Answer:
d. Smoking
Explanation:
Nicotine is a chemical found in many plants such as tobacco. It is one of the 4000 chemicals that tobacco presents and the main component that acts in the brain.
This chemical is absorbed through the skin and lining of the mucosa of the nose and mouth, or in the lungs by prior inhalation. Nicotine can quickly reach the bloodstream and brain and reach maximum levels. The action of smoking cigarettes causes nicotine to reach the brain in just 10 seconds after inhalation. Although the acute effects dissipate in a few minutes, they cause the need to continue the intake of the substance (addiction)
Describe the steps that bone goes through as it heals from a break.
Answer:
Explained
Explanation:
Bone healing has three main processes and these stages are overlapping to each other. These processes are inflammation,bone production and bone remodeling.
Inflammation occurs immediately after the fracture and last several days. It enables clotting of blood. It provides initial structure stability and framework for new bone formation.
Bone production occurs when the clotted blood formed by inflammation is replaced with fibrous tissues and cartilage as soft callous.
Bone remodeling is the final stage of the bone healing and it goes on for several months. Bone continues to form and compact. Bones returns to its original shape and the blood circulation in that area improves.
The correct sequence,
from the mostinclusive to the least inclusive, of the taxonomic
levels listedhere is
family, phylum,class, kingdom, order, species, and
genus.
kingdom, phylum,class, order, family, genus, and
species.
kingdom, phylum,order, class, family, genus, and
species.
phylum, kingdom,order, class, species, family, and
genus.
Answer:
Option (2).
Explanation:
The classification of the animals are done on the basis of similarity and differences among the individuals. The system of classification was first explained by Linnaean classification.
The most inclusive of the taxonomy level is kingdom that includes in the plants and animals in the separate kingdom. From the kingdom they are further classified into phylum then into the class, family and order. After the order the organisms are further classified into genus and the species is the least inclusive level of taxonomy.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Answer:
The correct order of taxonomic categories, from most specific to broadest, is: species, genus, family, order, class, phylum and kingdom.
Explanation:
The Great American Biotic Interchange helped establish the fauna that exist in both North and South America today. Which of the following occurred during this event?
a. The first humans dispersed from North to South America
b. Many species that moved from North to South Amenica were very successful and stif exist today
c .Only small mammals moved from South America to North America
d. Many species that moved into North Amenca from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today
e. All of the above occurred during the Great American Biotic interchange
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "Many species that moved into North America from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today".
Explanation:
The Great American Biotic Interchange (GABI) was an historical period at which numerous species from South America migrated to North America, and numerous species from North America migrated to South America because of the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. During this event, many species that moved into North America from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today. The species that successfully immigrated to South America and exist today were mostly small mammals, such as armadillos and opossums.
A single zebrafish gene function was inactivated completely by mutation, and a zebrafish with this mutation had none of its normal horizontal stripes. For each of the following statements, indicate whether the statement is certainly true, certainly untrue or if there is insufficient information to decide. a. The normal gene function is required for the viability of the zebrafish. b. The normal gene function is required for the formation of stripes. c. The normal gene function is required to make the pigment deposited in the stripes. d. The gene is required in zebrafish only for stripe formation.
Answer:a. The normal gene function is required for the viability of the zebrafish.
Explanation:
It is mentioned that if the gene responsible for forming stripes on its body is inactivated by mutation then fish without stripes will produced.
This will lead to the absence of phenotypic character that is strips on the fish. The other genes which are responsible for the survival of the fish will function normally thus this will be untrue that normal functioning of the gene required for expressing horizontal strips is also necessary for the survival and viability of the zebrafish.
BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer?
A) breast
B) thyroid
C) nerve
D) leukemia
The correct answer is A. Breast
Explanation:
BRCA-1 that stands for Breast Cancer Type 1 Susceptibility Protein is a tumor suppressor gene and protein related to breast cancer. This means, BRCA-1 can stop cells from developing into cancer, although the function of this gene can change and even be suppressed and thus, cancer might develop due to this. BRCA-1 is located in chromosome 17 in humans and act in cells by repairing DNA or in some cases destroying it, which stop possible mutation that can lead to cancer. Due to this, it is believed by studying BRCA-1 and the correct function of it or possible mutation it might be possible to know the risk for breast cancer in individual as well as detecting first stages of Breast Cancer. Thus, BRCA-1 is mainly related to Breast Cancer.
