What is the hypodermis?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The hypodermis is the last layer of the skin, it belongs to the integumentary system, it is also known as subcutaneous tissue. It consists mainly of loose connective tissue and stored fat. The following structures are found in the hypodermis:

-sweat glands

-Lymphatic vessels

-Surface blood vessels

-Cutaneous nerves

The hypodermis constitutes the bulk of the body fat deposit and its thickness varies depending on the nutritional status of each person

Explanation:


Related Questions

Which classification best suits the pancreas?
a) Exocrine
b) Endocrine
c) Exocrine and endocrine
d) Holocrine

Answers

Answer:

c) Exocrine and endocrine

Explanation:

The pancreas has both function exocrine and endocrine. The exocrine function is developed by the acinar cells that synthesize digestive enzimes.

The endocrine is developed by differents cells producing hormones, the alpha cells (glucagon), beta cells (insuline), delta cells (somatostatine), epsilon (ghrelin) and PP cells (pancreatic polypeptide).

Surfactant ______ surface tension in the alveoli, making the lung ______ compliant and thereby ________ the work required to inflate it.
A. Decrease, less, increasing
B. Increase, more, decreasing
C. increase, less, increasing
D. decrease, more, decreasing

Answers

Answer:  Option D " decrease, more, decreasing"

Explanation:

Pulmonary surfactant can be defined as the surface-active proteins which is made of type II alveolar cells. These surfactant is made of protein and lipids which are both hydrophobic and hydrophillic in nature.

It greatly reduces the surface tension in the alveoli, which make the lungs more compliant (ability of the lungs to stretch and expand) and hence, decreases the work required to inflate it.

Thus the correct answer is option D

A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Report to the clinic for quarterly monitoring of kidney function while taking this medication.
b. Mix with applesauce after crushing if the medication is difficult to swallow.
c. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
d. Take the medication with the evening meal.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching, would be: D: Take the medication wiht the evening meal.

Explanation:

Lovastatin is a medication that is used to lower the production of cholesterol by the body, in order to reduce is depositing on the blood vessel walls. Given its form of action, and its effects, and since the medication given to the patient is the extended-release version, then the indications are to instruct the patient that he should be taking it once a day, and it needs to be during a meal, preferably the evening meal. He should never chew, split, or crush the tablet, no matter what. This is why the correct answer is D.

The higher the coefficient of friction, the greater the tendency to slide. (higher coefficient of friction indicates less friction)
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Friction may be defined as the force that oppose the motion of the one object moving relative to the another object. Friction is a type of non conservative force.

Higher coefficient of friction means that friction is less. Less friction has the higher tendency to slide. Oiling and greasing reduces the friction of object and makes it more slippery.

Thus, the answer is true.

Lateral forces likely to cause damage to the tibial collateral ligament, ACL, and medial meniscus:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle

Answers

I think it’s hip but I’m not positive

Please provide a definition of an unconditioned reflex.

Answers

Answer: Hola  my name is Marissa and im here to help!:)

Explanation: an unconditioned reflex is basically an instinctive response to something it is NOT a taught reflex  in example "justin yanks his hand back from the hot stove" his stimuli  tell his nerves that it is hot and to quit touching it"

brainliest?

Which of the following is an irigation catheter used after transurethral prostatic surgery?
A. ureteral stent
B. three-way Foley
C. Robinson
D. Malecot

Answers

Answer: B. Three-way Foley

Explanation:

In the case of this postoperative, the catheter that is used is a Three-way Foley.

After the surgery, the physician needs to know who much blood and how much urine is going out by the urethra; and how much of those are produced after the surgery. It helps to know if the tissue is healing, I mean, if there is less blood every day, then the outcome of the surgery could be better.  

The Three-way Foley also has a bag at the end that allows to measure the quantity of the urine that is expected to produce every day.  

The three-way Foley is also a catheter with a balloon that inflates inside the bladder in order to keep the catheter in position, until the physician tell the patient, it is time to pull out.  

Explain how atherosclerotic plaques are formed and why they are unhealthy.

Answers

Answer:

Arteriosclerosis are plaques that form within the arteries, producing a decrease in arterial lumen. These plaques are usually made up of fatty tissue, calcium, cholesterol, fats found in the blood.

