to prokaryotes like bacteria. In eukaryotes, the processes of translation and transcription take place in distinct compartments like translation take place in cytosol and transcription takes place in the nucleus.
However, in bacteria both the procedures take place in cytosol as the genetic substance of bacteria is found in the mid of the cell, which lacks nuclear membrane.
In prokaryotes these processes are comparatively simple, however, in eukaryotes, these processes are highly composite and need regulation. In prokaryotes the control takes place only at the level of transcription, while in eukaryotes the regulation of gene takes place at both transcription and posttranslational level.
Predict phenotypes associated with nondisjunction of sex chromosomes.
Answer: The new daughter cells will have an abnormal amount of genetic material. That is called aneuploidy and it is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes. Different clinical conditions are the result of this nondisjunction.
Explanation:
Normal cells are diploids, that means they have two copies of each gene, one of each chromosome. So normal cells have two homologous chromosomes, one from each parent.
During anaphase of cell division, each pair of chromosomes is separated by the mitotic spindle. The separated chromosomes are then pulled by the spindle to opposite poles of the cell, and eventually will end up in the new daughter cells.
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate properly during cell division, so it is the miss segregation of them. The new daughter cells will have an abnormal amount of genetic material. Different clinical conditions are the result of this nondisjunction.
Sex chromosomes participates in sex determination of an individual. Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY) So nondisjunction of sex chromosomes could be:
XX: one cell with no chromosome and the other cell with two X chromosomes.XY: one cell with no chromosomes and the other cell with XY chromosomes.According to which gametes are fused during fertilization, different phenotypes can be given. For example, if a gamete with one chromosome fuses with another gamete with two chromosomes, the result will be an individual with three chromosomes (it could be XXY, or XXX) called trisomy.
Triple X syndrome is characterized by an extra X chromosome in females. Those affected are often taller than average, but most females have a normal sexual development. Klinefelter syndrome is known XXY individuals, and it causes infertility in males, breast growth, less body hair and weaker muscles.
And if a gamete with no chromosome fuses also with another gamete with no chromosome, the result is a nullisomy. But due to the lack of genetic material, the nullisomic gametes are rendered unviable for fertilization.
And if a gamete with no chromosome fuses with another gamete with one chromosome (normal) the result is a monosomy, the presence of only one chromosome from a pair. The result can be an individual who is X or Y. People with Turner syndrome have one X chromosome and it is the only monosomy that is seen in humans because other cases monosomy are lethal.
Any of those examples is called aneuploidy and it is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes.
How would the artificial mRNA 5'..GUGUGUGU'.. code? (a). two-base, not overlapping (b). two-base, overlapping (c). three-base, not overlapping d. three-base, overlapping e. four-base, not overlapping 3' be read according to each of the following models for the genetic
Answer:
The sequence given is:
5'....GUGUGUGU...3'
a. The two base, not overlapping model would be as follows:
GU GU GU GU
b. The two base overlapping model would be as follows:
GU UG GU UG GU UG GU UG
c. The three base non-overlapping model would be as follows:
GUG UGU GU
d. The three base overlapping model would be as follows:
GUG UGU GUG UGU GUG UGU GU
e. The four base non-overlapping model would be as follows:
GUGU GUGU
Which of the following statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOS) are correct? Select all that apply. options: Transgenic goats have been engineered with a human gene that produces blood anticoagulant protein. Transgenic mice are frequently used to study the effects of gene mutations. Transgenic bacteria are used to produce protein for human consumption. Transgenic bacteria are used to produce human growth hormone.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOS) can have various applications, including producing anticoagulant proteins in goats and studying gene mutations in mice. Transgenic bacteria are also used to produce proteins for human consumption.
Explanation:The correct statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOS) are:
Transgenic goats have been engineered with a human gene that produces blood anticoagulant protein. This means that these goats can produce blood anticoagulant proteins that can be used for medical purposes.Transgenic mice are frequently used to study the effects of gene mutations. These mice have specific genes modified to understand the effects of genetic mutations on different aspects of biology.Transgenic bacteria are used to produce protein for human consumption. Through genetic engineering, these bacteria can produce specific proteins that can be used for various purposes, including human consumption.Learn more about Genetically modified organisms (GMOS) here:https://brainly.com/question/32271387
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Final answer:
Correct statements about GMOs include the engineering of transgenic goats to produce a blood anticoagulant protein, the use of transgenic mice to study gene mutations, and the use of transgenic bacteria to produce proteins like human growth hormone for human consumption.