In the term trace element, the adjective trace means that
a. the elemental is required in very small amount.
b. the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism's metabolism.
c. the elemnt is very rare oon Earth.
d. the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism's long-term survival.
Answer:
The elemental is required in very small amount. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Trace element is also known as micro-nutrient. It is also defined as any chemical element required by living organisms in a minute or small amounts which is usually part of the vital enzyme (cells produced by catalytic protein).
Exact needs of trace elements vary among species, like commonly required plant trace elements are cooper, zinc, manganese, boron, and molybdenum. Animals commonly required iodine, manganese, and cobalt.
Absence of necessary plant trace elements required by plants in the soil causes deficiency disease, lack of animal trace elements used by animals in the soil may not harm plants, but, animals feeding on those plants develop their deficiency disease.
So, the adjective trace means that the elemental is required in a very small amount.
The correct answer is a) the element is required in very small amounts.
In the term "trace element," the adjective "trace" indicates that the element is needed or required by an organism in only very small or trace amounts. Trace elements are essential nutrients that are necessary for proper functioning and health but are needed in much smaller quantities compared to major or macro elements like carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and calcium.
These trace elements play important roles in various biological processes, such as enzyme function, cellular metabolism, and maintaining overall health. Despite being required in small amounts, they are crucial for the normal growth, development, and physiological functions of organisms.
Therefore, the correct option is a).
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The surgical removal of male reproductive organs is known as orchidectomy.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-true.
Explanation:
Orchidectomy or orchi is the surgical procedure performed to remove the male reproductive organ of humans especially testicles.
This procedure is performed to treat testicular cancer, to manage prostate cancer and testicular torsion. Once a testicle is removed, the person becomes infertile, may lose sexual interest, high production of estrogen and breast enlargement.
Thus, option-true is the correct answer.
Which observation allows you to tell that two cubes are made of different metals? Select the two correct answers.
A. Their volumes are the same, and their masses are the same.
B. Their volumes are the same, and their masses are different.
C. Their volumes are different, and their masses are the same.
D. Their volumes are unknown, and their masses are the same.
E. Their volumes are the same, and their masses are unknown
Answer: b and c
Explanation:
Answer:
Option B, Their volumes are the same, and their masses are different.
Explanation:
Two metallic cubes made of different metal types can have same volume and shape and size but their weight will always be different due to difference in physical properties such as density.
For example two cubes of volume 10 cubic meter each have same volume but since one cube is made up of aluminium and the other cube is made up of iron, both the two cubes with similar shape, size and volume will have different mass
Hence, option B is correct.
Cerebellar circuitry coordinates behavior by
a. inhibiting inappropriate muscle groups
b. disinhibiting appropriate muscle groups
c. responding to changes in head tilt, or posture and muscle disposition
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above
Explanation:
The main function of the cerebellum is to integrate the sensory and motor pathways. The cerebellum is connected by a large number of nerve bundles with other structures of the brain and spinal cord to integrate the information it receives, specify and control the orders that the cerebral cortex sends to the musculoskeletal system. It is also the regulator of physiological tremor.
To achieve proper posture, the cerebellum must inhibit inappropriate muscle groups, disinhibit appropriate muscle groups, respond to changes in head tilt, or posture and muscular disposition.
What is the purpose for using a hydropathy plot?
a. predict whether a protein is soluble
b. predict the quaternary structure of a membrane protein
c. predict secondary structure of a membrane protein
d. determine the true molecular weight of a membrane protein
e. predict whether a given protein sequence contains membrane-spanning segment
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-E.
Explanation:
A Hydropathy plot is a visual representation of the hydrophobic nature of a protein over a plot. The plot allows visualizing the hydrophobicity in a sequence of the peptide.
The plot is prepared on the basis of a hydrophobic scale of 20 different amino acids which is used to determine the membrane-spanning regions of membrane-bound proteins and hydrophobic interior portions of globular proteins.
Thus, option- E is the correct option.
Hydropathy Plot. Hydropathy plots allow for the visualization of
hydrophobicity over the length of a peptide sequence. ... Such plots are useful in determining the hydrophobic interior portions of globular proteins as well as determining membrane spanning regions of membrane bound proteins.
Hydropathy plots allow for the visualization of hydrophobicity over the length of a peptide sequence. A hydropathy scale which is based on the hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties of the 20 amino acids is used. A moving "window" determines the summed hydropathy at each point in the sequence (Y coordinate). These sums are then plotted against their respective positions (X coordinate). Such plots are useful in determining the hydrophobic interior portions of globular proteins as well as determining membrane spanning regions of membrane bound proteins.
How can you tell the difference between conformity and obedience?
Answer:
Differentiated
Explanation:
Obedience and conformity are two types of social behavior and both allow certain degree of surrender of person's innate nature to the outside source.
Conformity is behavior of a person that matches with certain group of people It is act of showing similar vibrations, beliefs that the group of people have. Conformity comes with a subtle pressure and indirect authority.
Obedience is on the other hand act of following directions and instructions without questioning or any kind of protest.The instructions are often given by some authority or society.
Answer:
To conform means to act in accordance with certain expectations or specifications in place. In contrast, to obey means to fulfill a specific command. Thus, the difference between the two is that conformity is to act as expected without any specific instruction to do so, while obey means the opposite. to obey thing that the want you to do like orders and you have to do it in force someone may force you to do something it like taking orders from someone
Explanation:
Lee watches a football game outside, and does not want to sit on the cold ground. Which property should she choose for the material she sits on?
A. High thermal conductivity
B. Low thermal conductivity
C. High electrical conductivity
D. Low electrical conductivity
Answer:
B. Low thermal conductivity
Explanation:
Thermal conductivity is the capability of a given material to conduct heat. It effectivly quantifies how easily that particular material enables heat transfer.
Remember that heat (thermic energy) always flows from a hotter body to a colder one. Whatever cold a body is, if we place a colder one in contact with it, heat will flow from the latter to the first one.
Materials with low thermal conductivity difficult the heat flow as they act as a resistance to that flow, basically because much more time and energy is required to heat them. In constrast, materials with high thermal conductivity ease the trasfer of heat, thus speeding the loss of heat from the hotter body to the colder one.
In our case, Lee is interested in reteining his own heat (preventing from getting cold), so sitting on a body made of a material with low thermal conductivity would be the best option to keep himself warm.
Distinguish between the sex chromosome complements of human female and male germ-line cells at different stages of gametogenesis.
Answer:
Gametogenesis is the formation of gametes, in males it is referred as spermatogenesis and in females it is called oogenesis.
Explanation:
Differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis:
1. Spermatogenesis is formation of sperms from spermatogonia and oogenesis is formation of ova from oogonium.
2. Location: Production of sperms occur in testis and production of ova occurs in ovaries.
3. In males, spermatogenesis begins at puberty and its a continuous process till death whereas in females, oogenesis begins at fetal stages, it halts and rest of the process occurs after puberty till menopause.
4. Primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis-I to form two secondary spermatocytes, whereas primary oocyte undergoes to M-I to form a single secondary oocyte with a polar body.
5. Meiosis-II results in the formation of 4 spermatids or spermatozoa, in females however M-II results in only one ovum and second polar body formation.
6. Overall we can say that single spermatogonium forms 4 spermatids whereas single oogonium forms only 1 ovum.
7. Sperms are motile where as ovum in non-motile.
What process was given as an example of the violation of Mendel's first law?
a. disjunction
b. nondisjunction
c. linkage
d. deletion
e. insertion
Answer:
b. nondisjunction
Explanation:
During anaphase-I of meiosis-I, homologous chromosomes separate from each other and move to the opposite poles. During anaphase-II of meiosis-II, the sister chromatids move towards the opposite poles. Separation of chromosomes at anaphase is called disjunction.
When chromosomes do not segregate from each other, it is non-disjunction. Non-disjunction leads to the presence of both alleles of a gene in a gamete and violates Mendel's first law.
For example, the non-disjunction of chromosome 21 leads to the presence of both alleles of all the genes present on chromosome 21 in the same gamete.
According to Mendel's first law, each gamete carries only one allele for a gene. It is called as law of segregation.
Does your blood absorb all the oxygen you take into your lungs? Why or why not?
Archaea have cell walls made of peptidoglycan.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Three domains of life are bacteria, eukarya and archaea. The prokaryotic organisms are involved in the bacteria and archaea. Eukaryotic organisms are included in the domain eukarya.
The archaea are more similar to eukarya than bacteria. The cell walls of the archaea are made of glycerol-ether lipids. The phospholipids of archaea are built on a backbone of sn-glycerol-1-phosphate. Archaea lacks the peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall.
Thus, the answer is false.
The arctic fox has 50 chromosomes (25 per set), and the common red fox has 38 chromosomes (19 per set). These species can interbreed to produce viable but infertile offspring. How many chromosomes would the offspring have? What problems do you think may occur during meiosis that would explain the offspring’s infertility?
Answer:
The organism is sterile because parts of the chromosomes in the zygote will only have a single set of chromosomes rather than the ideal pair. The arctic fox will produce gamates with 25 chromosomes (a single set) while the red fox will produce gametes with 19 chromosomes (another set). These gametes are supposed to fuse and have their chromosomes paired. However notice that the offspring will have (25 – 19) six (6) unpaired chromosomes. This means that during the formation of gametes in this hybrid offspring, there will be an issue in meiosis I which will result in nonviable gametes.
Final answer:
The hybrid offspring of an arctic fox and a common red fox will have 44 chromosomes. Infertility is likely due to improper pairing and segregation of chromosomes during meiosis, preventing normal gamete formation.
Explanation:
If an arctic fox with 50 chromosomes (25 per set) breeds with a common red fox with 38 chromosomes (19 per set), their offspring will have a number of chromosomes that is the average of both parents. This means the offspring will have 44 chromosomes total. The process of meiosis is likely to present problems for the hybrid offspring because meiosis relies on the pairing of homologous chromosomes. As the parental species have different numbers of chromosomes, the offspring's chromosomes cannot pair and segregate properly during meiosis. This results in the production of gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes, leading to infertility of the hybrid offspring.
Primates are characterized by (A) forward-facing eyes, varied diet, and nonviolent behavior. (B) arboreal adaptation, dietary plasticity, and parental investment. (C) docility, toolmaking, and parental investment. (D) arboreal adaptation, dietary plasticity, and male dominance.
Primates are characterized by their arboreal adaptation, dietary plasticity, and investment in parenting. These traits include the ability to live in trees, the ability to eat a wide range of foods, and the high level of care given to offspring.
Explanation:Primates are best characterized by option (B): arboreal adaptation, dietary plasticity, and parental investment. Arboreal adaptation refers to a primate's ability to live in trees, which is supported by physical characteristics such as flexible joints and dexterous hands and feet. Dietary plasticity means having a varied diet, which for primates can range from fruits and leaves to insects and small animals. Parental investment in primates is high, with both male and female primates caring for offspring and teaching them necessary survival skills.
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Primates are characterized by unique physical features such as forward-facing eyes, adapted limbs for climbing trees, and a large brain relative to body size.
Explanation:Primates are characterized by several distinct physical features that distinguish them from other mammals. These features include forward-facing eyes, adapted hands and feet for climbing trees, a large brain relative to body size, and nails instead of claws. Additionally, primates typically have one offspring per pregnancy and show a trend toward holding their bodies upright.
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15. In most natural populations rapid exponential growth is unsustainable. As populations increase, environmental resistance causes the growth rate to slow down, until carrying capacity is reached. Brainstorm several factors that could be considered as environmental resistance.
Answer:
Carrying capacity is defined a the ability of the natural ecosystem to take care of the environment which does not necessarily cause the resistance in population increase.
Explanation:
The earth indeed has a mechanism of delivering changes to the system and keeping it intact but as the case of the rapid growth of population arises the mother nature sees this as an exponent of unsustainable growth as the resource used to sustain large populations is no longer available or are exhausted. A population increase so does the carrying capacity and workload of the natural environment which at the time gets slow due either due to the man's artificial technology or the natural process like hurricane or earthquake itself. But seeing the nature as providing possibilities for the existence of the societies throughout ages and hence trying to maintain its originality may break those activities that it considers resistance as several biotic factors like predators, disease, competition, and lack of food.Which of the following describes differences between normal cells and cancer cells?
A. Normal cells have multiple nucleoli, while cancer cells have a single nucleolus.
B. Normal cells have coarse chromatin, while cancer cells have fine chromatin.
C. Normal cells have multiple nuclei, while cancer cells have a single nucleus.
D. Normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm, while cancer cells have a small amount of cytoplasm.
E. Cancer cells exhibit controlled cell division, while normal cells exhibit uncontrolled cell division.
Answer:
D. Normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm, while cancer cells have a small amount of cytoplasm.
Explanation:
The cells that repeatedly undergo cell division have higher nuclear to cytoplasm ratio. Cancer cells undergo repeated uncontrolled cell division. They have a higher nuclear to cytoplasm ratio and maintain a small amount of cytoplasm. The larger nucleus of cancer cells has coarse hyperchromatin.
On the other hand, normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm as compared to the cancer cells. They have fine chromatin and exhibit controlled cell division.
The endometrium
A. Is the muscle layer of the uterus
B. Is thickest during the preovulatory phase.
C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
D. Lines the vagina.
E. Is directly affected by FSH 1
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
Explanation:
Uterus is composed of three tissues :
1. Perimetrium: Outer layer of uterus made up of peritoneal. 2. Myometrium: middle layer made up of smooth muscles and 3. Endometrium: made up of simple columnar epithelium and mucous membrane.
Endometrium plays an important role during pregnancy. During pregnancy, the production of estrogen and progesterone increases. This helps the proliferation of epithelial lining and secretory gland present in the endometrium.
Progesterone hormone plays an important part in the implantation of embryo in the endometrium layer of the uterus. Endometrial glands start secreting the nutritive fluid for the development of fetus.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
A gene (gene X) undergoes a mutation which converts if from wild-type to mutant. Then a second mutation in the gene Y occurs which causes the wild-type phenotype of the first gene (gene X) to be restored. Respectively, what are the appropriate designations for the two mutational events?
a. forward mutation, back mutation
b. forward mutation, suppressor mutation
c. reverse mutation, back mutation
d. reverse mutation, suppressor mutation
e. reverse mutation, forward mutation
Answer:
b. forward mutation, suppressor mutation
Explanation:
When the nucleotide sequence of an organism is altered, it is called as mutation. It can be caused by DNA damage or replication errors. In forward mutation, the wild type allele is converted to a mutant version such that the gene product is non functional or its not produced at all. Suppressor mutation is the second mutation which reverses the phenotypic effects of the previous mutation. This process is called as synthetic rescue.
Since here gene X was converted into a mutant form by the mutation, it had undergone forward mutation. When gene Y was mutated, the function of gene X was restored which ultimately also restored the phenotype hence it is an example of suppressor mutation.
Describe in a few sentences each the following eating disorders: anorexia, bulimia, binge eating, bigorexia, and exercise compulsion, drunkorexia.
Answer:
Anorexia refers to a loss or lack of appetite for food, it is an emotional disorder featured by an obsessive feeling to lose weight by refusing to eat.
Bulimia refers to an eating disorder, in which a huge quantity of food is eaten in a brief duration, generally followed by the feelings of shame or guilt.
Binge eating refers to an extreme eating disorder in which an individual continuously eats a huge quantity of food and feel unstoppable to eat.
Bigorexia also is known as muscle dysmorphia refers to an exaggerated or delusional belief that the body of one's own is too skinny, too small, inadequately lean, or inadequately muscular. Though in the majority of the situations, the build of the person is normal.
Compulsive exercise also termed as exercise addiction takes place when an individual is motivated to exercise too much. Injury, illness, and other conditions do not stop the individual to exercise.
Drunkorexia is the term given to an individual who limits the intake of food calories in order to make space for alcoholics drink calories. In spite of the risks, it has been shown that about 30 percent of the women between age 18 and 23 diets so that they can drink.
Answer:
Anorexia : Condition which occurs due to very low weight of body due to the fear of gaining weight.
Bulimia: Bulimia nervosa can be described as a condition in which there is binge eating by the person first which is followed up by purging.
Bigorexia: Bigorexia can easily be described as the reverse of anorexia.
Drunkorexia: A condition in which there is binge or purge eating due to the intake of alcohol.
Exercise compulsion : A condition in which a person does excessive exercise.
Binge eating: It is a condition in which a person does excessive over eating without feeling the need to stop.
Explanation:
Anorexia: Anorexia Nervosa, which is also termed as anorexia, can be a psychological disorder in which the person becomes life threatening from the fear of getting fat. As a result, they get an extremely low body weight.
Bulimia: Bulimia, also termed as Bulimia Nervosa, is a condition in which a person does over eating i.e binge of an eating first and then tries to compensate it with any kind of purging activity. The purging activity could be any activity which he tries to do so that he can get rid of the excessive food taken.
Bigorexia: Bigorexia, also termed as Muscle Dysmorphia, is a condition in which the person thinks that he/she is very skinny or under weight when in real he/she is normal or usually over weight.
Drunkorexia : Drunkorexia is a condition in which a person has abnormal eating patterns trying to compensate for the large amount of alcohol that he/she has consumed.
Exercise compulsion : Exercise compulsion is a disorder in which a person focuses only on exercising ignoring the daily activities or any injuries that he/she might have acquired.
A mouse sperm of genotype a B C D E fertilizes an egg of genotype a b c D e. What are all the possibilities for the genotypes of (a) the zygote and (b) a sperm or egg of the baby mouse that develops from this fertilization?
The zygote resulting from the fertilization will have the genotype a B c D E. The gametes (sperms or eggs) produced by the offspring of this zygote can vary, due to the heterozygous nature of B, C, and E loci, resulting in various combinations of these alleles along with homozygous 'a' and 'D'.
Possible Genotypes of Zygotes and Gametes
When a mouse sperm of genotype a B C D E fertilizes an egg of genotype a b c D e, we can predict the resulting genotypes of (a) the zygote and (b) the gametes produced by the offspring of such a mating.
(a) Zygote Genotype
Each gene locus will combine one allele from the sperm and one allele from the egg to form the genotype of the zygote. The possible genotype for the zygote in this case will be a B c D E, as the alleles will combine as follows:
'a' from both the sperm and the egg (homozygous recessive).
'B' from the sperm and 'b' from the egg (heterozygous).
'C' from the sperm and 'c' from the egg (heterozygous).
'D' from both the sperm and the egg (homozygous dominant).
'E' from the sperm and 'e' from the egg (heterozygous).
(b) Gamete Genotype of Baby Mouse
Each gamete (sperm or egg) produced by the offspring will contain one allele for each gene, and these alleles can come in different combinations depending on the genetic diversity resulting from meiosis. Since 'D' is homozygous, all gametes will have 'D'. For genes 'B', 'C', and 'E' where the offspring is heterozygous, different combinations of the alleles can be produced resulting in gametes with genotypes such as 'B C E', 'b c e', 'B c E', 'b C e', etc.
Which method(s) can be used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA? (choose all that apply)
a. homologous end joining
b. polymerase chain reaction
c. homologous recombination
d. Non-homologous end joining
Answer:
Option (a) and (d).
Explanation:
The breaks in DNA molecule may occur due to replication error and oxidizing agent. The double-stranded breaks in DNA can be corrected by Homologous end joining and non homologous end joining.
Homologous end joining is used to repair the DNA present in G2 nad S phases of the cell cycle. The homologous sequences of DNA is used to repair the DNA. Non homologous end joining occurs in the cell present at G0 and G1 phase of the cell cycle. The DNA broken ends are juxtaposed and later rejoin together by DNA ligase.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a) and (d).
Final answer:
The methods used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA are homologous recombination and non-homologous end joining.
Explanation:
The methods that can be used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA are homologous recombination and non-homologous end joining (NHEJ). Homologous recombination repairs a double-stranded DNA break using a homologous sequence as a template, involving enzymes like MRX, MRN, and Sae2. On the other hand, non-homologous end joining directly rejoins the broken DNA ends without the need for a homologous template, often resulting in the loss of some DNA at the breakage site.
At the end of the practical class, all tissue and the remaining carcass of the cane toad must be placed __________.
Select one:
a. In the normal bin
b. In the glass bin
c. In special waste containers provided
d. Washed down the sink
The dietary energy content of food is measured in Calories.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
I hope I was helpful!
You do a Gram stain on the Gram standard culture and all you seeare
red bacteria. What can you conclude?
A. You may have decolorized too long.
B. The culture could contain Staphylococci that are older than
24hours
C. You may have forgotten to add the mordant (iodine)
D. The culture contains Gram-negative bacteria.
E. Answer choices a, b, and c.
Answer:
The correct answer is E. Answer choices a, b, and c.
Explanation:
There can be many causes for a gram standard culture to appear red like if we use decolorizer for a long time then even the gram-positive cells present in the culture will lose their dye and become decolorized. Then they appear red after counterstaining with safranin.
If a gram-positive culture is older than 24 hours they can appear red because after 24 hours because the peptidoglycan starts degenerating and fails to persist crystal violet it their walls.
Iodine makes complex with crystal violet which is retained by peptidoglycan present in gram-positive cell wall. So when we forgot to add iodine crystal violet will not be retained and cells will appear pink.
Thus, the correct answer is E. Answer choices a, b, and c.
Catabolism of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates can result in a 2-carbon molecule that enters the Krebs cycle. What is the molecule?
A) glucose
B) acetic acid or acetyl CoA
C) a fatty acid
D) an amino acid
E) pyruvate
Answer:
B) acetic acid or acetyl CoA
Explanation:
At the end of glycolysis, glucose is converted into two molecules of 3carbon pyruvate. In the next step, the 3 carbon pyruvate is converted into 2 carbon compound called acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA).
The acetyl CoA is the initiator of the citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle. In the respiration process, acetyl CoA is the link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is the oxidative decarboxylation reaction. In this reaction coenzyme NAD⁺ is e reduced to form NADH and removal of the carboxylic acid group and subsequent conversion into CO₂.
Final answer:
Acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) is the 2-carbon molecule that enters the Krebs cycle following the catabolism of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.
Explanation:
The 2-carbon molecule that results from the catabolism of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates and enters the Krebs cycle is known as acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA). Through the process of glycolysis, glucose is first broken down to form pyruvate, which is then converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrial matrix, a reaction facilitated by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase. This reaction includes the decarboxylation of pyruvate, which loses a carbon atom in the form of carbon dioxide, and the reduction of NAD+ to NADH. The resulting two-carbon acetyl group from acetyl CoA then combines with a four-carbon molecule, oxaloacetate, to form the six-carbon molecule citrate, signaling its entry into the Krebs cycle.
Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
a. the fish swam in a zigzag motion.
b. The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.
c. The temperature decreased from 20oC to 15oC.
d. The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks each.
Answer:
a. the fish swam in a zigzag motion.
Explanation:
When someone quantifies (quantity) usually assigns a certain number (1,2,3 etc.) quality is a subjective measure that depends on the point of view of the observer like color, behaviour.