They are not healthy because they reduce the flow of oxygenated blood to the tissues, producing ischemia or cellular necrosis, for example acute myocardial infarction (when it comes to coronary artery obstruction) or vascular brain disease when the aortic artery is clogged.

Deprived of nutrition, osteocytes at the fracture site die.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Any living thing will die if it is lacking the proper nutrition.

Which disease is usually spread from infected animal to humans via a bite?
a) Polio
b) Small pox
c) Measles
d) Rabies
e) Amoebic dysentery

Answers

Answer:

D, rabies

Explanation:

Rabies is a very dangerous virus that is spread by a bite or scratch of an animal. It remains a problem in many countries in the world and people still die from its causes.

If a person is bitten by an animal in a rabies infected area, he should seek medical treatment immediately, as treatment must be given before the symptoms appear. The symptoms include fear of light and water, neurological problems and the most visible one, foam coming out of the mouth. The virus causes inflammation of the brain which leads to death.

Without early treatment, rabies is fatal.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about nutrition?
(a) Someone in positive nitrogen balance should be expected to gain muscle mass due to increased protein intake
(b) Excess acetyl CoA molecules react to form compounds called ketone
(c) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) has a higher density of lipids than
(d) Essential amino acids are those that the body must ingest from the bodies which usually are a sign that a person may be starving proteins environment

Answers

Answer:

d sounds absurd!

Explanation:

Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?
a. leukemia
b. anemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. adenocarcinoma

Answers

Answer:

A, leukemia

Explanation:

Cancer of white blood cells is called leukemia. White blood cells are very important in the body as they fight infections. When a person has leukemia, his bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells which don't function properly.

It is a form of blood cancer that starts in the bone marrow. Symptoms of this disease may include bleeding and bruising, feeling tired and being at higher risk for infections. The diagnosis is made during a blood test or a bone marrow biopsy.

Which stratum/sub layer is found in the dermis?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Papillary
C) Basale
D) granulosum
E) lucidum

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) Papillary

Explanation:

The thick layer of skin present between the subcutaneous tissues and the epidermis (outermost layer of skin), is known as the dermis. The dermis consists of elastic and fibrous tissues, which cushions the body from any external stress.

The dermis consists of two sub layers- the papillary region and the reticular dermis.

The papillary dermis is the uppermost layer present in the pepillary region of the dermis.

Therefore, papillary is a stratum or sub-layer of the dermis.

The pancreas releases alkaline, enzyme-rich pancreatic juice into the ____________ of the small intestine. What is the function of this juice?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is the duodenum.

Explanation:

Pancreatic juice is an alkaline fluid which contains important enzymes for the digestion of proteins, carbohydrates and fats.  

Pancreatic juice is secreted by the pancreas when food enters the stomach which is released into the "duodenum" of the small intestine. The pancreatic juice enters duodenum through a pancreatic duct which joins with the bile duct coming from the liver and form "ampulla of Vater" in the duodenum.

Pancreatic juice helps in digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats as it contains pro-enzymes and enzymes like trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, lipase and many more. It also makes the acidic stomach solution alkaline due to the presence of HCO₃.

Thus, the duodenum is the correct answer.

Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________

Answers

Answer:

The answer are:

 - Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Brain: cranial cavity

- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity

- Spinal cord: spine

- Heart: pericardic and thorax

- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

Final answer:

The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.

Explanation:

Body Cavities and Organ Locations

For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified

Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity

Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Brain: cranial cavity

Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)

Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity

Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity

Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity

Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity

Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.

Bone is continually resorbed.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A True

Explanation:

Bone remodeling is a process that take places annually throughout the bone tissue to be able to renew, they are enzymes that adhere and destroy the old bone to give rise to osteoblasts forming new tissue, since the bone is a tissue in constant process of physiological resorption and remodeling. This process is positive until the third decade of life, then it could become pathological.

What happens to alveolar volume and intra-alveolar pressure during exhalation?
1. Decrease alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
2. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
3. Decrease alveolar volume causes a decrease alveolar pressure
4. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option A.

Explanation:

Exhalation is a  mechanism of breathing which exhales out the gases from the lungs to the atmosphere.

During the exhalation process the thoracic volume decreases which decrease the lung volume. This decreases alveolar volume.  Due to this decrease in alveolar volume the intra- alveolar pressure increases above atmospheric pressure up to +2 cm of H₂O which results in the release of the gas or air out of the lungs.

Thus, option A is the correct answer.

Final answer:

During exhalation, the alveolar volume decreases, resulting in increased intra-alveolar pressure, leading to air being expelled from the lungs.

Explanation:

The relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas in the context of alveolar function during respiration can be explained by Boyle's Law, which states that pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. When a person exhales, the muscles of the lungs and chest wall contract, causing alveolar volume to decrease. This decrease in volume leads to an increase in intra-alveolar pressure because the same amount of gas is confined to a smaller space. Consequently, intra-alveolar pressure becomes higher than atmospheric pressure, causing air to flow out of the lungs.

Why can we use colon to administer drugs in case of an emergency?

Answers

Answer and Explanation :

When the patient is unconscious and not able to take medicine in form of tablets or capsule then colon comes into action, colon is a good way of administration of drugs when the patient is ill and can not take the medicine.

the colon is present bellow the liver so the drugs can effect more easily before the metabolism.lymphatic circulation is used for draining of colonwhen colon is present there is a less chance of degradation of drugs

What is the only type of receptor on the effector tissue of the SNS?
a) Muscarinic
b) Adrenergic
c) Cholinergic
d) Nicotinic
e) Autonomic

Answers

Answer:

B. Adrenergic

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system uses noradrenaline as the main neurotransmitter. Noradrenaline acts in alfa and beta adrenergic receptors and has effects over smooth muscle, cardiac tissue, and secretory glands.

Masseter:
a. originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla
b. inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible
c. is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve
d. all of the above statements are true

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is : d. all of the above statements are true

Explanation:

The masseter is a quadrilateral-shaped thick muscle, found only in the mammals. It is one of the muscles of mastication and is particularly very strong in the herbivores, as it used to facilitate chewing plant matter.

This muscle is composed of- superficial head and deep head.

The masseter muscle arises on the zygomatic arch and on the maxillary process of the zygomatic bone.

Whereas, the muscle inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible.

The anterior division of mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve innervates the masseter muscle.

Therefore, all of the statements given are true.

Final answer:

The Masseter originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla, inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible and is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve. Therefore, all of the statements are true.

Explanation:

The Masseter is a facial muscle that plays a crucial role in the movement of the jaw. Options a, b, and c are all correct. The Masseter originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla, as stated in option a. It inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible, as stated in option b. Finally, it is innervated by the trigeminal  (V) nerve, as stated in option c. Therefore, the correct answer is d: all of the statements are true.

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Describe the types of sympathetic and parasympathetic receptors and their associated neurotransmitters.

Answers

Answer:

Describe the types of sympathetic and parasympathetic receptors and their associated neurotransmitters.

Explanation:

1. Sympathetic or Adrenergic System. Preganglionic fibers emerge from the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord. The type function is to put the organism in an alert attitude.

2. Parasympathetic or Cholinergic System. Preganglionic fibers emerge from the cranial and sacral areas of the spinal cord. The type function is to establish a rest and recovery behavior. It links each of the body systems and organs with the brain, which interprets and activates responses.

3. Neurotransmission systems: all sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers have as specific or primary neurotransmitter Acetylcholine, which executes the transition by interaction with nicotic cholinergic receptors.

4. Norepinephrine or norepinephrine is a substance used primarily by the sympathetic or ortho sympathetic nervous system. It is part of the neurotransmitters: its function is to transmit messages through the nerves to the different components of the body through numerous physiological processes.

5. Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is one of those polyvalent substances that our body uses to regulate different body processes. It is a hormone, but it is also a neurotransmitter, which means that it acts as an intermediary in the communication between neurons that is established in synaptic spaces.

6. Dopamine is the most important catecholaminergic neurotransmitter of the Central Nervous System of mammals and participates in the regulation of various functions such as motor behavior, emotionality and affectivity as well as in neuroendocrine communication.

