Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
Plant blindness refers to "the inability to see or notice the plants in one's own environment." The term plant blindness was coined twenty years ago by Elizabeth Schussler and James Wandersee who are botanists. Plant blindness results in "the inability to recognize the importance of plants in the biosphere and in human affairs." It is also the reason why people have a tendency of ranking “plants as inferior to animals”. Therefore, plants tend to receive limited care and upkeep. It is important to recognize plant blindness so that more intentional care can be given to preserving our plant species and ensure their survival and ability to thrive.
Muscles of the internal organs and glands are controlled by the _____ nervous system.
Answer:
Also know as the skeletal nervous system. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs (such as the heart).
Describe the specialized characteristics of human red blood cells and explain how these characteristics help red blood cells to accomplish their function.
Answer:The characteristics of red blood cells is that they are usually concave in shape, and usually have a fair bit of surface area on them. Immature red blood cells like reticulocytes are more squashed like. The function of red blood cells is to carry oxygen, and/or carbon dioxide to various portions of the body.
Explanation:
What happened in the soapberry bug population in central Florida when the bugs began to feed on seeds from the goldenrain tree fruits which are much closer to the fruit surface?
Answer:
The bugs evolved beak lengths that were adapted to their host plant.
Explanation:
This is an interesting case of evolution in which bugs evolved (changed) quickly over a few generations. In less than 50 years the bugs evolved beak lengths to match the size of the new host plant’s seed pods. The bugs were not used to live out of that plant but they started feeding on it and then they changed some of their characteristics.
The soapberry bug in central Florida adapted to feed on goldenrain tree seeds, resulting in shorter beaks that better suited the available food source. This change is a clear example of natural selection and local adaptation in response to a new environmental condition.
Explanation:The soapberry bug population in central Florida underwent a significant evolutionary change when they began to feed on seeds from the goldenrain tree. The crucial alteration observed was in the length of the soapberry bug's beak. Because the seeds inside goldenrain trees are closer to the fruit surface compared to their native host plants, over time, the soapberry bugs that had shorter beaks were more successful in feeding and reproducing. This evolutionary shift is an example of rapid adaptation to a new environmental condition, driven by the principle of natural selection.
Specifically, soapberry bugs with shorter beaks were better suited to extract seeds from the goldenrain tree, leading to increased survival and reproductive success. Consequently, these traits became more prevalent in the population. This phenomenon is a type of geographic variation referred to as local adaptation, where a segment of a species adapts to conditions specific to a particular environment. Such biological illustrations underscore the dynamic nature of evolutionary processes in response to changing ecological circumstances.
This map shows the pH levels in rain throughout the United States. We would expect to see the MOST damage to evergreen trees in which area of the United States? A) mid west B) northeast C) west coast D) deep south
Answer:
Do you have a picture of the map? If not i can't answer the question.
Explanation:
Answer:
B) northeast
Explanation:
A bone thickens Select one:
a. as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
b. due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
c. as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
d. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
The process of bone thickening starts with the formation of a template of the hyaline cartilage diaphysis from chondrocytes. Due to developmental signals the bone matrix begins to calcify. This calcification allows the prevention of nutrition diffusion into bone matrix and opens the cavities in diaphysis cartilage. Blood vessels enters into the cavities and osteoblasts and osteoclasts modifies calcified cartilage matrix into spongy bone. Osteoclasts allows the break down of spongy bone and forms a medullary cavity in diaphysis. Irregular connective tissue forms a periosteum (covers compact bone) around the bones and allows the attachment of bone to tissues, tendons, and ligaments. The bone then continues to grow and get thick.
Hence, the correct option is D.
Final answer:
A bone thickens d. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. This process involves osteoblasts adding new bone tissue, which is part of appositional growth and modeling, allowing the bone to increase in diameter while maintaining a balanced structure.
