Answer:
B. PCR
Explanation:
The PCR stands for 'Patient Care Report.' It is a legal document that needs to have all the procedures done to the patient. This document becomes part of the patients permanent medical record and is used in court in legal cases. It is also used to bill medical expenses. This document needs to be filled out when the EMTs arrive at an emergency situation whereas the other documents like a medical chart is filled out by the practitioners at the hospital and not the scene; and triage tags are used in mass injuries for identification on immediate needs and deceased.
A mother with a three-day old baby presents with sore nipples. The problem began with the first feeding and has persisted with every feeding. The most likely source of the problem is:
Answer:
Bad position of the baby while breastfeeding
Explanation:
The baby needs to take part not only the nipple and the aerola. It needs to be an asimetrical grip, that is, the baby takes a larger portion of the lower part of the aerola than the upper part
When Abdallah met Aimee for the first time he was struck by three things: she was pretty, she was tall, and she kept backing away from him. Aimee also was struck by three things: Abdallah was handsome, he was tall, and he stood really, really close to her—uncomfortably close, as a matter of fact. Why would some of their initial impressions be so similar yet others be so different?
Answer:
Appropriate conversational distance is a norm that varies from culture to culture
Explanation:
Select the incorrect statement.
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
2) MDMA has both stimulant and hallucinogenic effects.
3) High doses of anticholinergic drugs can cause hallucinogenic effects.
4) Hallucinogens can cause the user to become aware of thoughts and feelings that had been forgotten or repressed.
Answer:
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
Explanation:
LSD-25 or LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide), popularly known as "sweet" or "acid", is a synthetic hallucinogen that causes mood swings and hallucinations. It is commonly consumed in nightclubs and parties and is therefore used most often by the teenage and young adult audience. Because it is derived from lysergic acid, LSD cannot be classified as a hallucinogen phenylethylamine.
This illicit drug, that is, for prohibited use, is produced in laboratories from the substance ergot, obtained from the fungus Claviceps purpurea (ergot), which develops in rye and other grains. Unlike other drugs, LSD has no color, smell or taste. And their consumption can be very varied - mostly made orally or sublingually, in the form of paper (filter paper or stamps) or drops. However, although less frequent, the drug may be injected, inhaled or smoked.
During adolescence, young people are often too embarrassed to ask their parents about sexuality, and, at the same time, parents are ambivalent about their children's developing sexual nature.
True / False.
I would say true....
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Usually, young people don't ask their parents about their sexuality.
________________ is becoming a common practice of raising clients’ level of function before surgery to assist with their recovery and limit their decline from normal function after the surgery.a. Rehabilitationb. Preventative habilitationc. Pretherapyd. Prehabilitation
Answer:
d. Prehabilitation
Explanation:
Prehabilitation is becoming a common practice of raising clients’ level of function before surgery to assist with their recovery and limit their decline from normal function after the surgery.
You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?
A.Anaphylaxis
B.Heat stroke
C.Allergic reaction
D.Hyperventilation syndrome
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. Anaphylaxis.
Explanation:
Anaphylaxis is a very serious allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not get emergency help immediately. This allergic reaction occurs due to venom, medication or food, generally because of a bee sting or the food allergy like peanut or mushroom. Some people also allergic to pollens so it can be specific to the person.
Anaphylaxis has several symptoms such as nausea, face seeking, short and difficulty in breathing, vomiting, rashes, wheezing, low blood pressure and several other symptoms. Anaphylactic shock is one of the major symptoms.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. Anaphylaxis.
Multiple Angles Bart was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia and has since started taking Thorazine. He meets with his doctor, Dr. Aimes, at a follow-up visit to evaluate his progress on Thorazine. Dr. Aimes is concerned that due to the Thorazine, Bart is showing signs of ____.
a. memory lossb. severe insomniac. cataplexyd. tardive dyskinesia
Answer:
Tardive dyskinesia.
Explanation:
Tardive dyskinesia may be defined as a medical condition in which the body's involuntary movements are uncontrolled. Rapid sudden movements of the body increases during this disease.
Bart is suffering from schizophrenia as he started taking thorazine. Thorazine drug has multiple effect on the body. The main main side effect of thorazine is the development of tardive dyskinesia. The neuromuscular reactions of the body gets disturb by taking thorazine.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
At the fireworks show, Michael is afraid and thinks his newborn sister is sick when she suddenly flings her arms and legs out from her body, then pulls them in tightly. Michael’s mom is not concerned because she knows that this is just the baby’s __________ reflex.
a) moro
b) rooting
c) grasping
d) tonic neck
Answer:
Moro.