Explanation:
Among the statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOs), several are correct:
Transgenic goats have indeed been engineered with a human gene to produce a blood anticoagulant protein in their milk, which has been approved by the FDA for use in humans.Transgenic mice are commonly utilized in research to study the effects of gene mutations, providing valuable insight into genetic functions and diseases.Transgenic bacteria are employed in the production of proteins for human consumption, such as insulin and various other medically important substances.Additionally, transgenic bacteria have been used to produce human growth hormone, among other proteins, for therapeutic purposes.
What is an antigen? Antibody?
Answer:
Explanation:
Antibodies are proteins manufactured by the body that help fight against foreign substances called antigens.
Antigens are any substance that stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies. Antigens can be bacteria, viruses, or fungi that cause infection and disease
In Bufo marinus, what is the name of the posterior part of the vertebral column?
a. 9th vertebrae
b. 10th vertebrae
c. urostyle
d. hypoglossal nerve
Answer:
c. urostyle
Explanation:
Urostyle is the given name to the particular structure involving the last group of vertebrates which are fused in a single posterior bone in amphibians.
All of the following are respiratory enzyme complexes involved in the electron transport chain except?
a. NADH dehydrogenase
b. NADPH dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome C reductase
d. Cytochrome C oxidase
Answer:
NADPH dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Electron transport chain may be defined as the sequential steps of transfer of electrons through the complexes and couple with proton gradient. The ATP is generated by the electron transport chain.
NADPH dehydrogenase is an ezymes that are used for the conversion of NADPH into NADH+. The NADH dehydrogenase is complex I of the electron transport chain. The NADPH dehydrogenase is not the enzymes complexes and not involved in the electron transport chain.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Final answer:
The electron transport chain in mitochondria does not include NADPH dehydrogenase, which is instead associated with processes like photosynthesis. The other complexes listed are involved in the different steps of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
The subject of this question is the respiratory enzyme complexes involved in the electron transport chain, specifically which one is not part of this process. The correct answer to the question is b. NADPH dehydrogenase. The other options provided are indeed part of the electron transport chain, as follows:
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase or NADH-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase) accepts electrons from NADH.Complex III (Cytochrome C reductase) receives electrons from coenzyme Q and passes them to cytochrome c.Complex IV (Cytochrome C oxidase) receives electrons from cytochrome c and completes the electron transport chain by reducing oxygen to water.NADPH dehydrogenase is not a component of the mitochondrial electron transport chain; rather, it is associated with other processes such as photosynthesis in plants.
What are the stages of labor and delivery?
A. Contractions and delivery
B. Dilation and delivery
C. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta
D. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby
E. Labor and delivery
The correct answer is C. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta
Explanation:
Labor and delivery is divided into three main stages: the first stage includes the latent phase in which cervical dilation begins (3 to 5 cm) along with mild contractions and the active phase in which strong contractions occur along with complete or almost complete dilation; the second phase is the fetus expulsion or delivery in which the cervix is fully dilated and the baby is born; and the third stage is the delivery or expulsion of the placenta that occurs as the placenta separates from the uterus and is expulsed through mild contractions. Thus, stages of labor and delivery are dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
L&D is divided up into 3 parts.
1st is when the cervix dilates from 1cm to 10 cm. Can last from anywhere from 10 hours to a couple days.
2nd is shorter and is the pushing phase. Can last anywhere from 5 minutes to 3 hours.
3rd is the expulsion of the placenta. Can last from 10 minutes to 1 hour.
Over a period of several years, a large hospital kept track of the number of births of babies displaying the trait achondroplasia. Achondroplasia is a very rare autosomal dominant condition resulting in dwarfism with abnormal body proportions. After 120,000 births, it was noted that there had been 27 babies born with achondroplasia. One physician was interested in determining how many of these dwarf babies result from new mutations and whether the apparent mutation rate in his area was higher than normal. He looked up the families of the 27 dwarf births and discovered that 4 of the dwarf babies had a dwarf parent. What is the apparent mutation rate of the achondroplasia gene in this population? Is it unusually high or low?
Answer:
In the population of the study, mutation in the achondroplasia gene is unusually high
Explanation:
In this population, the incidence of genetic mutation that leads to achondroplasia would be 6 children for every 30,000 births. In the general population, achodroplasia has an incidence of 1 per 30,000 births, which indicates that in this specific population, the mutation rate is high above average, which can be explained by a high prevalence of the gene in the population.
Achondroplasia is a genetic disease with inheritance of an autosomal dominant pattern and to suffer from the disease, only one copy of the defective gene is necessary.However, in recent years after several studies it has been possible to demonstrate that even achondroplasia could be generated even in new mutations in the germ cells of the parents.
Final answer:
Explanation of the apparent mutation rate in a population for the achondroplasia gene and interpretation of the findings.
Explanation:
Achondroplasia Mutation Rate Calculation: The apparent mutation rate of the achondroplasia gene in this population can be calculated by considering the number of new mutations. Out of the 27 babies born with achondroplasia, 4 had a dwarf parent, indicating 23 new mutations. So, the apparent mutation rate is 23/120,000, which is 0.00019 or 0.019%.
Interpretation of Mutation Rate: The apparent mutation rate in this case is relatively low, as only a small percentage of the births exhibited new mutations. It suggests that the mutation rate in this population for the achondroplasia gene is not unusually high.
Predict the effects of the following types of gene mutations on the protein encoded by that gene (your answer can be just a few words for each).
Nonsense mutation
Missense mutation
Synonymous (silent) mutation
Single nucleotide insertion or deletion
Three nucleotide deletion
Chromosomal translocation
Answer:
Nonsense mutation: it causes a premature stop codon, so the protein cannot be fully synthesized.
Missense mutation: it causes change on the aminoacid encoded, so it can cause a change in the protein structure if the new aminoacid doesn't have the same chemichal properties as the original.
Synonymous (silent) mutation: it causes no change, the same aminoacid is encoded.
Single nucleotide insertion or deletion: changes the entire structure of the protein because it shifts the reading frame.
Three nucleotide deletion: one aminoacid will no longer be part of the protein, if this aminoacid was located, for example, on the active site of an enzyme, the protein could lose its function.
Chromosomal translocation: it can break a gene in two, causing the protein to no longer be able to be synthesized, or it can change the transcription regulation because it is now under the effect of other regulating sites that result in a different transcription pattern.
Which would have the highest melting temperature?
a. 5'-AATTCGAAT-3'
b. 5'-ACGGCTACG-3'
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Melting temperature may be defined as the temperature at which the DNA strand melts. The melting temperature depends on the Guanine and cytosine content of the DNA.
The thymine binds with Adenine with two hydrogen bonds whereas cytosine binds with guanine with three hydrogen bonds. More energy is required to break the guanine cytosine bonds and they have high temperature. The second strand 5'-ACGGCTACG-3' contains more GC content and hence have high melting temperature.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The two major theories of the origin of flight are the Top-down (arboreal) theory and the Bottom-up (terrestial) theory. However, there is a hybrid theory known as the WAIR theory. Which of these best describes that theory?
a. Wings were used to support gliding from tree to tree and eventually transitioned into a flapping motion
b. Wings were used to help predatory runners to keep their balance or add lift while leaping to catch prey
c. Wings were used to generate lift to takeoff during flapping flight
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
e. Wings were used to generate propulsion while swimming in the water
Answer:
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
Explanation:
According to Top-down ( arboreal ) theory, feathered bird/dinosaur were tree dwelling species. They leaped in between trees to catch prey or avoid predators. They evolved flight mechanism to be able to glide better. According to Bottom-up ( terrestrial ) theory, feathered bird/ dinosaur were ground dwelling species. They used feathers to be able to sprint better and maintain balance while doing so. They also got lift with the help of feathers before running.
Both of these theories either considered origin of flight as a mechanism formed from tree dwelling species or by ground dwelling species. WAIR theory or Wing Assisted Incline Running theory had components from both of them. According to it, birds could run along steep or inclined slopes using wings, so they neither had to be completely tree dwelling or completely ground dwelling. Wings propelled them up the slopes and also conserved their energy.
From which part of the embryvo are embryonic stem cell lines derived?