Explanation:
The question pertains to how a bone thickens. To answer this, we look into the appositional growth of bones, particularly long bones. This process involves the activity of two types of bone cells: osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Specifically, osteoblasts, which are crucial for bone formation, add new bone tissue beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. This action results in the thickening of the bone as compact bone is deposited. Concurrently, osteoclasts resorb old bone tissue lining the medullary cavity to maintain the balance in bone density and ensure the bone does not become too heavy. Hence, the correct answer to the question is (d) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis, which signifies the integral role of osteoblasts in the appositional growth and modeling of bones.
Mintu wants to increase the heat transfer between a metal iron and another piece of metal he wants to shape. He decides to increase the time the two metals are in contact, use a larger metal iron, and use a new metal material with a higher specific heat. Where is Mintu's error?
A) Mintu should have decreased the size of the metal iron.
B) Mintu should have decreased the time he touches the two metals.
C) Mintu should have chosen a material with a lower specific heat.
D) Mintu should have chosen a material the same temperature as the iron.
Answer:
Mintu should have chosen a material with a lower specific heat.
Explanation:
When we talk about specific heat, we refer to a specific quantity of heat that is needed for a substance or material to rise its temperature. In more concrete terms, is the amount of heat required for 1 gram of substance/material to elevate its temperature by 1 degree Celsius.
This would mean that a material with a high specific heat would require a higher quantity of heat to increase its temperature, so in this case, if Mintu wanted to make the heat transfer easier between the metal iron and the other piece of metal, he should have chosen a material that could elevate its temperature by receiving a lower quantity of heat, that is a material with a low specific heat. But instead he chose a metal with a higher specific heat, which will now make the heat transfer more difficult,and that was the error.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
In _________, a small sample of fetal cells is drawn by a needle inserted into the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. It provides information that is nearly 100% accurate about a variety of genetic defects.
Answer:
the prenatal procedure
Explanation:
Answer:
Amniocentesis
Explanation:
In Amniocentesis, a small sample of fetal cells is drawn by a needle inserted into the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. It provides information that is nearly 100% accurate about a variety of genetic defects.
What is the term for the haploid form of a plant?
Answer:
I know this STRAIGHT off of my head...gametophyte.
Explanation:
Answer:
Gametophyte
Explanation:
Plants as well as other living organisms, during their reproductive life cycle, exhibit a switch between haploid state and diploid state. This process is referred to as ALTERNATION OF GENERATION. Plants are diploid organisms i.e. most of their cells contain two sets of chromosomes. This diploid state of their life cycle is called SPOROPHYTIC stage.
During reproduction, the diploid sporophyte of the plant undergoes meiosis i.e. reduction division to produce haploid spores. These haploid spores germinates and undergoes series of mitotic divisions to form the haploid GAMETOPHYTE of the plant, which is the haploid form of the plant. The gametophye of the plant produces haploid gametes (sperm and egg) which combines in a process called FERTILIZATION to produce a diploid ZYGOTE that grows via mitosis into the diploid SPOROPHYTIC structure of the plant.
The cycle starts again from the beginning, hence, it is called an ALTERNATION OF GENERATIONS.
Unlike _____, which punishes companies for not achieving specific gender and race ratios in their work forces, diversity programs seek to benefit both organizations and their employees by encouraging organizations to value all kinds of differences.
Answer:
The blank should be left with "affirmative action".
Explanation:
Affirmative action and diversity programs, although many times mistaken as being the same thing, are hugely different from one another. Affirmative action is a punitive policy that compensates for past discrimination, and seeks to give preference on employment opportunities to minorities, punishing organizations for not meeting the ratios imposed by them on race and gender of their employees. Diversity programs, on the contrary, does not punish but encourage the employers to integrate in their work force very different people with diverse personalities and abilities, achieving a much stronger social integration.
What are the main functions of pollen? Select all that apply. Select all that apply. protection of the male sporophyte delivery of the sperm to the female gametophyte protection of the male gametophyte nutrition of the male gametophyte
Answer:
- Delivery of the sperm to the female gametophyte
- Protection of the male gametophyte
Explanation:
The pollen grain is a microspore present in angiosperms and gymnosperms, it contains the male gametophyte.
The pollen tube present in pollen grains and the way they are transported (by wind) allows these plants to require no water for reproduction.
In addition, the pollen grain has two very resistant walls (internal and external), composed mainly of cellulose, ensuring protection to the male gametophyte until it meets the female gamete.
Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. If he had just warmed the nutrient-rich broth, rather than boiled it, what would have been the likely outcome of his experiment? Cells would ________.a. have appeared in the swan-neck but not the straight-neck flask
b. not have appeared in either flask
c. have appeared in both flasks
d. have appeared in the straight-neck but not the swan-neck flask
Answer:
C. Have appeared in both flasks.
Explanation:
Cells would have appeared in the straight-neck and in the swan-neck flask because the process of boiling water is essential to eliminate the possible microorganisms present in the broth before the experiment.
If only the microbes that were previously in the broth were heated, they would not die and keep playing
Final answer:
If Pasteur had only warmed the broth instead of boiling it, cells would c) have likely appeared in both the swan-neck and the straight-neck flasks, indicating contamination since warming may not sterilize the broth effectively.
Explanation:
Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. If he had just warmed the nutrient-rich broth rather than boiled it, the likely outcome of his experiment would be that cells would c) have appeared in both flasks. This is because simply warming the broth may not have been sufficient to sterilize it and kill off existing microorganisms, which would still lead to contamination and growth in both the swan-neck and the straight-neck flask. Louis Pasteur's experiment proved that microbial life can only arise from existing microorganisms and not spontaneously from non-living matter. His design involved boiling the broth to sterilize it and prevent microorganisms from growing, while still allowing air to reach the broth through the swan-neck design, which kept airborne microbes from entering.
The subunit of a carbohydrate.
A. Amino acid
B. Glycerol
C. Nucleotide
D. Saccharide
Answer:
B. Glycerol
Explanation:
Maria explains that she learned about the effects of coconut oil on the Internet, while reading an online article about a well-known movie star who claims it helped him lower his bad cholesterol. What are these types of testimonials called?
Answer:
anecdotes
Explanation:
When evidence of a particular incidence is collected from some personal incidence narrated/provided by a person, usually casually or informally with no other evidence except personal testimony, such testimony is known as an anecdote. In the given example, Maria is learning about the effects of coconut oil only based on an online article which describes the personal experience of a movie star of using the oil to lower the bad cholesterol. The article provides no further evidence regarding the fact the oil is good except that of the experience of the movie star and hence, the given testimony is an anecdote.Testimonials like the one Maria read about the movie star who claimed that coconut oil helped lower his bad cholesterol are called anecdotal evidence.
Explanation:Testimonials like the one Maria read about the movie star who claimed that coconut oil helped lower his bad cholesterol are called anecdotal evidence.
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An owl has good night vision because its eyes can detect a light intensity as small as 5.0 × 10-13 W/m2. What is the minimum number of photons per second that an owl eye can detect if its pupil has a diameter of 8.5 mm and the light has a wavelength of 548 nm?
Answer:
Thus, the minimum number of photons per second is 77.34
Explanation:
Light intensity, [tex]I_{min}[/tex] = [tex]5\times 10^{-13} W/m^{2}[/tex]
Pupil has a diameter, d = 8.5 mm
= 8.5 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m
Radius of the eye, r = 4.25 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] m
∴ Area of the eye, A = [tex]\pi .r^{2}[/tex]
= [tex]3.14\times \left ( 4.25\times 10^{-3} \right )^{2}[/tex]
= [tex]5.6\times 10^{-5} m^{2}[/tex]
Let [tex]P_{min}[/tex] be the minimum number of photons.
Therefore, [tex]P_{min}[/tex] = [tex]I_{min}[/tex] x A
= [tex]5\times 10^{-13}[/tex] x [tex]5.6\times 10^{-5}[/tex]
= [tex]2.8\times 10^{-17}[/tex] W
Thus the minimum number of photons is given by
[tex]N_{min}=P_{min}/E[/tex]
where E = [tex]hc/\lambda[/tex]
= [tex]\left (6.63\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 10^{8} \right )/548\times 10^{-9}[/tex]
= [tex]3.62\times 10^{-19} J[/tex]
Therefore, [tex]N_{min}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2.8\times 10^{-17}}{3.62\times 10^{-19}}[/tex]
= 77.34 photons per second
Thus, the minimum number of photons per second is 77.34
To determine the minimum number of photons per second that an owl eye can detect, you first calculate the energy of a photon using the given wavelength. Then divide the light intensity by the energy of a photon to get the number of photons per second per square meter. Lastly, multiply this by the area of the pupil to get the number of photons an owl eye can detect.
Explanation:The question posed has to do with the number of photons an owl's eye can detect. To solve this, it's important to first figure out how many photons are present in a given intensity of light. Given that the owl can detect a light intensity as low as 5.0 × 10⁻¹³ W/m² and that the wavelength of light is given as 548 nm, we need to use the photon energy equation: E = hc/λ, where E is energy, h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js), c is speed of light (3.0 x 10⁸ m/s), and λ is wavelength (548 x 10⁻⁹ m).
From this, you can find the energy of one photon. The next step is to divide the light intensity by the energy of one photon to get the number of photons per second per square meter. Finally, the number of photons that an owl eye can detect can be found by multiplying this result by the area of the owl's pupil, which can be calculated using the formula for the area of a circle: A = πr^2, where r is radius (0.5 x 8.5 x 10⁻³ m).
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Write the complementary sequence for the following DNA sequence, in order from 3' to 5': 5′−CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT−3′ Use all capital letters to write the DNA sequence.
Answer:
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5'
Explanation:
The DNA is a macromolecule formed by two strands of polynucleotides forming a double helix.
These chains are composed of monomers called nucleotides, there are 4 different types in DNA, called nitrogenous bases: two purines, guanine (G) and adenine (A) and two pyrimidines, thymine (T) and cytosine (C). They are joined by covalent bonds in each chain.
These bases are complementary: G with C, and A with T between the two strands by hydrogen bonds making the double-stranded DNA molecule.
A sequence 5'-CGAT-3' is equivalent to a sequence written 3'-ATCG-5' , because the 5' and 3' notation defines the direction of reading. If one strand is noted 5' to 3', then the complementary strand will be from 3' to 5' in the same sense.
So, all we need to do is write the complementary bases from the 3' end to 5':
5'-CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT-3'
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5' (answer)
The complementary strand of 5−CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT−3′ is
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5'
A part of one nucleic acid chain is often bonded to another by a sequence of base pairs. The DNA is composed of macromolecule characterized by two strands of polynucleotides often called a double helix.
The sequence of a complementary strand can be gotten when one has sequence of the template strand.
The two strands are said to complement each other.
The Adenine always pair with Thymine while the Guanine always pair with cytosine held together by hydrogen bonds.
DNA is always read in the 5' to 3' direction, that is from free phosphate and finish at free hydroxyl group.Conclusively, the 4 nitrogenous bases which are guanine (G) and adenine (A), thymine (T) and cytosine (C), are held together by strong covalent bond.
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What do the pancreas, liver, salivary glands, and gall bladder have in common?
- They are all involved in mechanical digestion.
- They are all accessory structures.
- They all digest carbohydrates.
- They all release digesting enzymes.
Answer:
- They are all accessory structures.
Explanation:
The accessory digestive organs are the teeth, the tongue, the salivary glands, the liver, the gallbladder and the pancreas. The teeth assist in the physical breakdown of food and the tongue assists in chewing and swallowing. The other accessory digestive organs never come into direct contact with food. They produce or store secretions that pass into the gastrointestinal tract and assist in the chemical decomposition of food.
Accordingly, we can say that the correct answer to your question is "They are all accessory structures."