Explanation:
Moro reflex may be defined as a type of the infantile reflex that occur during 30-35 weeks of the gestation. The evaluation of integration of central nervous system occurs at moro reflex.
The moro reflex causes the flings of the baby arms and her legs are out from her body. The baby spread the arms and causes arms adduction. Michaels' afraid of the sister response but her mother knows that this is a simple moro reflex of the baby.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?A. Document the findings in the client's recordB. Perform both the distant and near visual acuity testsC. Test the pupils for direct and consensual reaction to lightD. Obtain a referral to the ophthalmologist for a complete eye exam
Answer: B. Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests.
Explanation:
Visual acuity test is done to examine the fact that how well the eyes can observe the details of the symbols or letters from a specific distance. It is the ability of the eyes to discern the details as well as the shapes which the eyes see.
According to the given situation, the visual acuity tests is a correct approach to judge the visibility of the patient.
A researcher wanted to compare the relative effectiveness of two techniques for reducing anxiety: a drug and a relaxation exercise. The researcher gave the experimental group both the drug and the relaxation exercise. The control group was given neither the drug nor the exercise. The difference between the drug and the relaxation exercise cannot be compared in this experiment because the experiment involves a
Answer: Confounding
Explanation: Confounding is the term that defines the influence occurring in dependent and non-dependent components due to the external/outside factor. This outside factor can cause the effect on overall experiment and its design.
According to the experiment executed in the question, experimental group and control group cannot be compared because the confounding factor are present in the experimental group so that must have influence their characteristics. Thus, the outcome of the experiment while comparing will be impacted.
Final answer:
The experiment described cannot adequately compare the effectiveness of a drug versus a relaxation exercise due to a design flaw involving a confounding variable. Proper experimental procedures include randomly assigning treatments and using placebo groups, as demonstrated by the Keller et al. (2001) study on the efficacy of Paxil versus a placebo for treating anxiety.
Explanation:
The experiment described in the student's question has a fundamental design flaw, as it cannot discern whether the reduction in anxiety is due to the drug, the relaxation exercise, or a combination of both since the experimental group received both interventions and the control group received none. This situation is known as a confounding variable because multiple variables are changing at the same time, making it impossible to attribute the effect to a single cause.
In order to compare the relative effectiveness of two treatments, a proper experimental design would involve four groups: one for the drug alone, one for the relaxation exercise alone, one with both treatments, and a control group receiving neither (or a placebo). This design would isolate the effects of each treatment and allow for accurate comparison. For reference, a well-structured experiment uses a placebo, and participants are randomly assigned to either the experimental group or the control group, ensuring that any differences in outcome can be attributed to the treatment itself.
The Keller et al. (2001) study on treating anxiety with the drug Paxil provides a good example of a controlled experiment. They compared the effectiveness of Paxil to a placebo drug and concluded that the improvements in the group receiving Paxil were significant, ruling out the possibility of the effects being due to the placebo alone.
When working with young children, adults often provide assistance, instruction, and other support. As children demonstrate they can do more for themselves, Vygotsky recommends that adults begin to withdraw these supports. This demonstrates the concept of
Answer: Scaffolding.
Explanation: According to the theory of Vygotsky , scaffolding is the technique that helps the students or children to achieve the aim of learning something with the guidance of elder like parents, teacher, grandparents etc.
The theory describes that peer should be instructor to provide guidance so that children would be able to perform task in wider range but they should peer should also know proper implementation way of scaffolding.
They should withdraw their guidance at time for children to perform some activity on their own so than they can also develop their mind and can have independent learning.
The benefits of a brain's plasticity are easily seen in:
a. children who have portions of their damaged brain surgically removed
b. veterans paralyzed by a severed spinal cord
c. children with aphasia
d. people able to speak multiple languages
e. people without brain damage
Answer:
a. children who have portions of their damaged brain surgically removed
Explanation:
Brain Plasticity refers to the ability of the brain to change throughout life. It is the adaptive capacity of the CNS (Central Nervous System), is the ability to modify the structural and functional organization in response to experiences (environmental stimuli). The human brain has the incredible ability to "self-reorganize" through new connections between nerve cells, called neurons. Plasticity is of great benefit to children who have had to surgically remove an injured part of the brain, because their brain will reorganize and lessen the side effects that the surgery may have caused.