Amber has a kidney disease that causes a decrease in the effectiveness of ADH in the kidney.
a. What is the role of ADH in the body?
b. What are precautionary measure that Amber needs to take to prevent serious side effects?
c. What are the first signs of dehydration?
d. As a result of a decrease in ADH, what would you predict would happen to other hormonal mechanisms of the kidney to help create/maintain better fluid balance?
e. Why did you make that prediction?

Answers

Answer:

i need the answer

Explanation:

Final answer:

ADH regulates the body's water conservation process. Amber should stay hydrated to prevent dehydration, while other hormonal mechanisms may step in to compensate the decreased ADH. First signs of dehydration include thirst, dark urine, dry mouth, fatigue, lightheadedness.

Explanation:

ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's water balance. Released by the pituitary gland, it increases the water permeability of kidney's collecting ducts, promoting water reabsorption back into the bloodstream and thus limiting its loss in urine.

Amber, with decreased ADH effectiveness, would likely produce larger amounts of urine, possibly leading to dehydration. To prevent serious side effects, Amber must stay adequately hydrated, monitor her urine output and consistency, and seek medical help if signs of dehydration occur. First signs of dehydration often include thirst, darker than normal urine, dry mouth, fatigue, and lightheadedness.

With decreased ADH function, other hormonal mechanisms in the kidney, like the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, may be stimulated to maintain fluid balance. This system can conserve sodium, which in turn retains water, decreasing the likelihood of dehydration.

This prediction was made because the body has numerous systems in place to maintain homeostasis, if one fails, others often step in to compensate.

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The exchange of nutrients and respiratory gases occurs between these small, one-cell wide vessels, ______, and the blood and tissue fluid around the cells.
a. arteries
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. arterioles

Answers

Answer:

( C ) Capillaries

Explanation:

Capillary is the smallest blood vessels of the body , of 5 to 10 micrometres diameter.

These blood vessels forms a large network in the body.

The function of the capillaries is to exchange nutrients , oxygen , waste in between the blood and the tissues.

The blood flow in the body is as follows-

The blood flows from the heart via arteries , which further branches into arteriols , which further branches into capillaries , where the nutrients get exchanged .

After the exchange process is done , then the capillaries merge to become wide, venules , these venules further widen to become veins , and the blood is returned back to the heart by the vein , venae cavae.

A neurotransmitter of the sympathetic division of the nervous system that increases the heart rate and constricts smooth muscle in blood vessels to raise blood pressure in the "fight or flight" response is called:
a. epinephrine.
b. aldosterone.
c. melatonin.
d. prolactin.

Answers

Answer:

a. epinephrine.

Explanation:

Discovered in 1895, epinephrine, the hormone of "fight or flight" is a key neurotransmitter as man evolved.

Produced by the adrenal glands, it s main function is to trigger a quick response to potenital threats, seen an increased blood pressure to muscles, heart rate, pupils dilatation and increased metabolyizing of suger.

The incorrect levels of epinephrine will characterize a person suffering an anxiety disorder. If a situation requieres a stress response, epinephrine will help a living organism like mammals to answer quickly and surive.

Final answer:

The neurotransmitter that increases the heart rate and constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure in the 'fight or flight' response is epinephrine (adrenaline).

Explanation:

The neurotransmitter associated with the 'fight or flight' response within the sympathetic division of the nervous system is a. epinephrine. Also known as adrenaline, epinephrine is responsible for increasing heart rate and constricting smooth muscle in blood vessels, which elevates blood pressure. This neurological reaction prepares the body to react in stressful or potentially dangerous situations.

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Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The given statement is TRUE

Explanation:

Friction is a force experienced by a body that resists its motion.

In other words, Friction is the force experienced by the two bodies (with uneven or rough surfaces) when moving against each other.

When an object slides on a surface, the surface area of the object in contact with the surface is more as compared to an object which is rolled on the surface. Therefore, the friction force experienced by the sliding body is greater than the rolling body.

Therefore, we can say that the rolling friction is less than the sliding friction.

An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:
a. diastole
b. systole

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:____, would be, A: Diastole.

Explanation:

It is first important to know that a murmur comes from the sound the blood makes as it passes either through a hardened tissue, like is the case of stenosis of a valve, or because it leaks back from where it came, due to regurgitation, because the valve is defective and cannot close properly. During the cardiac cycle, there is a process of systole, and of diastole, that ensure the filling and expulsion of the blood inside the heart towards the body, and from the body into the heart, so that a constant flow is ensured. In the process of filling and emptying, two sets of valves, the mitral and tricuspid, and the aortic and pulmonary, open and close to allow blood flow towards the different chambers of the heart, and out into the blood vessels of the body, and prevent the blood from returning towards where it came. In the case of mitral stenosis, which is the toughening of the mitral valve of the heart, the blood flowing through it makes a murmuring sound that can be caught up through a stethoscope. This sound is prominent during diastole, and that is why medically this murmur is known as a diastolic murmur.

Of the four main classes of connective tissue, which has the least solid ground substance?
a) Connective tissue proper
b) Cartilage
c) Bone tissue
d) Blood

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D: Blood

Explanation:

The fundamental substance is part of the extracellular matrix and comprises a set of proteins on which mineral salts are fixed to form the connective tissue. They are always attached to the fibers (collagen, elastin, reticulin). The fundamental substance of the blood is going to be found in the blood plasma, being therefore the least solid.

Answer: Blood

Explanation:

In the fluid connective tissue the least solid ground substance is found in blood. Blood is one of the four main connective tissue which transports various materials from one place to another.

It is a fluid containing salts, nutrients and dissolved proteins. The watery fluid carrying oxygen from heart to the vital organs and then carrying carbon dioxide from vital organs to the heart.

Hence, the correct answer is blood.

What is electrical firing mechanism of the heart?

Answers

Answer:

The process of contraction and relaxation to pump blood to heart by atria and ventricles together is called electrical firing mechanism of the heart.

The electrical system regulates the timing of heartbeat through sending electrical signal.

The electrical signal originates in a group of cells at the top of heart known as  sinoatrial (SA) node and send the signal to right and left atria that triggers the atria muscles to get contract. after atria contraction the blood transfer to left and right ventricles and electrical signal arrives at atrioventricular node (AV node) that slows down the electrical signal and provide time to receive blood from atria to ventricles. electrical signal then move to ventricle muscles and allow them to contract. The left ventricle pumps blood to all body parts and right ventricle pumps blood to lungs.

After contraction of both atria and ventricles the electrical mechanism resets itself and follows the same process again.

Final answer:

The electrical firing mechanism of the heart coordinates the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles and is responsible for pumping blood. It starts with the sinoatrial (SA) node and involves the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers. The resulting electrical currents can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Explanation:

The electrical firing mechanism of the heart is responsible for coordinating the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles, allowing it to pump blood through the circulatory system. The process starts with the heart's natural pacemaker, called the sinoatrial (SA) node, which sends out electrical impulses that cause the atria to contract. From there, the impulses travel to the atrioventricular (AV) node, the bundle of His, the bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibers, which stimulate the ventricles to contract. This coordinated electrical activity produces the characteristic electrical currents that flow through the body and can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response icd 10

Answers

Answer

In some cases of afib, the fibrillation of the atria causes the ventricles, of lower chambers of the heart, to beat too fast.  This is called a rapid ventricular rate or response.  (RVR) if you have afib with RVR you'll experience symptoms, typically a rapid or fluttering heart beat.  

Explanation:

Chronic obstructive pulomonary diseases (COPD), include:
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emplysema
c. pneumonia
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary diseases (COPD), include:____, would be, D: a and b are correct.

Explanation:

COPD, or best known as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonay Disorder, is the general name given to a disease in which the lungs are incapable of performing their task of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, because of an obstruction either of the airways, or the alveoli, which are the sacks in which the actual exchange takes place. This obstruction can happen either because of an overproduction of mucus, or because the airways become fibrous, and therefore, oxygen cannot be exchanged. The other reason is when the alveoli are damaged and destroyed and air sacks form in the lungs. In COPD, we have two types: Chronic Bronchitis, in which due to continuous coughing, and mucus production, the bronchi become inflamed and fibrous and therefore exchange is much more difficult. In the second form, we have emphysema, in which the constant coughing starts affecting the lining of the alveoli, until it can literally be destroyed and pockets of air can form inside the actual lung tissue.

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