Dr. Graham exposes rats to a vanilla scent prior to receiving a food pellet in the left corner of their cage, but provides no food after exposure to a lemon scent. After several trials, upon smelling a vanilla scent, the rats wait at the far left corner of the cage regardless of whether a food pellet is present. However, they do not wait in the far left corner when exposed to the lemon scent. What is the unconditioned stimulus in the experiment?
Answer:
Food pellet
Explanation:
A learning process which results due to an associated between two stimuli, one a natural stimulus and the other an environmental stimulus is known as classical conditioning. For classical conditioning, there is a neutral stimulus as well as the unconditioned stimulus. The unconditioned stimulus is the one which triggers a response in the organism automatically that is naturally without any prior learning.In the given example, the food pellet is the unconditioned stimulus.A _______ publishes short sentences that only take a few seconds to write, rather than long stories or posts.
Answer:
Microblog
Explanation:
Microblog can be describes as a mixture of both blogging as well as instant messaging. Microblogging allows the users to share short messages as well as it also allows posting of these messages with an online audience. The content of micro blogging is much smaller as compared to the traditional blogging . The actual as well as the aggregated sizes of files of microblogging are much shorter than the tradiotional bloggings.
A microblogger publishes short sentences that only take a few seconds to write, rather than long stories or posts.
A microblogger is an individual who engages in microblogging, a form of social media where users share brief and concise updates. This platform typically involves the publication of short sentences, often limited to a specific character count, making the content quick to read and easy to digest.
The brevity of microblogging encourages frequent posting and facilitates quick communication, making it a popular choice for those who prefer concise and immediate sharing of information on various topics. Microbloggers leverage this format for various purposes, including personal expression, professional networking, and dissemination of information. The concise nature of microblogging fosters a dynamic online environment, enabling users to stay connected, informed, and engaged with a diverse range of topics in just a few seconds.
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Eukaryotic cells, like those seen here, are very similar in structure. If we compare the three cells we note that both the plant and fungal cell have something in common, something that is lacking in the animal cell. That is
Answer:
Cell wall
Explanation:
Certain group of cells are classified as Eukaryotic cells because they possess a membrane-bound nucleus that houses their genetic material (DNA) in addition to other cellular organnelles. Organisms with eukaryotic cells fall within three major groups viz: Plants, Fungi and Animal. These three distinct organisms, although all eukaryotic, have their own differences.
As stated in the question, plant cells and fungal cells share a unique structure that the animal cell does not possess. This unique structure is the CELL WALL. In addition to their cell membrane, plant and fungal cells have cell walls that is made up of cellulose and chitin respectively. The cell wall confers rigidity upon their cells. However, animal cells lack cell walls in their cells.
Breeders can use a Punnett square, such as the one below, to predict the outcome of a genetic cross. If the genotype of both parents was Aa, what would be expected of the genotypes among their possible offspring? Half would have the genotype AA. Half would have the genotype Aa. Three-quarters would have the genotype aa. Three-quarters would have the genotype Aa.
Answer:
Half would have the genotype Aa.
Explanation:
Given that the genotype of both of the parents was "Aa"; both parents would make two types of gametes. The 50% gametes from each parent would carry allele "A" while the rest 50% gametes from each parent would carry allele "a".
The random fusion of gametes of two parents would give the progeny with genotype ratio 1/4 AA: 1/2 Aa: 1/4 aa.
Answer:
Option B) Half would have the genotype Aa.
Animal and plants cells are the two types of eukaryotic cells. Although they are similar, there are some key differences. What are some of the unique organelles that only plant cells have? A) Cell Membrane, Large Vacuole, Chloroplast B) Large Vacuole, Chloroplast, Nucleus C) Chloroplast, Cell Wall, Large Vacuole D) Cell Wall, Mitochondria, Ribosomes
Answer
C
Explanation
Animals do not have a cell wall, chloroplast or central vacuole, these are specifically plant celled.