Brain plasticity can be observed in all the given cases, particularly in individuals who had a part of their brain removed but still maintain or regain cognitive abilities. Other examples include paralyzed veterans who regain abilities through rehabilitation, multilingual individuals, and people learning new skills.
Explanation:The benefits of a brain's plasticity can be easily observed in all the options mentioned above. However, strong empirical evidence of this phenomenon comes from cases like children who have had portions of their damaged brain surgically removed, but managed to maintain or regain their cognitive abilities. Brain plasticity is also seen in veterans paralyzed by a severed spinal cord who regain physical abilities through rehabilitation, children with aphasia who improve language function, and in anyone capable of learning multiple languages, an ability which requires the brain to adapt and reorganize neuronal networks.
Furthermore, learning in general, represented by the ability of a person without brain damage to learn and acquire new skills, is a fundamental example of the plastic nature of the brain. Hence, while every option reflects a case of brain plasticity, the most striking examples are typically seen following damage or injury to the brain, where the remaining healthy sections compensate for the lost or damaged areas.
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The nurse is evaluating the coping skills of a client with a diagnosis of depression. Which statement indicates to the nurse the need to help the client learn and appropriately use these skills?
Answer:
"I won't ever be depressed again."
Explanation:
Depression is a chronic and often recurrent psychiatric disorder that produces a mood change characterized by profound, endless sadness associated with feelings of pain, bitterness, disenchantment, hopelessness, low self-esteem, and guilt, as well as disturbance. of sleep and appetite. During treatment of a depressed patient, it is important that the patient be informed and understand about the disease. The patient must understand that because of his recurring character he may become depressed again and again during the day, this does not mean that the treatment is not working, nor does it mean that the patient will never have moments of happiness again.
A 23-year-old patient with a recent history of encephalitis is admitted to the medical unit with new onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing activities included in the patient's care will be best to delegate to an LPN/LVN whom you are supervising? (Choose all that apply).A Document the onset time, nature of seizure activity, and postictal behaviors for all seizures.B Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO daily.C Teach patient about the need for good oral hygiene.D Develop a discharge plan, including physician visits and referral to the Epilepsy Foundation.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
It should be monitored the onset of these events and the behaviour of the patient after the event. We must not administer treatment without the real cause identified.
Source:
Prakash Giri V, Prakash Giri O, Haque A y col. Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research 10(7):FC01-FC04, Jul 2016.
You are dispatched to a residence for a man who cut his hand with a chainsaw. Upon arriving at the scene, your FIRST action should be to: A) immediately gain access to the patient. B) apply gloves, a gown, and facial protection. C) determine if air medical transport is available. D) carefully assess the scene for safety hazards
Answer: tie the wound
Explanation:tie the wound smoothly and should not tight it
This stops bleeding which prevents loss of blood from the blood vessels which may cause death due to severe blood loss
A 12-year-old child at a soccer game grabs their chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, the child’s parent informs you that the child has a history of asthma, but does not have an inhaler nearby. What care should you provide?
a) Wait 20 minutes to see if the breathing difficulty goes away.
b) Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps
c) breathing.
d) Tell the victim to use an inhaler borrowed from a bystander.
e) Give 5 back blows.
Answer: Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breahing.
Explanation: In the event of someone falling and banging their head it is imperative that you check them and make sure they show signs of life, e.g. breathing, they need to breathe to sustain life
The other thing is never move a patient from the scene unless there is immediate danger, its best to summon medical assistance, but first you must check their ABC,
A - Airway, is it blocked, put your fingers in their mouth and check for any foreign objects which may cause choking,
B - Breathing, are they breathing, there isn't much point moving someone or doing anything else unless they are breathing.
C - Chest compressions, start chest compressions to restart their breathing - make sure you read up on this and know how to place your hands over the victims chest though I think just recently that has been scrapped and its just a case now of pumping an adults chest with your hands best way possible to get their breathing going again. (this step should be done by trained personnel as this can cause rib breakage)
The nursing instructor is preparing a class presentation covering the various hormones and their functions during pregnancy. The instructor determines the class is successful when the class correctly matches which function with hCG?