Answer:
Undifferentiated inner cell mass
Explanation:
Human embryo has two types of cells in its initial stage, trophoblast and inner cell mass. Trophoblast forms the placenta and inner cell mass form the entire human body. Inner cell mass are pluripotent in nature i.e. they can give rise to any body part under right conditions.
Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass. They are derived from pre implantation embryo since after implantation the inner cell mass begins to differentiate. Embryonic stem cells can replicate indefinitely without differentiating. They can give rise to all the three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. They can treat a number of disorders like genetic disorders, Parkinson's, spinal cord injury, cancers etc.
What is the probability that a family of five children will
consistof a blue, a brown, a blue, a blue and a brown -eyed child
in thisorder. Assume the parents are those in problem 1.
Revised below:
1) Two brown eyed parents are each heterozygous for a recessiveblue
eyed gene.
There is a 1/512 probability or roughly 0.2% chance of having this specific eye color order in five children.
1. Parental Genotypes:
Both parents are Bb, where B represents the dominant brown-eyed gene and b represents the recessive blue-eyed gene. Since they're heterozygous, each parent has a 50% chance of passing on either B or b to their children.
2. Offspring Possibilities:
For each child, there's a 50% chance of inheriting B from either parent and a 50% chance of inheriting b. This results in four possible genotypes for each child: BB (brown eyes), Bb (brown eyes but carrying the blue-eyed gene), bB (brown eyes but carrying the blue-eyed gene), and bb (blue eyes).
3. Specific Order Probability:
We want a specific sequence of eye colors: blue, brown, blue, blue, brown. Let's calculate the probability of each color happening independently in this order:
First child: Blue eyes (bb) – probability of both parents passing the b gene = (1/2) * (1/2) = 1/4
Second child: Brown eyes (Bb or BB) – probability of at least one parent passing the B gene = 1 - (1/4) = 3/4
Third child: Blue eyes (bb) – same as first child = 1/4
Fourth child: Blue eyes (bb) – same as first child = 1/4
Fifth child: Brown eyes (Bb or BB) – same as second child = 3/4
4. Multiplying Probabilities:
To get the overall probability of this specific order, we need to multiply the individual probabilities:
(1/4) * (3/4) * (1/4) * (1/4) * (3/4) = 1/512
5. The Answer:
So, the probability of having a family with the specific eye color order you described is 1/512 or roughly 0.2%. This means it's quite unlikely to happen, but not impossible!
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
a. express different genes.
b. contain different genes.
c. use different genetic codes.
d. have unique ribosomes.
Answer: a. express different genes.
Explanation:
The nerve cells is functional for controlling the coordination of the body, respond to the external stimuli, voluntary actions in the body. The muscle cells contract and relax to facilitate the locomotion.
All the somatic cells of a living being have the same genomic make up. However, completely differentiated cells of particular tissue lineages express distinct genes, as required so as to perform specialized functions in the body.
Muscle and nerve cells differ because they express different genes, despite containing the same genetic material; gene expression regulation allows for cell specialization.
Explanation:Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they express different genes. Both muscle and nerve cells contain the same set of genes within their DNA, but they do not turn on, or express, the same genes. Different cell types, like muscle and nerve cells, use the expression of different sets of genes to specialize their functions. Despite having the same genetic code and genome, it is the regulation of gene expression that allows cells to differentiate and perform diverse roles within an organism.
Bryophytes never formedforests (mats maybe, but not forests)
because
A) they possess flagellated sperm.
B) of bacterial parasites
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue.
D) they have no adaptations to prevent desiccation.
E) their rhizoids were too weak.
Answer:
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue. ( Since they do not have vascular tissues, they are not able to develop vertically like the trees we know.)
Explanation:
A) Plants do not have "sperm". They have sporophytes or gametophytes.
B) No specific parasitic bacteria of bryophytes are known.
D) In fact, they have. Although they require water for their reproduction, some species of bryophytes are found in deserts.
E) Rhizoids are not weak, otherwise they would not have the ability to keep bryophytes attached (mosses).
Heat is a product of
a. respiration
b. photosynthesis
c. osmosis
d. diffusion
Answer: Respiration
Explanation:
Respiration can be defined as the process by which the gaseous exchange takes place in between the lungs and outer environment.
In the cellular respiration, the chemical energy in the sugar is converted or transferred into ATP.
Some part of it is released in the form of heat. The chemical energy changes into heat energy.
Hence, the correct answer is option B