Sergei Winogradsky Choose one: A. discovered microbial fermentation. B. developed a pure culturing system using agar. C. identified microbes using biotechnology. D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Answer:
D. Discovered chemolithotrophs in natural enviroments.
Explanation:
Sergei Winogradsky was a russian microbiologist. He observed in his research with genus of bacteria Beggiatoa, they were able to oxidize hydrogen sulfide as an energy source. Being the first example known of lithotrophs (organisms that use inorganic substrate in order to obtain energy).
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. "discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments".
Explanation:
Sergei Nikolaievich Winogradsky was a ecological and soil scientist famous for being a pioneer for the definition of the concept of cycle of life. Winogradsky is also known for being the first scientist who discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments. He made this achievement during his research with Beggiatoa in 1887, reporting that this organism was able to oxidize hydrogen sulfide as an energy source.
Which feature or property of water allows plants to draw liquid water up from their roots? Water heats up and releases heat slowly. Water molecules connect through hydrogen bonds. Molecular polarity allows water to dissolve ionic substances. The density of liquid water is greater than solid water.
Cząsteczki wody łączą się przez wiązania wodorowe
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is "Water molecules connect through hydrogen bonds".
Explanation:
Hydrogen bonds are the main binding forces that keep the atoms within waters close to each other. This attraction among hydrogen atoms "sticks" the water molecules, and creates the water property of cohesion. This property is what allows plants to draw liquid water up from their roots, moving up through the xylem and into the leaves.
Dr. Han is studying which brain structure is associated with aggressive behavior among rats. Which part of the brain is she likely to see activated when using neuroimaging techniques?
Answer:
The correct answer is - The amygdala
Explanation:
The amygdala is the part of the brain that is found in the medial temporal lobe of the brain. It is an almond-shaped structure of neurons. The amygdala is an essential region of the brain that has a major role in processing emotions such as aggression and others. It is the region of the limbic system that presents both sides of the brain.
Thus, the correct answer is - the amygdala.
The processivity of a DNA polymerase depends on all of the following actions, EXCEPT for __________.
A. association of the DNA polymerase with a sliding clamp (like eukaryotic PCNA)
B. interaction between the thumb domain of DNA polymerase and the DNA
C. interaction between the minor groove of DNA and the palm domain of the DNA polymerase
D. loss of the hydrogen from the 3′-OH of the primer due to interaction with a divalent metal ion associated with the palm domain of the DNA polymerase
Answer:
Option (D).
Explanation:
Processivity of DNA polymerase may be defined as the number of nucleotides added in the single binding event. The synthesis phase of cell cycle is fully dependent on the processivity of DNA polymerase.
The processivity of DNA polymerase depends on the sliding clamp, domains of the DNA and the interaction of DNA with enzyme. Loss of hydrogen ion at 3'OH primer does not affect processivity but important for the nucleophile attack and also effect the catalytic property of enzyme.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Digestion includes breaking substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing more complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP. True/False
Answer:
The correct answer is - false statement.
Explanation:
The statement mentioned in question explaining the process of metabolism. Metabolism is a procedure that includes catabolic and anabolic process that which are chemicals reactions takes place in the body. Metabolism is breaking large molecules into simpler and simpler molecules to synthesizing complex molecules from simpler molecules.
Digestion is the process in which ingested food break down to simpler substances and absorbed to provide nutrients to body.
Thus, the correct answer is - false statement.
The statement provided is true as digestion indeed encompasses the breakdown of nutrients into simpler building blocks, synthesis of complex structures from simpler ones, and the usage of nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP for energy.
Explanation:Digestion and Energy Production
The statement that digestion includes breaking down nutrients into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing more complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP is true. Digestion is a multi-step process that begins with the ingestion of food and is followed by digestion, absorption, and elimination. The breaking down of complex macromolecules such as proteins, fats, and carbohydrates into simple molecules like amino acids, fatty acids, and simple sugars is essential for maintaining cellular functions. After absorption, cells utilize these simple molecules for various functions, including synthesizing cellular building blocks (macromolecules) and generating & storing energy, chiefly in the form of ATP. Additionally, the body must eliminate waste and potentially harmful substances that are the byproducts of digestion and metabolism.
For example, the act of chewing a piece of chicken begins the physical breakdown of food, which is then further chemically digested through the action of digestive enzymes, making nutrients available for absorption into the bloodstream. Once absorbed, nutrients are used by cells for biosynthesis and energy production, and unnecessary or harmful substances are expelled from the body.
Select the most appropriate example of the denaturation of protein.
A.
Egg albumin, which is a translucent fluid, changes to opaque white solid after boiling.
B.
Rice granules, which are smaller in size and translucent, appear larger and opaque white after cooking.
C.
Oil, if kept for a longer time at room temperature, turns rancid and appears discolored.
Answer: Option A is the correct answer because rice granules are source of carbohydrates and oil is a source of lipids.
Explanation:
Egg albumin is a translucent protein which denatures and loses shape and texture in high temperatures. The protein uncoils and tangles together because heat disrupts the peptide bonds that polymerize amino acids, thus boiled egg's albumin turns white and shifts from liquid to solid state.
A patient is dehydrated and needs fluids in his cells. Which type of IV solution will cause water to enter his cells? (DOK 1 AKS 2a) A. A hypertonic solution B. An isotonic solution C. A solution with a high salt concentration D. A hypotonic solution
Answer:
D
Explanation:
A hypotonic solution means it is less concentrated in relations to the other solution – in this case the patient’s cells. The electrolytes that balance osmotic pressure in the body are sodium, potassium, chlorides, calcium, and etcetera. The IV needs to have less electrolytes so that when the IV is injected into the patient’s blood the water can move into the cells by osmosis. Osmosis continues until the cell cytoplasm is in osmotic equilibrium with the blood. It is imporant, therefore, to have the right electrolyte balance in the IV solution otherwise the cell will over-hydrate and begin lysing – especially if the kidneys of the patient do not rid excess water fast enough.
Research participants were asked to identify a word that could be associated meaningfully with each of three other words. Solutions that occurred with sudden insight were accompanied by a burst of activity in the brain's ________ lobe.A. Right temporalB. Left parietalC. Right occipitalD. Right parietalE. Right frontal
Answer:
A. Right Temporal Lobe
Explanation:
The main function of the temporal lobe is interpreting sensory input, both audio and visual., meaning, it analyzes everything we see and hear, and helps us comprehend the information.
The right temporal lobe also deals with our ability to understand and learn a languages, both in spoken and in written form, so when the participants read or listened to the word, the association had to come from the language area: the right temporal lobe.
Mark the following statements as true or false concerning waters relevance to living systems. Water is the universal solvent in biological systems. Water bathes organs in fluid, which provides protection and support. The high specific heat of water means that we only lose a small amount of heat when the sweat on our skin evaporates. Water plays a major role in our bodies’ chemical reactions.
Answer:
Water is the universal solvent in biological systems. - TRUE
Water bathes organs in fluid, which provides protection and support. - FALSE
The high specific heat of water means that we only lose a small amount of heat when the sweat on our skin evaporates. - FALSE
Water plays a major role in our bodies’ chemical reactions. - TRUE
Explanation:
Water dissolves polar molecules hence critical solvent for energy molecules such as glucose and electrolytes such as sodium. Water also acts as a metabolite in reactions such as photolysis in photosynthesis and also in hydrolysis reactions. Water is a temperature buffer due to its high heat capacity (meaning it takes more energy to raise the temperature of water by one degree). This means it is good for the regulation of temperatures in the body.
Water is the universal solvent in biological systems and plays a major role in our bodies' chemical reactions. It also bathes organs in fluid, providing protection and support. The high specific heat of water helps regulate body temperature.
Explanation:Water is the universal solvent in biological systems, meaning it can dissolve many substances necessary for life. Water also bathes organs in fluid, providing protection and support. Additionally, the high specific heat of water allows us to lose a small amount of heat when sweat on our skin evaporates, helping to regulate body temperature. Lastly, water plays a major role in our bodies' chemical reactions, as many biochemical processes occur in the watery contents of cells.