Answer:
continues progesterone production by corpus luteum
Explanation:
hCG is the acronym for human chorionic gonadotropin hormone. This is a pregnancy-specific hormone that is incredibly important to women who are pregnant, but it doesn't matter much to those who aren't. HCG is the hormone responsible for all the early symptoms of pregnancy, which causes millions of women around the world to wonder if they are pregnant or not, many of them even before having a pregnancy test. Breast tenderness, feeling a little emotional (sensitive), nausea and fatigue, all these symptoms are due to hCG in the body. The main function of this hormone is to continue the progesterone production by the corpus luteum.
Which Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
a. obese individuals are generally nutritionally healthy.
b. the body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance.
c. deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
d. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Answer:
D. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Explanation:
The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages ofsmall cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia?
- Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors
- High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting
- Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia
- Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat
Answer:
- Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia
Explanation:
Lung cancer is a tumor characterized by the breakdown of the lung's natural cellular mechanisms from carcinogenic stimuli over the years, leading to disorganized growth of malignant cells. One of the most striking symptoms of lung cancer is rapid weight loss and appetite this causes the extreme weight loss in the patient that is caused by the tumor's own products and the hypermetabolic state causing cachexia.
Choose the correct statement from the list below:
A. Mechanical digestion of proteins is more important than chemical digestion.
B. Protein digestion begins in the small intestine with the activation of trypsinogen to trypsin
C. The stomach has a high pH which allows for the activation of digestive enzymes.
D. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Answer:
D. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Explanation:
Protein digestion begins from stomach and continues in small intestine too. In stomach, enzyme pepsin is responsible for breakdown of proteins into smaller fragments. The acidic environment created by hydrochloric acid facilitates this process.
Protein fragments move from stomach to small intestine where the main breakdown occurs. Pancreas releases two enzymes, trypsin and chymotrypsin in small intestine. These two enzymes along with some enzymes secreted by the small intestine breakdown the small protein fragments into individual amino acids which are finally absorbed via villi in small intestine.
Jamal wants to know if a new drug will increase reaction times for drivers. In his study, the use of a group that does not take the drug, which allows for a comparison of reaction times between the drug-taking and non-drug taking groups, is the ________.
Answer: Control group
Explanation:
Control group is a group which is used as a benchmark or standard for comparison of the changes that occur in the dependent or experimental variable. This group does not receive any treatment in the experiment but only kept for the purpose of comparison with other variables.
In the given study, the use of the group that does not take the drug is the example of the control group.
Billy hates it when his upstairs neighbor wakes up early to take a shower. He is typically abruptly awakened when the water starts, but then he gets used to the noise and goes back to sleep. In this example, Billy is showing learning through _______.
Answer:
habituation
Explanation:
Whenever we come across a new stimulus, our attention is mobilized for a longer time. After a few repetitions, the stimulus loses its ability to mobilize us as before. Thus, habituation happens. It is an automatic decrease in the intensity of a response to a repetitive stimulus. Based on this, we can conclude that you went through the learning process based on habituation to the noise your neighbor made while taking a shower.
Lactose is composed of glucose and galactose and is a naturally occurring carbohydrate. Unfortunately, many individuals cannot tolerate lactose and develop gastrointestinal symptoms after ingesting it. These individuals would do best eating what dairy food?
Answer:
Greek Yogurt
Explanation:
Greek yogurt contains less lactose than regular yogurt. The probiotics found in the yogurt will help further break down the lactose.
(this is the answer i found, but there are other examples as well)
An older adult client is being treated for hemorrhoids and asks the health care practitioner whether her topical ointment cream will interact with her other medications. What can the health care practitioner tell her?
Answer:
the medication should have no interaction with the client's other medications, because this is absorbed locally at the site of the hemorrhoids
Explanation:
Drug interactions are one of the most common drug-related problems. Seeking information about this problem is essential for the efficiency of pharmacological treatment and to avoid health damage caused by the use of medicines.
Topical ointments are creams that are used on the skin and are absorbed where they were applied, so there is a very low risk that these ointments interact with other medicines, as these interactions occur with medicines that enter the bloodstream. Therefore, we can conclude that in the case of the patient described in the question, the drug should not interact with the client's other drugs, because it is absorbed locally at the hemorrhoid site.
The health care practitioner should advise the client to consult with her healthcare provider or pharmacist regarding potential interactions between her topical ointment cream for hemorrhoids and her other medications.
Explanation:The health care practitioner can inform the older adult client that there is a possibility of drug interactions between the topical ointment cream for hemorrhoids and her other medications. Since we don't have the specific medications she's taking, it's important for her to consult with her healthcare provider or pharmacist. They can review her medications and provide guidance on potential interactions and any necessary precautions.
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When an individual strives to increase their muscular strength, they will be focused on creating maximum force for a single effort. This conditioning has the potential impact to increase the overall mass of a muscle, which is also known as:__________
Answer:
Functional training
Explanation:
Functional training is nothing more than a training method whose main objective is to improve the individual's performance in a specific activity, whether in their daily activities, in any sport or bodybuilding. For this reason, we can state that a conditioning that has the potential impact of increasing the total mass of a muscle, also known as functional training.
Functional training exercises do not only work on the muscles, but according to the activity for which the individual is trained the training may include proprioception, balance, agility, coordination, and any other skill required by the activity for which the individual is trained.
The nursing instructor is teaching students about Alzheimer's disease. The instructor informs the students that clients with this illness experience problems with memory and thinking. The reason that this happens is which?
Answer:
Hippocampus cells get damaged.
Explanation:
This cells are associated with learning, they are the first damaged. So, in some way, learning stops. When these cells continue damaging, the information allocated is slowly lost.
Jacoby's mother had schizophrenia, and so Jacoby was raised by his grandparents. Now, at age 22, Jacoby is experiencing severe stress due to his new job and his grandfather's unexpected death. He is beginning to display symptoms of schizophrenia. The manifestation of these symptoms is best explained by which of the following developmental concept:
Answer:
Diathesis-stress model.
Explanation:
Diathesis-stress model may be defined as the psychological theory that are used to explain any disorder or the stress of the individual. Diathesis has been derived fro the greek word that means sensibility.
Jacoby experiences stress that can be measured by the diathesis-stress model. The symptoms of his schizophrenia and its symptoms can be easily diagnosed by the the diathesis-stress model. This model can be used to express the stress of the individual.
Thus, the answer is the diathesis-stress model.
JoAnn has an infection. Choose the correct way to complete each sentence.
JoAnn has a cold. She is coughing up mucus (a respiratory secretion) from her lungs. JoAnn is the in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the in the chain of transmission.
Hi !
Answer:
- JoAnn is the reservoir in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the portal of exit in the chain of transmission.
Answer:
JoAnn is the reservoir in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the portal of exit in the chain of transmission.
Explanation:
Infection can be defined as the penetration and development or multiplication of an infectious agent in the body of man or another animal. The infection may trigger some clinical manifestations, being in this case called infectious disease.
A reservoir in the transmission chain can be understood as the habitat of an infectious agent in which it lives, grows and multiplies. In this case, as the infectious agent is using JoAnn's body as a habitat to develop, we can say that in the chain of infection JoAnn is the reservoir.
The exit portal in an infection transmission chain is where the body expels the microorganism that is the infectious agent. In this case, the exit portal is JoAnn's sneeze and cough.
Iris, usually involved with her friends, has become withdrawn and isolated. she has stopped taking showers and changing her clothes. when asked what she is thinking, she describes, in scattered phrases, a frightening inner world of demons and threats. these symptoms illustrate which phase of schizophrenia?a. prodromalb. reactivec. residuald. active
Answer: D) Active
Explanation: It is the phase where the disease is triggered, they are called outbreaks or crises, the symptoms that occur are the positive ones (hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders) and disorganization. The intervals between outbreaks, depending on the characteristics of the person, can vary between months and several years and are generally of the same duration in the same person.
Iris's symptoms suggest she is in an active phase of schizophrenia, characterized by both prominent positive symptoms such as hallucinations and negative symptoms such as social withdrawal and poor hygiene.
Explanation:The described symptoms of Iris in the scenario given, such as social withdrawal, poor hygiene, disorganized thoughts, and frightening hallucinations or delusions, are indicative of an active phase of schizophrenia. This phase is characterized by a worsening of psychotic symptoms, which can include both positive symptoms (like hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (like withdrawal and poor hygiene).
During the prodromal phase, symptoms are less obvious and may gradually develop, while the reactive and residual phases refer to periods following an active phase, typically marked by a reduction of symptoms and a movement towards baseline functioning. Iris's experiences as outlined particularly point to an active phase due to the presence of stark psychotic features, such as her description of a world with demons and threats along with significant functional impairment.
Fever ________.
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
Answer:
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
Explanation: